IM Essentials Flashcards

1
Q

What are risk factors for seizure recurrence after a first seizure?

A

The risk of recurrence is greatest in patients who have status epilepticus on presentation, an identifiable underlying neurologic cause, or abnormal results on an electroencephalogram (EEG). Patients with a partial seizure who are age 65 years or older or who have a family history of epilepsy may also be in a higher-risk category.

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2
Q

What does MRI of brain in FTD show?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain shows disproportionate atrophy of the frontal and anterior temporal regions.

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3
Q

What is the main modifiable RF for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

The duration and intensity of smoking correlate with the risk of developing rheumatoid arthritis.

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4
Q

What should you do once the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is confirmed?

A

CT of the chest to rule out thymoma as this is present in 15% of MG pts.

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5
Q

What is the characteristic finding of fibromuscular dysplasia on renal artery angiogram?

A

On angiogram, the characteristic finding of fibromuscular dysplasia is the “string of beads” appearance of the involved artery

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6
Q

Why can hypercalcemia lead to dehydration?

A

High calcium levels impair the ability of the nephron to concentrate urine, which results in inappropriate water loss from the kidney.

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7
Q

When is bariatric surgery for weight reduction indicated?

A

Bariatric surgery is recommended as a treatment option for patients who have been unable to maintain weight loss with diet and exercise with or without drug therapy with class III obesity, defined as patients who have a body mass index (BMI) ≥40, or those with BMIs of 35 to 39.9 (class II) who have obesity-related comorbid conditions, such as hypertension, impaired glucose tolerance, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and obstructive sleep apnea.

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8
Q

What is lorcaserin and what is it used for?

A

It is a serotonin 2C agonist and is used for weight loss w/ similar efficacy as orlistat although it lacks long term safety data.

Avoid using in combo w/ other serotonergic drugs like SSRIs.

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9
Q

What is the definition of subclinical hypothyroidism?

A

A serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level greater than the reference range, with a concomitant serum free thyroxine (T4) level in the reference range. Patients typically have mild or no symptoms of hypothyroidism.

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10
Q

What is the optimal glucose management approach for an a severely ill (i.e. ICU) pt?

A

The optimal glucose management for this critically ill patient is an insulin drip with a target plasma glucose level of 140-200 mg/dL (7.8-11.1 mmol/L).

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11
Q

What classifies moderately persistent asthma per guidelines? What do guidelines recommend for “step-up” treatment at this point?

A

Daily symptoms of asthma and nocturnal awakenings more than once per week

Guidelines recommend the addition of a long-acting β2-agonist to medium-dose corticosteroids in patients with moderate persistent asthma.

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12
Q

What is the appropriate follow up for patients w/ average risk prostate cancer who achieve remission after radiation therapy?

A

Patients with average-risk prostate cancer who achieve remission after radiation therapy should receive follow-up with serial digital rectal examinations and serum PSA measurement every 6 to 12 months.

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13
Q

What is Asherman syndrome?

A

It is intrauterine adhesions. Asherman syndrome is caused by endometrial scarring after a uterine procedure (usually repeated dilation and curettage) and should be considered in any woman with amenorrhea and past exposure to uterine instrumentation.

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14
Q

What is Lemierre syndrome? When should you suspect it?

A

It is septic thrombus of the jugular vein. The diagnosis of septic thrombosis of the jugular vein (Lemierre syndrome) should be suspected in patients with pharyngitis, persistent fever, neck pain, and septic pulmonary emboli.

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15
Q

What sorts of medications should be avoided in HFpEF?

A

Those that decrease preload.

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16
Q

What malignancies are Henoch-Schönlein purpura associated with?

A

Onset of Henoch-Schönlein purpura may occur in adults and can be associated with solid tumors or the myelodysplastic syndrome.

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17
Q

When is DEXA scanning for osteoporosis screening recommended in women?

A

The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends screening for osteoporosis with DEXA in all women age 65 years or older and also in younger women with an elevated fracture risk.

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18
Q

What are the modifiable risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

Among the modifiable risk factors for osteoporosis are adequate amounts of both calcium and vitamin D, regular exercise, cessation of cigarette smoking, and avoidance of alcohol abuse.

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19
Q

What is the best treatment for asymptomatic pancreatic pseudocysts following pancreatitis?

A

Asymptomatic pancreatic pseudocysts following acute pancreatitis typically resolve spontaneously and do not require treatment.

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20
Q

When is EPO indicated in CKD?

A

ESAs are indicated for patients with CKD who have hemoglobin levels less than 10 g/dL (100 g/L), but other causes of anemia, including iron deficiency, hemoglobinopathies, vitamin B12 deficiency, and gastrointestinal blood loss, should be considered before beginning this therapy.

Don’t initiate ESAs in Hgb > 12g/dL as EPO is associated w/ increased CV outcomes.

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21
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosing osteoarthritis?

A

Knee osteoarthritis can be diagnosed if knee pain is accompanied by at least three of the following features: age greater than 50 years, stiffness lasting less than 30 minutes, crepitus, bone tenderness, bone enlargement, and no palpable warmth. These criteria are 95% sensitive and 69% specific for diagnosis.

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22
Q

What are effective treatments for acute gout attacks?

A

Effective treatment of acute attacks of gout involves therapy with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), glucocorticoids, or colchicine.

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23
Q

True or false, eosinophilia can be seen in adrenal insufficiency?

A

True!

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24
Q

What are the screening guidelines for cervical cancer?

A

Although the typical Pap smear screening interval for women ages 21 to 65 years is every 3 years, the USPSTF now recommends that women 30 to 65 years old may have a Pap smear with HPV testing every 5 years if they wish to extend the time in between tests

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25
Q

What are the screening guidelines for osteoporosis?

A

The USPSTF recommends routine screening for osteoporosis in all women aged ≥65 years and in younger women who are at increased risk for osteoporotic fractures.

Women at increased risk for low bone density include those with a smoking history, physical inactivity, secondary osteoporosis, prolonged glucocorticoid use, prolonged hyperthyroidism, celiac disease, a family history of osteoporosis, and inadequate calcium intake.

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26
Q

How do likelihood ratio results correlate to the increase or decrease in likelihood of a disease being present?

A

LR(+) values of 2, 5, and 10 correspond to an increase in disease probability by 15%, 30%, and 45%, respectively; LR(-) values of 0.5, 0.2, and 0.1 correspond to a decrease in disease probability by 15%, 30%, and 45%, respectively.

(Note this is general rule of thumb type logic)

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27
Q

How does the pain of pes anserine bursitis present?

A

The pain of pes anserine bursitis is typically located along the anteromedial aspect of the proximal tibia distal to the joint line of the knee and characteristically worsens with stair climbing and at night.

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28
Q

True or false, the diagnosis of ITP is made by anti-platelet antibody testing?

A

Flase! Antiplatelet antibody testing is found to have little predictive value in the diagnosis of ITP and is not recommended.

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29
Q

Why is initial urate lowering therapy for gout prevention in people who have had recurrent attacks both allopurinol and colchicine?

A

Because the addition of urate-lowering therapy transiently increases the risk for acute gout attacks for at least 3 to 6 months; accordingly, prophylaxis with an anti-inflammatory agent such as colchicine, at least during that period, is indicated concurrent with urate-lowering therapy.

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30
Q

What is the pathophysiology of hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Intense renal vasoconstriction (due to portal hypertension) leads to a syndrome of acute kidney dysfunction characterized by increased renal sodium avidity, a relatively normal urine sediment, and oliguria in some patients.

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31
Q

What are things that may precipitate hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, vigorous diuretic therapy, paracentesis without volume expansion, and gastrointestinal bleeding also may precipitate hepatorenal syndrome.

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32
Q

What is the blood pressure cut off for tPA in stroke?

A

Prior to tPA BP must be less than 185/110. After thrombolysis, the target blood pressure is less than 180/105 mm Hg for at least 24 hours.

33
Q

What is a typical presentation of constrictive pericarditis?

A

Dyspnea, pedal edema, clear lung fields, and jugular vein engorgement with inspiration (aka Kussmaul sign) raise clinical suspicion for constrictive pericarditis.

34
Q

What is the echocardiogram finding that indicates ventricular interdependence (can be seen in constrictive pericarditis)?

A

Diastolic filling of one ventricular chamber that impedes that of the other, as may be manifested by a to-and-fro diastolic motion of the ventricular septum

35
Q

What are secondary causes of dyslipidemia and when should they be considered?

A

In patients with hyperlipidemia that is refractory to medical therapy, secondary causes, including hypothyroidism, diabetes mellitus, nephrotic syndrome, and obstructive liver disease, should be considered.

36
Q

What is the treatment of diffuse large B cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Treatment for all patients with large B-cell NHL includes chemotherapy (usually cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone with rituximab [R-CHOP]) and immunotherapy with rituximab. Radiation therapy is used after a shorter course of chemoimmunotherapy in patients with localized or bulky disease

37
Q

True or false, patients w/ systolic HF should be treated w/ a B-blocker?

A

True! Patients with systolic heart failure should be treated with a β-blocker, regardless of symptom status, including heart failure that is asymptomatic or mildly symptomatic.

38
Q

What are the characteristics of type 1 RTA?

A

Hypokalemic distal (type 1) renal tubular acidosis is characterized by normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia, a urine pH greater than 6.0, and nephrocalcinosis.

39
Q

What is Gitelman syndrome?

A

Gitelman syndrome is an autosomal recessive syndrome characterized by hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. The defect is due to inactivating mutations in the gene for the thiazide-sensitive sodium chloride cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubule, and the electrolyte profile is analogous to that induced by thiazide diuretics.

40
Q

What are the manifestations of tumor lysis syndrome?

A

The manifestations of TLS include hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, acute kidney injury, and disseminated intravascular coagulation.

41
Q

What is the equation for the corrected serum bicarb and when is it used?

A

Corrected [HCO3] = measured [HCO3] + (measured anion gap – 12)

The corrected serum bicarbonate level is calculated to determine if a complicating metabolic disturbance is present. The number is the expected bicarbonate concentration if no other acid-base disturbances are present.

42
Q

What are markers of increased morbidity and mortality from acute pancreatitis?

A

Increased BUN, serum creatinine, and increased hematocrit. AKA markers of hemoconcentration.

BUN is most accurate for predicting severity.

43
Q

When is treatment of PVCs indicated and what is the best initial therapy?

A

Suppression of premature ventricular complexes is indicated only in patients with severe and disabling symptoms. In these patients, β-blockers are the safest initial therapy.

44
Q

How is the dx of acute chest syndrome made?

A

The diagnosis of the acute chest syndrome is established by identifying an infiltrate on chest radiographs that involves at least one lung segment and that is not thought to be due to atelectasis; associated findings include one or more of the following: chest pain; temperature less than 38.3°C (100.9°F); tachypnea, wheezing, cough, or the development of increased work of breathing (such as retractions); and hypoxemia relative to baseline oxygen saturation values.

45
Q

When should anti-osteoporosis therapy be considered/initiated?

A

Antiosteoporotic therapy should be considered in a patient with low bone mass whose Fracture Risk Assessment Tool (FRAX) risk of major osteoporotic fracture over the next 10 years is 20% or greater or whose risk of hip fracture over the next 10 years is 3% or greater.

46
Q

What is the treatment for lupus nephritis?

A

Early treatment with high-dose glucocorticoids is indicated for patients with systemic lupus erythematosus and findings strongly suspicious for lupus nephritis.

47
Q

What are the colorectal screening guidelines for for patients with a first-degree relative with colorectal neoplasia at age younger than 60 years or two or more first-degree relatives with colorectal cancer diagnosed at any age.

A

For these individuals, colonoscopy screening should begin at age 40 years or age 10 years before youngest age at colorectal neoplasia or colorectal cancer diagnosis in the family, whichever is younger.

48
Q

How often should pts w/ UC that extends beyond the rectum receive screening colonoscopy?

A

Patients with ulcerative colitis with disease extending beyond the rectum should undergo routine surveillance colonoscopy with biopsies every 1 to 2 years beginning 8 to 10 years after diagnosis.

49
Q

What is bitter almond breath a characteristic of?

A

Inhaled cyanide poisoning (can be seen in people exposed to fumes from burning rubber or plastic).

50
Q

In addition to a rapid neurosurg consult, what is needed for pituitary tumor apoplexy immediate treatment?

A

In addition to neurosurgical decompression of the pituitary gland, urgent glucocorticoid administration is often necessary in patients with pituitary tumor apoplexy because of acute adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency.

51
Q

What should you do for a pregnant pt w/ asthma who has uncontrolled sxs w/ medium dose inhaled corticosteroids?

A

In pregnant patients with asthma, the addition of a long-acting β2-agonist is recommended when symptoms are not controlled with medium-dose inhaled glucocorticoids.

52
Q

What is the most common psychiatric cause of involuntary weight loss?

A

Depression accounts for 9% to 15% of all cases of involuntary weight loss and is the most common psychiatric cause of involuntary weight loss.

53
Q

Can memantine tx alzheimer’s disease?

A

Yes! The N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor antagonist memantine is approved by the Food and Drug Administration as first-line treatment of moderate to advanced Alzheimer disease.

54
Q

How do you generally treat prosthetic joint infection?

A

Treatment of prosthetic joint infection typically involves removal of the infected prosthesis, and is required for late infection or with infection-related dysfunction of the prosthesis, such as loosening.

55
Q

What sort of information prognosticates CLL?

A

In patients with CLL, the β2-microglobuin level, heavy gene mutational status, and cytogenetics provide independent prognostic information on appropriate follow-up monitoring and time to initiate treatment.

56
Q

How does acral lentiginous melanoma present typically?

A

Acral lentiginous melanoma presents as an unevenly darkly pigmented patch that most often arises on the palmar, plantar, or subungual surfaces.

57
Q

What is the most common complication of heparin induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Venous thromboses are the most common complication of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but arterial thromboses also occur and can be life-threatening.

58
Q

Do patients who had vaginal hysterectomies due to benign disease still need screening pap smears?

A

NO!!! Discontinuing routine cervical cancer screening is the most appropriate recommendation in this patient who has had a hysterectomy for benign disease.

59
Q

What is the bicarb compensation in acute respiratory alkalosis?

A

In acute respiratory alkalosis, for each 10 mm Hg (1.3 kPa) decline in Pco2, the expected decline in the serum bicarbonate level is 2 mEq/L (2 mmol/L).

60
Q

When is the best time to evaluate someone for inherited thrombophilia after a thrombolic event?

A

Avoid testing for inherited thrombophilias during the acute phase of a venous thromboembolic disease, especially if anticoagulant therapy has already been initiated, since many false-positive test results may occur during this period. Specifically, antithrombin, protein C, protein S, and dysfibrinogenemia testing may be altered during acute thrombotic events and their treatment.

Sounds like a couple weeks into anticoagulation is best.

61
Q

Name 5 foods known to be high in oxalate

A

rhubarb, peanuts, spinach, beets, and chocolate

62
Q

How quickly does effective HIV therapy suppress viral load?

A

Suppression of HIV viral load to less than 50 copies/mL should occur by 24 weeks of effective therapy.

63
Q

How does decreased preload (i.e. valsalva) affect the murmur of HOCM? What about increased afterload?

A

Decreased preload –> accentuates the murmur

Increased afterload –> attenuates the murmur

64
Q

In whom is abx ppx indicated prior to dental work?

A

Prophylaxis is needed in patients with a prosthetic cardiac valve, a history of infective endocarditis, unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease, congenital heart disease repair with prosthetic material or device within the last 6 months, palliative shunts and conduits, or cardiac valvulopathy in cardiac transplant recipients.

65
Q

What is appropriate bicarb compensation for respiratory acidosis?

A

In respiratory acidosis, the predicted increase in the serum bicarbonate level is calculated as 1 mEq/L (1 mmol/L) for each 10 mm Hg (1.3 kPa) increase in Pco2 (acute) or 4 mEq/L (4 mmol/L) for each 10 mm Hg (1.3 kPa) increase in Pco2 (chronic).

66
Q

Which findings are unique to serotonin syndrome?

A

Findings unique to serotonin syndrome are shivering, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, and ataxia.

67
Q

What sort of therapy is indicated when RA is not adequately controlled w/ one or more oral disease modifying therapies (DMARDs)?

A

When adequate control of rheumatoid arthritis is not achieved with one or more oral disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), the addition of biologic therapy with a tumor necrosis factor α inhibitor is usually indicated.

68
Q

What imaging modality is best for diagnosing kidney stones?

A

Noncontrast abdominal helical CT is the gold standard for diagnosing kidney stones.

69
Q

How do you diagnose metabolic syndrome?

A

Metabolic syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of three or more of five abnormalities: increased waist circumference, elevated systolic or diastolic blood pressure, decreased HDL cholesterol level, elevated triglyceride level, and elevated fasting plasma glucose level.

70
Q

How can you distinguish effusion and lobar consolidation of physical exam?

A

Expect increased tactile fremitus w/ consolidation and decreased w/ effusion.

71
Q

What are the Centor criteria?

A

The Centor criteria (temperature >38.1°C [100.5°F], tonsillar exudates, and tender cervical lymphadenopathy; absence of cough) predict the likelihood of streptococcal pharyngitis.

72
Q

What is the first line treatment for polycythemia vera?

A

Asprin and phlebotomy (target Hct is 45%)

73
Q

What is the initial treatment of choice for metastatic prostate cancer?

A

Androgen deprivation therapy (GnRH agonists and androgen antagonists like flutamide initially)

74
Q

What is zoledronic acid? When is it preferred?

A

Zoledronic acid is an IV bisphosphonate. It is preferred to oral bisphosphonates like alendronate when pts have esophageal issues like GERD b/c oral agents carry the risk of erosive esophagitis.

75
Q

What is the first line treatment for status epilepticus?

A

IV lorazepam. Second line agents are valproate and IV phenytoin/fosphenytoin but they are not as preferred b/c they have a slower onset of action.

76
Q

What is the empiric treatment of acute epididymitis in sexually active men < 35 years old?

A

Empiric treatment for acute epididymitis in sexually active men younger than than 35 years of age consists of ceftriaxone and doxycycline (or azithromycin).

*One exception is MSM who are insertive, swap levofloxacin for doxy/azithro b/c increased chance the infection is caused by an enteric gram negative.

77
Q

What characterizes adult onset Still disease?

A

Adult-onset Still disease is a systemic inflammatory disorder characterized by quotidian (daily) fever, an evanescent salmon-colored rash, arthritis, multisystem involvement, and markedly elevated serum ferritin levels.

78
Q

How do the following factors affect the levels (and thus interpretation) of BNP?

  • Obesity?
  • Female sex?
  • Kidney Failure?
  • Old age?
A

Obesity will falsely lower levels. Kidney failure, old age and female sex will raise BNP levels.

79
Q

What is the initial treatment of drug-induced dystonic reactions?

A

Initial treatment of drug-induced dystonic reactions is conservative, starting with withdrawal of the offending agent and then with drug therapy such as benzodiazepines or anticholinergic agents or botulinum injections.