IM EOR Flashcards

1
Q

screening for hepatocellular carcinoma in cirrhotic pt

A

abdominal US Q6 mo w/ CEA

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2
Q

At what initial age is it most appropriate to consider statin use for the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease?

A

40 y/o

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3
Q

tx of superficial thrombophlebitis

A

NSAIDs
Compression Therapy
Ambulatory

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4
Q
A
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5
Q

bronchiectasis

A

abnormal, permanent dilation and destruction of bronchial walls.

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6
Q

CURB-65

A

determine if admission is necessary for pneumonia

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7
Q

where is histoplasmosis found

A

ohio & mississippi river valley

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8
Q

MCC of a late systolic murmur

A

mitral regurgitation

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9
Q

importance of acid-base disturbance in status epilepticus?

A

acidosis is thought to have anti-sezure protection

aka - do not fix

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10
Q

tremor that is worse w/ movement & improves with alcohol

A

essential tremor

** considered autosomal dominant

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11
Q

inheritance of HD?

A

autosomal dominant

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12
Q

first line tx of fibromylagia?

A

TCA (amitryptiline)

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13
Q

confirmatory test for celiac disease

A

duodenal biopsy

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14
Q

pulmonary fibrosis

A

honeycombing of the lung parenchyma

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15
Q

gold standard acute angle closure glaucoma

A

goinometry

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16
Q

When does heparin-induced thrombocytopenia generally present, following exposure?

A

5-14 days post-exposure

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17
Q

needle shaped monosodium urate crystals

negative birefringence

A

GOUT

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18
Q

serum uric acid > 6.8

A

gout

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19
Q

tx gout

A

flare w/n 24 hr: colchicine
flare after 24 hr NSAIDS (naproxen/indomethacin) –> void aspirin

flare + CKD: glucocorticoids

chronic: allopurinol

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20
Q

serum uric acid levels

A

< 5-6 (depending on presence of tophi)

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21
Q

rhomboid, positively birefringent CCP crystals

A

pseudogout

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22
Q

xray findings in pseudogout

A

chondrocalcinosis

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23
Q

tsh goal post thyroidectomy

A

1-2

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24
Q

lung cancer screening

A

low-dose computed tomography in adults aged 50 to 80 years who have a 20 pack-year smoking history and currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years.

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25
Q

LP findings in MS?

A

increase in oligoclonal bands

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26
Q

The only non-statin lipid-lowering agent that has proven to have additive effects on the prevention of cardiovascular adverse events is…

A

ezetimibe

blocks intestinal absorption of choleserol

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27
Q

RF assoc with pseudogout

A

OA
underactive thyroid
overactive parathyroid gland

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28
Q

MC & early sx of scleroderma

A

Raynauds phenomenon

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29
Q

another name of anti-jo ab

A

anti-histidyl-transfer RNA synthetase

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30
Q

sjogren syndrome increases risk of what cancer?

A

NHL

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31
Q

Metabolic Syndrome

A
  • waist circ
  • trigs > 150
  • HDL < 40 m/<50 F
  • > 130/85
  • fasting BS > 100 mg/dL
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32
Q

etiology of primary hyperparathyroid

A

pth secreting tumor

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33
Q

etiology of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

PTH inc 2/2 to hypocalcemia or vit D deficiency

MCC CKD

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34
Q

hypervascular bone

A

paget disease of the bone

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35
Q

paget disease on xray

A

lytic lesions / thickened bone cortices

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36
Q

pheo dx test

A

24 hour catecholamines

** NO solo bbb to prevent unopponsed alpha constriction –> life threate

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37
Q

what type hiatial hernia is most likely to present with GERD

A

type I (sliding)

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38
Q

MCC esophagtitis

A

reflux

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39
Q

tx of reflux esophagitis

A

trial PPI x 8 weeks w/ f/u repeat endoscopy

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40
Q

MCC of pancreatitis in children

A

mumps

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41
Q

MCC of esophageal strictures

A

untreated GERD

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42
Q

What are some medications that cause pill esophagitis?

A

Alendronate
ferrous sulfate
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs phenytoin
potassium chloride
quinidine
tetracycline
ascorbic acid.

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43
Q

tx esophageal strictures

A

high dose PPI
Surgery

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44
Q

IBS

A

abdominal pain + bloating x 1 day every week for 3 monthds

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45
Q

tx IBS-D

A

loperamide 2 mg 45 minutes before each meal.

loperamide, cholestyramine

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46
Q

tx IBS-C

A

1st line: polyethelyne glycol
2nd line: diet changes + anti-spasmoditcs (hyoscyamine and dicyclomine)
3rd line: TCA

psyllium, osmotic laxatives, lubiprostone

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47
Q

tx of chronic pancreatitis

A

low-fat diet
enzyme replacement
ERCP - assess for chole complications

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48
Q

utility of CEA in Colorectal cancer

A

NOT diagnostic
used as a prognostic indicator

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49
Q

HFE gene

A

hemochromatosis

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50
Q

R vs L sided Colon Cancer

A

Left-sided cancer: tends to obstruct

Right-sided cancer: tends to bleed
Iron deficiency anemia

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51
Q

full fluid resuscitation

A

30 ml/kg

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52
Q

celiac dz ab

A
  • anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-tTG) antibodies
  • IgA antiendomysial (anti-EMA) antibody
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53
Q

suspected diverticulitis + palpable mass in LLQ

A

think abscess

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54
Q

What is midodrine and how is it used in the treatment of cirrhosis-induced hyponatremia?

A

Vasoconstrictor used to maintain mean arterial pressure in hyponatremic patients with low blood pressure due to third-spacing of ascites.

alpha-1 agonist

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55
Q

cirrhosis labs

A

low platelets and albumin
high INR, Alkaline phosphatase, Bilirubin, and GGT

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56
Q

hepatic carcinoma cancer screening

A

abdominal US Q6 mo for pt with chronic hep C or advanced liver cirrhosis

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57
Q

hepatocellular carcinoma tumor marker

A

AFP

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58
Q

is surgery curative for chron disease?

A

NO

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59
Q

chrons disease ab

A

(+) ASCA

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60
Q

tx of acute upper GI bleed

A

must do fluid resuscitation prior to blood transfusion

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61
Q

colonscopy f/u after fidning polyps

A
  • Those with polyps that are considered benign, such as tubular adenomas under 10 mm, should receive surveillance colonoscopy at 5- to 10-year intervals.
  • high risk polyps require colonoscopy Q3 years
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62
Q

What serologic markers may be associated with gastric cancers?

A

CEA
CA 125,
CA 19-9.

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63
Q

antibody (+) in RA

A

RF
anti-CCP

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64
Q

morning stiffness in OA vs RA

A

< 15-30 mins = OA
> 15-30 mins = RA

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65
Q

tx of lupus nephritis

A

corticosteroids
cyclophosphamide

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66
Q

sjogren sicca tx

A

1st line: pilocarpine (oral anti-cholinergics)
2nd line/specficially ocular sx: cyclosporine drops

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67
Q

1st line med for raynaud’s syndrome

A

varnecicline

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68
Q

sjogren findings on biopsy

A

mononuclear cell infiltration

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69
Q

antithrombin III deficiency

A
  • recurrent venous thrombosis & PE
  • think repetative IUFD

tx: only if symptomatic – high dose IV heparin w/ thrombotic events & PO anticoagulation for life

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70
Q

ITP labs

A

isolated thrombocytopenia w/ normal CBC & smear

plt < 100,000

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71
Q

tx ITP

A

steroids for plt < 30,000
IVIG for plt <30,000 & CI or refractory to steroids
splenectomy = last line

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72
Q

IDA timeline

A

6 mo to correct
6 mo to replete
recheck blood counts Q3 mo x 1 year

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73
Q

hodgkin lymphoma

A

painless LAD + reed-sternberg cells + B sx

** associated with EBV
** speads to local lymphom nodes

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74
Q

non-hodgkin lymphoma

A

HIV pt + IG sx + painless LAD

** spreads to peripheral lymph nodes

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75
Q
A
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76
Q
A
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77
Q

sickle cell trait vs disease

A

hb ss = disease
hb sa = trait

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78
Q

sickle cell transfusion limit

A

hgb < 6

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79
Q

TTP triad

A

decreased plt
anemia
schistocytes

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80
Q

TTP sx

A

FAT RN

fever
anemia
thrombocytopenia
renal failure
neuo sx

+ purpura

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81
Q

ttp coombs test

A

(-) coombs test

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82
Q

folate vs B12 deficiency labs

A

folate: inc homocystine, NO MMA

B12: inc MMA & homocystine

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83
Q

s/sc botulism

A

diplopia
dry mouth
dysphagia
dysphonia
muscle weakness
respiratory paralysis

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84
Q

when do you prophy for cryptococcus

A

CD4 < 100 [ fluconazole]

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85
Q

histoplasmosis

A
  • bird/bat droppings
  • ohio/mississippi river valleys
  • CD4 100
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86
Q

HIV opportunistic infx by CD4 count

A

< 250: coccidiomycosis - fluconazole
< 200: PCP - bactrim
< 150: histoplasmosis - itraconazole
< 100: toxoplasmosis/cryptococcus - prevention not rec
< 50 = MAC - no prophy

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87
Q

prophy for neutropenic fever

A

levoquin

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88
Q

PCP

A
  • usually CD4 < 200
  • elevated LDH
  • Bactrim prophylaxis
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89
Q

rabies post exposure prophylaxis

A

vaccine day 0,3,7,14

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90
Q

syphilis

A

primary - painless chancre (persists 3-6 wk)

secondary - rash on palm & soles or condyloma lata

tertiary - widespread systemic involvement, permanenet CNS changes, gummas

congenital - hutchinson teeth (notches), saddle deformity, TORCH

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91
Q

intracranial calcificiations in AIDS pt w/ CD4 < 100

A

toxoplasmosis

requires prophy in all pt with CD4 < 100

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92
Q

TB induration size in individuals w/o risk factors

A

> 15 mm

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93
Q

TB tx

A

RIPE x8 wks
RI x 16 weeks

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94
Q

bronchiectasis on cxr

A

“tram tracks”

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95
Q

MCC Carcinoid tumor

A

GI tract cancer that has metastasized to the lungs

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96
Q

elevated 5-HIAA in 24 hr urine excretion

** a main metabolite of serotonin

A

think carcinoid tumor

** can pretx w octreotide to decrease serotonin secretion from tumor

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97
Q

screening required in ind w 30 pack year hx

A

low dose CT scan

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98
Q

ABG in emphysema vs chronic bronchitis

A

emphysema: resp alkalosis

COPD: respiratory acidosis

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99
Q

what O2 sat do you initiate O2 therapy in COPD pt

A

88%

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100
Q

why should you use azithromycin in pulmonary dz tx (e.g. COPD exacerbation)

A

pulmonary anti inflammatory properties

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101
Q

definition of chronic bronchitis

A

cough > 3 mos x 2 years

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102
Q

MCC cor pulmonale

A

COPD

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103
Q

silicosis

A

from mining, sandblasting, stone work

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104
Q

asbestos

A

from insulation, demolition, construction

complication = mesothelioma

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105
Q

berylliosis

A

high tech field/nuclear work

** must tx w chronic steroids

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106
Q

sarcoidosis mimicking disease

A

histoplasmosis – also has hilar lymphadenopathy

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107
Q

CURB65

A

confusion
urea > 7
RR > 30
SBP < 90 / BPD < 60
age > 65

0-1 = low risk, consider home tx
2 = probable admission vs. close OP monitoring
3-5 = admission, manage as severe

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108
Q

pt w lung nodule, hypercalcemia & elevated PTHrp

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the lungs

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109
Q

lupus pernio

A

chronic, violaceous plaques & nodules on cheeks/nose/eyes

SARCOID

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110
Q

hypercalcemia
ACE levels 4x normal

A

sarcoidosis

confirmatory dx w / endotrachial biopsy

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111
Q

↓ breath sounds + dull percussion + ↓ tactile fremitus

A

pleural effusion

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112
Q

lung cancer screening

A

annual low dose CT for pt age 50-80 w/ 20 pack year smoking hx and currently smoke or have quit in the last 15 years

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113
Q

latent TB treatment

A

isoniazid + pyroxidine

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114
Q

legionella pneumonia

A

abd sx
diarrhea
elevated liver enzymes
hyponatremia

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115
Q

CT findings in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

fine reticular pattern

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116
Q

calcified pleural plaques & bilateral infiltrates

117
Q

fungal infx to most commonly present with pulmonary sx

A

coccidiomycosis

118
Q

pneumonia, verrucous skin lesion , osteomyletisi in immunocompromised pt in midwest

A

blastomycosis

119
Q

What are the four primary types of malignant mesothelioma?

A

Pleural (most common), pericardial, peritoneal, and testicular.

120
Q

construction worker w/ sx of lung cancer

A

mesothelioma

121
Q

aspiration pneumonia

A

think klebsiella (1st mc) or pseduomonas (2nd)

122
Q

another name for philadelphia chromosome

A

BCR-ABL1 gene

translocation of 9 and 22

123
Q

what procedure eradicates the carrier state of salmonella

A

cholecystectomy

salmonella can colonize in the gallbladder

124
Q

MCC of osteomyelitis in sickle cell children

A

salmonella

125
Q

tx RMSF

A

ALWAYS doxy (even in children)

126
Q

tx of GCA

A

high dose prednisone = if no vision loss
IV methylpred = if vision loss

127
Q

cluster HA prophy

128
Q

sudden onset, BL ASCENDING weakness

A

guillane barre

129
Q

MCC of guillane barre

A

campylobacteri jejuni infection

130
Q

LP findings in guillane barre

A
  • increased CSF protein
  • normal cell count

“albumino-cytological dissociation”

131
Q

tx of bells palsy vs ramsay hunt

A

ramsay hunt requires antiviral medications

132
Q

complex regional pain syndrome

A

non dermatomal limb pain following truama/surgery; pain disproportionate to injury

** often assoc with skin discoloration

133
Q

atrophy of the caudate nucleus

A

huntington disease

134
Q

aseptic meningitis on LP

A

normal OP
increased WBC

135
Q

Normal ABI

136
Q

ABI in mild-moderate PAD

137
Q

ABI in critical limb ischemia

138
Q

ABi > 1.3

A

calcified arteries?

139
Q

dx for PAD

A

ABI

** CTA/US/MRi all used for surgical planning phase of tx for PAD

140
Q

what inflammatory condition is smoking protective against

141
Q

preferred agents for HTN during pregnancy

A

hydralazine
labetalol
methyldopa
nifedipine

142
Q

SVT caused by single excitable electrical focus

A

a flutter

** common in COPD (#2 MC, #1 is MAT)

143
Q

tx of DVT in pt with CrCl < 30

A

unfractionated heparin w/ bridge to warfarin

144
Q

Laplace law in aortic dissection

A

as vessel lumen size increases & vessel wall thickness decreases, wall stress increases

145
Q

S3 gallop

A

dilated cardiomyopathy or HFrEF

146
Q

management of VT

A

pulseless: defib
VT, unstable: synchronized cardioversion
monomorphic VT, stable & known structural cause: amiodarone 150 mg over 10 min, lidocaine, procainamide 100 mg over 10 min
polymorphic VT (Torsades): IV Magnesium

147
Q

incomplete RBB
saddleback ST elevation

Causes sudden death, occurs in sleep & MC in asian men

A

brugada syndrome

148
Q

tx of afib in pt w/ sx for > 48 hours

A

anticoagulation for 21 days then cardioversion

149
Q

use of CHADS2-VASc vs HAS-BLED

A

CHADS2-VASc: determine need for anticoagulation in afib
HAS-BLED: monitor bleeding risk in anticoag pt who have afib

150
Q

tx of type Ii second degree heart block

A

hemodynamically unstable: transcutaneous pacing

hemodynamically stable: permanent pacemaker

151
Q

acute vs subacute endocarditis

A

acute: severe sx, < a few weeks (staph aureus)
subacute: midl sx, >6 weeks (strep viridans)

152
Q

monitoring in aortic aneurysm

A

4.0-4.9 cm: U/S annually
5.0-5.4: U/S Q6 mo
5.5 or greater –> surgical repair needed

153
Q

s3 vs s4

A

S3 = common in systolic HF (dilated/overflowing ventricle)
S4 = common in diastolic HF (still ventricle - think LVH)

154
Q

tx of HCOM

A
  • BB
  • CCB
    (avoid positive inotropes & nitrates)
155
Q

murmur of HCOM increases w what maneuvers

A

valsalva/standing up

156
Q

tx prinzmetal angina

A

CCB, nitrates

AVOID BB

157
Q

PE of restrictive pericarditis

A

JVD
Hepatojugular reflex
pericardial knock

158
Q

tx of pericarditis

A

HDS: colchicine + NSAIDs
HDUS: percardiectomy

159
Q

acute pericarditis in ekg

A

diffuse ST elevation & PR depression

161
Q

low pitched descrescendo holosystolic murmur w/ thrill radiating to axilla

162
Q

tv of CVI in pt who fail conservative measures

A

percutaneous endovenous thermal ablation [in pt w/ reflux > 1000 ms]

163
Q

first line tx for htn in pt w/ ckd

164
Q

s/sx of pericardial tamponade

A
  • hypotension
  • JVD
  • distant heart sounds
  • narrow pulse pressure
  • pulsus paradoxus
165
Q

what is kussmaul sx

A

abnl lack of decrease in JVP during inhalation - sign of constrictive pericarditis

166
Q

tx that lowers mortality in stable angina

A

aspirin
BB

[be careful of bb therapy in pt w/ COPD]

167
Q

primary indications for CABG

A

three vessel disease
>50% stenosis in LAD
Left ventricular dysfx

168
Q

MC sx of mitral stenosis

A

exertional dyspnea

169
Q

sinus node dysfx sx

A
  • disease in SA node
  • tachy-brady syndrome
  • mc sx is syncope
170
Q

pt most likely to present w atypical ACS

A

older women w/ DM

171
Q

tx native valve endocarditis

A

pcn/amp + gentamicin
(+) vanc in IVDU

cover for s aurues, strep viridians

172
Q

tx of prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

vanc + gent + rifampin

173
Q

HLD goals

A
  • Total Cholesterol < 200
  • HDL > 60
  • LDL < 100
  • Trigs < 150
174
Q

tachycardia disproportionate to fever or pain

A

think myocarditis

175
Q

tx of hypertensive emergency

A

nicardipine
labetalol

176
Q

preferred pressor in septic shock

A

norepi (previously dopamine)

177
Q

sx of uncal herniation

A

unilateral dilated & fixed pupil

178
Q

acute complication of MI

A

free wall rupture (MC in first 24-48 hr)

179
Q

what level bilirubin does jaundice occur?

A

> /= 3

>/= 3 mg/dL

180
Q

affects of obesity on BNP

A

decreased (possibly 2/2 breakdown of bnp in obesity)

181
Q

med CI in diastolic HF

A

Digoxin ( no benefit in inc contractility - that is not the issue)

182
Q

Med that is known to prolong life in chronic angina

183
Q

chronic pancreatitis inc risk of what disease?

A

diabetes (3c)

184
Q

dx TOC in chronic pancreatitis

A

MRCP

** ERCP can be apart of tx

185
Q

s/sx of thyroid storm

A

hyperpyrexia
nausea
vomiting
diarrhea
mental status change
JAUNDICE
HTN
diaphoresis

jaundice 2/2 hepatic tissue hypoxia d/t inc peripheral O2 use

186
Q

TX of thyroid Storm

A
  1. propanolol
  2. PTU
  3. Iodine (after thiomaide)
  4. Glucocorticoids (slows peripheral conversion of T4 –> T3)
  5. Bile acid sequestrants
187
Q

inheritance of PCKD

A

Autosomal Dominant

188
Q

HTN w/ elevated DIASTOLIC BP

A

think PCKD

189
Q

medication used to tx hyponatremia & PCKD

190
Q

medicine used when correcting for hyponatremia too fast

191
Q

what valvular d/o is assoc w/ PCKD

192
Q

at what age is it appropriate ot consider statin use in CVD?

A

40 y/o +

40-75 should get their 10 year ASCVD risk score [>10% requires statin tx]

193
Q

best way for initial eval/ biopsy of lung lesions

A

endobronchial biopsy (least invasive)

194
Q

bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy w/ reticular opacities in upper lung fields

A

scaroidosis

195
Q

lab finding in pt w/ chronic pulm HTN

A

polycythemia 2/2 chronic hypoxemia

196
Q

mean pulmonary artery pressure that is dx of pul htn

A

> /= 20 mmHg

197
Q

cyanosis & inc intensity of second heart sound

198
Q

confirmative test for suspected pneumoconiosis

199
Q

eggshell calcifications throughout the lungs

200
Q

grade II/VI late systolic murmur heard best in the fifth intercostal space i

201
Q

what induction agent prior to intubation is best for asthma patients?

A

ketamine

[2/2 its ability to improve pulm fx in asmthatics]

202
Q

confirmatory test for celiac disease

A

duodenal bx

203
Q

CD4 count < 50

204
Q

jarisch-herxheimer rxn

A
  • rxn in first 24 hours of tx w/ spirochete infx (aka syphilis)
  • s/sx fever + constitutional sx
  • tx w/ NSAIDs
205
Q

pt e/ hx of ARF require what chemo prophylaxis?

A

PCN G benzathine IM Q21-28 days

206
Q

tx of chronic hypercalcemia 2/2 malignancy

A

IV Zoledroic Acid

207
Q

tx of hypercalcemia refractory to bisphosphonates

208
Q

hypercalcemia on ECG

209
Q

Unilateral right-sided varicoceles are uncommon and should alert the clinician to possible underlying pathology causing obstruction of what vessel?

A

inferior vena cava

210
Q

way to avoid steroid tx in Chrons pt and aloow them to enter remission

211
Q

s/sx neurogenic shock

A

hypotension
bradycardic
yet still warm extremitites & good cap refill

212
Q

```

~~~

spinal shock

A
  • loss of spinal reflex activity below a complete or incomplete spinal cord injury
  • s/sx flaccidity, loss of movement, loss DTRs
213
Q

what DMARD is safe up until pregnancy?

A

hydroxychloroquine

214
Q

how to avoid osmotic demyelination syndrome

A

never correct > 8 meq/L in 24 hr

215
Q

utility of CKMB in stemi w/u

A

helpful for assessment of reinfarction

216
Q

ab w highest sensitivity for luus & best for screening

217
Q

drug induced lupus

A

hydralazine
INH
procainamide
phenytoin
sulfonamides

218
Q

what COPD med has a narrow TI

A

theophylline (nearly last line tx in chronic COPD, dont use in exacerbations)

219
Q

tx of HCOM

A

BB

(avoid inotropes & nitrates – worsen obstrution)

220
Q

myasthenia gravis sx

A

ptosis, diplopia, dysphagia, dysarthria, proximal muscle weakness

221
Q

1st line tx myasthenia gravis

A

pyridostigmine

222
Q

hep c screening

A

ages 18-79

223
Q

n patients without cystic fibrosis, what is the most common organism recovered in patients with bronchiectasis?

A

h.flu

CF –> pseudomonas

224
Q

CURB-65

A

CONFUSION
UREA > 7
RR >30
SPB <90 mmhg / DBP < 60 mmhg
Age > 65 1

225
Q

most common finding of polymyositis

A

proximal muscle weakness w/o pain

226
Q

dx of DM

A
  1. sx of random plasma glucose > 200
  2. fasting glucose > 126
  3. plasma glucose > 200 after OGTT
  4. hbA1c > 6.5%
227
Q

normal intraocular pressure

A

12-22 mmHg

228
Q

types of scleroderma

A

diffuse & limited

229
Q

MUDPILES

A

Methanol
Uremia
DKA
propyleme gycol

230
Q

indications for subacute endocarditis prophy

A
  • hx of bacterial endocarditis
  • prosthetic valves
  • exisiting heart defects
  • heart transplant pt
231
Q

empiric abx treat of native valve endocarditis

A

pcn (amp/sulbactam or oxacillin) + CTX + gentamicin

232
Q

empiric abx in prosthetic valve endocaritis

A

vanc + gent + rifampin

233
Q

empiric abx in fungal endocarditis

A

amphotericin B

234
Q

MC valve in endocarditis

A

mitral valve

235
Q

prostate zone pathology

A

transitional zone - BPH
peripheral - prostate ca

236
Q

type 1 HIT vs type 2

A

hit = drop in plt by 50% while on heparin
type 1: plt recover w/ cessation of meds , occurs first few days
type 2: autoimmune, occurs ~14 days later

237
Q

TOC for RMSF

A

doxycycline (even in children)

238
Q

NYHA HF classifications

A

I: asx during daily activities
II: mild sx w/ reg activities
III: mod sx w/ minimal activity
IV: sx at rest, limitations w all activity

239
Q

Tx of acute decompensated HF

A

L-lasix
M- morphine
N- nitroglycerine
O- oxygen (NIPPV)
P- position of body

(+) dobutamine for hypotension

240
Q

findings on electrophoresis in b Thalassemia major

A

beta: high HbF

241
Q

cause of individual w. complete absence of alpha globin

A

hydrops fetalis /still birth

242
Q

standard of care for localized NSCLC

** this is MC type of lung cancer (adenocarcinom)

A

surgical resection

243
Q

CSF findings in MS

A

(+) oligoclonal IgG bands

244
Q

tx of pyelo

A

OP: cipro, levo, bactrim,

245
Q

what size lung nodule should be worked up for malignancy

246
Q

pulmonary fx test in pt with restrictive lung dz

A

normal or increased FEV1/FVC

247
Q

MCC of atypical pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma

248
Q

Tx HAP

A
  • pip/tazo + cefepime
    if concern/(+) MRSA → linezolid, vancomycin

The regimen includes
1) piperacillin-tazobactam, cefepime, ceftazidime, meropenem, or imipenem, [pseudomonas cvg]
2) plus ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, or aztreonam [pseudomonas cvg]
3) plus vancomycin or linezolid [MRSA cvg]

249
Q

PJP in HIV

A

Aka PJP pneumonia → common in HIV pt with CD4 < 200

s/sx :fever, Pt will have a VERY LOW 02 saturation

Dx :
- CXR → diffuse interstitial pr bilateral perihilar infiltrates
Methenamine silver stain

Tx :
-Bactrim (pentamidine if allergy exists)
- O2 supplementation if Pa02 < 70
- Steroids if Pa02 < 70 mmHg

250
Q

skin d/o in sarcoidosis

A

Erythema nodosum

251
Q

prophy for pcp in pt w/ sulfa allergy

252
Q

V/Q in chronic bronchitis

A

emphysema: no V/Q mismatch
C.bronchitis: mismatched

253
Q

DLCO in COPD

A

emphysema: LOW
CB: NORMAL

254
Q

Tx of Aortic stenosis

A

aortic valve replacement w/ mechanical valve: pt > 50 who can take warfarin

aortic valve replacement w/ biprosthetic valve: pt > 70 who cant take anticoagulation

255
Q

high intensity statins

A

atorvastatin 40-80 mg
rosuvastatin 20-40 mg

256
Q

CAC score requiring statin therapy

257
Q

LDL goal for pt w/ high risk of MI

A

< 70 mg/dL

258
Q

MCC of aortic dissection

259
Q

treatment of prinzmetal angina

A

CCB + Nitrates

260
Q

MC valvular d/o in US

A

mitral regurgitation

261
Q

bb that preserves LV function

A

carvedilol

262
Q

1st line meds in HTN urgency/emergency

A

nifedipine
labetolol

gradually reduce BP by 10-20% first hour & then 5-15% over next 23 hours

263
Q

s/sx psychogenic seizures

A

> 2 mins
eye closure
avoidance of painful objects
shouting
lack of tonic phase
asymmetric limb jerking
lack of postictal phase
normal EEG
NO headache

264
Q

when does dressler syndrome appear in post-MI

A

weeks-months later

265
Q

meds CI in R ventricular infarcts (RCA)

A

nitrates
diuretics

266
Q

tx of Parkinsons Disease

A

levadopa-carbidopa

267
Q

prophylaxis for migraines

A

BB
ACEi
CCB

268
Q

ocular or generalized muscle weakness, bulbar weakness (dysarthria, dysphagia), ptosis and diplopia

A

myasthenia gravis sx

269
Q

at what age can you administer pneumococcal vaccine

270
Q

nutcracker syndrome

A

compression of L renal vein by aorta and SMA

271
Q

diet to slow progression of CKD

A

restrict protein intake to 0.8 g/kg/day

272
Q

tx of lupus nephritis

A

corticosteroids +
cyclophosphamide

273
Q

polymyositis ab

A

anti-jo-1

c/b proximal symmetric muscle weakness

274
Q

sjogrens increases risk of what maliganncy?

A

non-hodgkin lymphoma

275
Q

hodgkin vs. nonhodgkin lymphoma sx

A

HL: b sx, painless cervical lymphadenopathy
NHL: painless disseminated lymphadenopathy

276
Q

patho of G6PD

A

reduction in gluthione levels in red cells

277
Q

dx of acromegaly

A
  • obtain serum IGF-1 , if high –> OGGT w/ GH levels
  • suppression of GH is Normal
  • no suppresion of GH = acromegaly
  • obtain pituitary adenoma
278
Q

tx of dopamine agonist of choice for refractory acromegaly

A

cabergoline

279
Q

Dx of AIDs

A

CD4 count < 200 or an opportunistic infx assoc w/ advanced HIV disease

280
Q

LVH on ECG

A

deep S wave in V1 and a tall R wave in V5.

281
Q

pcv vaccine

A
  • All healthy individuals 65 years of age and older who have not previously received pneumococcal vaccination are recommended to receive either one dose of PCV20 only or one dose of PCV15 followed by one dose of PPSV23 at least 1 year later.
  • unvaccinated patients under 65 years of age with underlying medical conditions such as chronic renal failure, malignancy, long-term steroid use, diabetes, alcohol use disorder, smoking, and chronic heart, lung, or liver conditions should be administered the same regimen as that for healthy individuals aged 65 years and older.
282
Q

first line tx for primary ITP

A

corticosteroids
IVIG (2nd line)

283
Q

mgmt pulm nodules

A

> 30 mm = surgical resection
6-30 mm (high risk)= resection
6-30 mm (low risk) = repeat imaging Q3 months
< 6 w/ benign hx = CT Q12 mo

** high risk = previous CA, smoking hx

284
Q

how to tx pulm nodules

A

peripheral = percutaneous resection
central = transbronchial resection

285
Q

fever, fatigue, pharyngitis, cervical lymohadenopathy + leukocytosis w/ atypical lymphs

A

c/f mono [EBV]

286
Q

what can cause elevated serum ACE

A

Sarcoidosis
T2DM