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ILAs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the epithelium of the vagina?

A

Non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

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2
Q

What triggers a surge in LH?

A

increasing plasma oestrogen

decreasing plasma progesterone

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3
Q

what triggers ovulation?

A

surge in LH

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4
Q

What comes before blastocyst?

A

morula

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5
Q

Where is progesterone produced?

A

corpus luteum

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6
Q

What is oligomenorrhoea?

A

abnormally infrequent menstruation (>35 days)

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7
Q

what is primary amenorrhoea?

A

failure to establish menstruation by the time of expected menarche

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8
Q

what is secondary amenorrhea?

A

stopping of menstruations in a woman with previously normal menses

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9
Q

what is menorrhagia?

A

regular excessive menstrual bleeding, effects wellbeing

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10
Q

where is chorionic gonadotropin produced?

A

placenta

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11
Q

what does chorionic gonadotropin do? when are levels highest?

A

stimulates corupus luteum to produce progesterone passed the 14 days after ovulation (when corpus luteum normally regresses)

levels highest in 1st trimester

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12
Q

what is the ureter lined by?

A

transitional epithelium ( stratified)

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13
Q

What is the outermost layer of the kidney?

A

capsule

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14
Q

the proximal tubules of several nephrons join together to form…?

A

collecting duct!

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15
Q

How is urine transported to the bladder?

A

by the peristaltic action of the ureters

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16
Q

What is the depressor muscle under the control of?

A

the autonomic system with some voluntary control

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17
Q

What is renal clearance of a molecule?

A

the volume of plasmas cleared of that molecule per minute

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18
Q

Why would a molecule have a low renal clearance? (~80mls/min)

A

a molecule that is filtered and reabsorbed e.g. urea

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19
Q

what does it mean for a molecule o gave a high renal clearance?

A

A molecule that is filtered and actively secreted will have a higher renal clearance e.g Para-amino hippuric acid

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20
Q

what does ANP cause?

A

-An increased glomerular filtration rate
-Increased sodium excretion
-Inhibition of release of vasoconstrictors e.g. angiotensin II, aldosterone and endothelin
A decrease in blood pressure

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21
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A
  1. acts on distal collecting duct casing increased Na+ reabsorption
  2. increases blood pressure
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22
Q

What is the mechanism of anaemia in chronic renal failure?

A

reduced production of erythropoietin

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23
Q

how does Renin convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I?

A

by removing a short amino acid chain

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24
Q

How much of the cardiac output passes through the kidneys?

A

20%

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25
Q

The vagus nerve is composed of…

A

parasympathetic motor and sensory fibres

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26
Q

Where are Schwann cells found?

A

PNS

they form the myelin sheath of motor and sensory neutrons

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27
Q

What is tabes dorsals?

A

demyelination of the dorsal roots caused by syphilis

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28
Q

what does disruption of the DCML pathway cause?

A

loss of fine touch, vibration, pressure and proprioception

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29
Q

What causes depolarisation?

A

sodium ions rushing into the cell

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30
Q

what causes repolarisation?

A

potassium ions rushing out of the cell

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31
Q

where does the corticospinal tract decussate?

A

in the pyramids of the lower medulla

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32
Q

where does the spinothalamic tract decussate?

A

spinal cord

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33
Q

where does the DCML decussate?

A

medulla

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34
Q

which spinocerebellar tract decussates twice? where does it decussate?

A

anterior (ventral)

once in the spinal cord as part of the anterior white commissure and then again in the superior cerebellar peduncle

35
Q

what does the spinothalamic tract convey?

A

sensory info from skin to thalamus
anterior - crude touch and firm pressure
lateral - pain and temp

36
Q

Which group of spinal nerves innervates the ankle reflex?

A

S1/S2

37
Q

This descending motor tract originates in the cerebral cortex and synapses in the spinal cord.

A

corticospinal

38
Q

What stimulates parathyroid hormone?

A

Decreased plasma calcium levels

39
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

acute complication of fractures
The muscles are enclosed in fascial compartments with little room for expansion therefore if swelling of the muscle occurs then the pressure in the compartment rises which can compromise the blood flow to the muscle.

40
Q

In osteomalacia what best describes the blood test results for the bone profile?

A

Decreased calcium, decreased phosphate, increased Alk Phos, raised PTH

41
Q

wha tis the most common cause of osteomalacia?

A

hypophosphataemia (low phosphate) due to hyperparathyroidism (raised PTH) secondary to Vit D deficiency.

42
Q

Where is 1-25-dihydroxyvitaminD formed?

A

kidney

43
Q

The action of parathyroid hormone results in what changes to urinary calcium and phosphate levels?

A

Urinary calcium decreases & urinary phosphate increases

44
Q

Which cell type is involved in the resorption of bone during the remodelling process?

A

osteoclast

45
Q

what is osteoid?

A

the matrix produced by osteoblasts

46
Q

what are osteocytes?

A

the bone cell formed when an osteoblast becomes encased in calcium hydroxyapatite

47
Q

what is a macrophage?

A

a type of white blood cell present in bone marrow, responsible for attacking bacteria and tumour cells

48
Q

what do osteoblasts do?

A

secrete osteoid

49
Q

what do osteoclasts do?

A

responsible for bone reabsorption

50
Q

what is Paget’s disease?

A

excessive and disorganised deposition and resorption of bone
causes weak bone

51
Q

what does the bone profile of Paget’s diseases show?

A

Normal calcium, normal phosphate, raised Alkaline Phosphatase, normal PTH.

52
Q

What is hydroxyapatite made of?

A

calcium and phosphate

53
Q

what does the bone profile of osteoporosis show?

A

Normal calcium, normal phosphate, normal Alk Phos, normal PTH

54
Q

What is the role of ultraviolet light in vitamin D metabolism

A

Converts 7-dehydrocholesterol to cholecalciferol

55
Q

What type of respiratory failure does pulmonary embolism lead to?

A

type 1

56
Q

What cells provide cilia for the mucociliary escalator?

A

columnar epithelial cells

57
Q

Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond to:

A

CSF pH

58
Q

define function residual capacity

A

the amount of air remaining in the lungs after normal quiet expiration

59
Q

What is the term used to describe a malignant tumour of the pleural membranes?

A

mesothelioma

60
Q

Vital capacity (VC) is calculated by

A

Tidal volume + Inspired reserve volume + Expired reserve volume

61
Q

Which nerve innervates the pericardium?

A

phrenic verve

62
Q

Cardiac Output is calculated from…

A

heart rate x stroke volume

63
Q

what is the stroke volume in an average person?

A

70 mls

64
Q

Which artery most frequently supplies the Atrio Ventricular Node?

A

right coronary

65
Q

Shortness of breath, severe peripheral oedema and ascites after a heart attack indicates

A

biventricular failure

66
Q

Severe pulmonary hypertension is a cause of…

A

right heart failure

67
Q

Increase in this indicates mitral valve stenosis

A

Left ventricular end-systolic pressure

68
Q

What is Gilbert’s Syndrome?

A

a genetic disorder
causes issues removing bilirubin
no obstructive element

69
Q

Microsomal enzyme uridine diphosphoglucoronosyl transferase (glucuronyl transferase) catalyses the formation of what?

A

Conjugated bilirubin

70
Q

What percent of cardiac output is the hepatic blood supply?

A

25%

71
Q

What is the structure in the middle of the hepatic lobule?

A

central vein

72
Q

Which compound is returned to the liver by the enterohepatic circulation?

A

urobilinogen

73
Q

why is cholecystokinin released?

A

in response to the presence of amino acids in the gut as well as lipids, free fatty acids, peptides but not carbohydrates or HCl.

74
Q

how much bile does the gall bladder store?

A

up to 50 mls

75
Q

what do chief cells secrete?

A

pepsinogen

76
Q

What is the first location that Fat is acted upon by Lipase enzymes when passing through the GI tract?

A

oral cavity

77
Q

How do non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) irritate the stomach?

A

NSAIDs inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 (COX = cyclo-oxygenase).
COX-2 is the target enzyme and blockade of this will inhibit production of inflammatory and nociceptive-enhancing prostaglandins.
Inhibition of COX-1 will prevent production of gastro-protective prostaglandins.

78
Q

What is the porta hepatis? what runs through it?

A

fissure on the underside of the liver.

  • the hepatic artery proper
  • portal vein
  • hepatic bile duct
  • Vagus nerve branches
  • sympathetics
  • lymphatics
79
Q

What is the function of Intrinsic Factor produced in the stomach?

A

Allows absorption of Vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum

80
Q

signs of MND

A
  • weakness in both hands
  • wasting of the thenar eminence
  • slurred speech and difficulty swallowing
  • spastic tongue
81
Q

frontal lobe lesion characteristics:

A

-lack of spontaneous activity - unmotivated, uninterested
-loss of attention
loss of abstract thought
-perseveration
-change of affect

82
Q

cerebellar lesions cause…

A
  • wide, unsteady gait
  • impaired coordination
  • uncontrolled repetitive eye movements
  • difficulty with fine motor skills
  • intention tremor
  • slurred speech
83
Q

what is myasthenia graves? what are the main symptoms?

A

ACh receptors are blocked by an autoimmune reaction - condition of the neuromuscular junction

  • abnormal fatigable weakness of muscles
  • ptosis or diplopia
84
Q

what are symptoms of a brainstem lesion?

A
  • cannot move or communicate verbally due to paralysis of nearly all voluntary muscles.
  • Blinking and vertical gaze may be preserved depending on the extent and level of the lesion within the brainstem
  • They are conscious and aware.
  • Complete recovery is rare.

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