ILAs

Question 1

What is the epithelium of the vagina?

Answer 1

Non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

Question 2

What triggers a surge in LH?

Answer 2

increasing plasma oestrogen

decreasing plasma progesterone

Question 3

what triggers ovulation?

Answer 3

surge in LH

Question 4

What comes before blastocyst?

Answer 4

morula

Question 5

Where is progesterone produced?

Answer 5

corpus luteum

Question 6

What is oligomenorrhoea?

Answer 6

abnormally infrequent menstruation (>35 days)

Question 7

what is primary amenorrhoea?

Answer 7

failure to establish menstruation by the time of expected menarche

Question 8

what is secondary amenorrhea?

Answer 8

stopping of menstruations in a woman with previously normal menses

Question 9

what is menorrhagia?

Answer 9

regular excessive menstrual bleeding, effects wellbeing

Question 10

where is chorionic gonadotropin produced?

Answer 10

placenta

Question 11

what does chorionic gonadotropin do? when are levels highest?

Answer 11

stimulates corupus luteum to produce progesterone passed the 14 days after ovulation (when corpus luteum normally regresses)

levels highest in 1st trimester

Question 12

what is the ureter lined by?

Answer 12

transitional epithelium ( stratified)

Question 13

What is the outermost layer of the kidney?

Answer 13

capsule

Question 14

the proximal tubules of several nephrons join together to form…?

Answer 14

collecting duct!

Question 15

How is urine transported to the bladder?

Answer 15

by the peristaltic action of the ureters

Question 16

What is the depressor muscle under the control of?

Answer 16

the autonomic system with some voluntary control

Question 17

What is renal clearance of a molecule?

Answer 17

the volume of plasmas cleared of that molecule per minute

Question 18

Why would a molecule have a low renal clearance? (~80mls/min)

Answer 18

a molecule that is filtered and reabsorbed e.g. urea

Question 19

what does it mean for a molecule o gave a high renal clearance?

Answer 19

A molecule that is filtered and actively secreted will have a higher renal clearance e.g Para-amino hippuric acid

Question 20

what does ANP cause?

Answer 20

-An increased glomerular filtration rate
-Increased sodium excretion
-Inhibition of release of vasoconstrictors e.g. angiotensin II, aldosterone and endothelin
A decrease in blood pressure

Question 21

What does aldosterone do?

Answer 21

1. acts on distal collecting duct casing increased Na+ reabsorption
2. increases blood pressure

Question 22

What is the mechanism of anaemia in chronic renal failure?

Answer 22

reduced production of erythropoietin

Question 23

how does Renin convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I?

Answer 23

by removing a short amino acid chain

Question 24

How much of the cardiac output passes through the kidneys?

Answer 24

20%

Question 25

The vagus nerve is composed of...

Answer 25

parasympathetic motor and sensory fibres

Question 26

Where are Schwann cells found?

Answer 26

PNS | they form the myelin sheath of motor and sensory neutrons

Question 27

What is tabes dorsals?

Answer 27

demyelination of the dorsal roots caused by syphilis

Question 28

what does disruption of the DCML pathway cause?

Answer 28

loss of fine touch, vibration, pressure and proprioception

Question 29

What causes depolarisation?

Answer 29

sodium ions rushing into the cell

Question 30

what causes repolarisation?

Answer 30

potassium ions rushing out of the cell

Question 31

where does the corticospinal tract decussate?

Answer 31

in the pyramids of the lower medulla

Question 32

where does the spinothalamic tract decussate?

Answer 32

spinal cord

Question 33

where does the DCML decussate?

Answer 33

medulla

Question 34

which spinocerebellar tract decussates twice? where does it decussate?

Answer 34

anterior (ventral) | once in the spinal cord as part of the anterior white commissure and then again in the superior cerebellar peduncle

Question 35

what does the spinothalamic tract convey?

Answer 35

sensory info from skin to thalamus anterior - crude touch and firm pressure lateral - pain and temp

Question 36

Which group of spinal nerves innervates the ankle reflex?

Answer 36

S1/S2

Question 37

This descending motor tract originates in the cerebral cortex and synapses in the spinal cord.

Answer 37

corticospinal

Question 38

What stimulates parathyroid hormone?

Answer 38

Decreased plasma calcium levels

Question 39

What is compartment syndrome?

Answer 39

acute complication of fractures The muscles are enclosed in fascial compartments with little room for expansion therefore if swelling of the muscle occurs then the pressure in the compartment rises which can compromise the blood flow to the muscle.

Question 40

In osteomalacia what best describes the blood test results for the bone profile?

Answer 40

Decreased calcium, decreased phosphate, increased Alk Phos, raised PTH

Question 41

wha tis the most common cause of osteomalacia?

Answer 41

hypophosphataemia (low phosphate) due to hyperparathyroidism (raised PTH) secondary to Vit D deficiency.

Question 42

Where is 1-25-dihydroxyvitaminD formed?

Answer 42

kidney

Question 43

The action of parathyroid hormone results in what changes to urinary calcium and phosphate levels?

Answer 43

Urinary calcium decreases & urinary phosphate increases

Question 44

Which cell type is involved in the resorption of bone during the remodelling process?

Answer 44

osteoclast

Question 45

what is osteoid?

Answer 45

the matrix produced by osteoblasts

Question 46

what are osteocytes?

Answer 46

the bone cell formed when an osteoblast becomes encased in calcium hydroxyapatite

Question 47

what is a macrophage?

Answer 47

a type of white blood cell present in bone marrow, responsible for attacking bacteria and tumour cells

Question 48

what do osteoblasts do?

Answer 48

secrete osteoid

Question 49

what do osteoclasts do?

Answer 49

responsible for bone reabsorption

Question 50

what is Paget's disease?

Answer 50

excessive and disorganised deposition and resorption of bone causes weak bone

Question 51

what does the bone profile of Paget's diseases show?

Answer 51

Normal calcium, normal phosphate, raised Alkaline Phosphatase, normal PTH.

Question 52

What is hydroxyapatite made of?

Answer 52

calcium and phosphate

Question 53

what does the bone profile of osteoporosis show?

Answer 53

Normal calcium, normal phosphate, normal Alk Phos, normal PTH

Question 54

What is the role of ultraviolet light in vitamin D metabolism

Answer 54

Converts 7-dehydrocholesterol to cholecalciferol

Question 55

What type of respiratory failure does pulmonary embolism lead to?

Answer 55

type 1

Question 56

What cells provide cilia for the mucociliary escalator?

Answer 56

columnar epithelial cells

Question 57

Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond to:

Answer 57

CSF pH

Question 58

define function residual capacity

Answer 58

the amount of air remaining in the lungs after normal quiet expiration

Question 59

What is the term used to describe a malignant tumour of the pleural membranes?

Answer 59

mesothelioma

Question 60

Vital capacity (VC) is calculated by

Answer 60

Tidal volume + Inspired reserve volume + Expired reserve volume

Question 61

Which nerve innervates the pericardium?

Answer 61

phrenic verve

Question 62

Cardiac Output is calculated from…

Answer 62

heart rate x stroke volume

Question 63

what is the stroke volume in an average person?

Answer 63

70 mls

Question 64

Which artery most frequently supplies the Atrio Ventricular Node?

Answer 64

right coronary

Question 65

Shortness of breath, severe peripheral oedema and ascites after a heart attack indicates

Answer 65

biventricular failure

Question 66

Severe pulmonary hypertension is a cause of...

Answer 66

right heart failure

Question 67

Increase in this indicates mitral valve stenosis

Answer 67

Left ventricular end-systolic pressure

Question 68

What is Gilbert's Syndrome?

Answer 68

a genetic disorder causes issues removing bilirubin no obstructive element

Question 69

Microsomal enzyme uridine diphosphoglucoronosyl transferase (glucuronyl transferase) catalyses the formation of what?

Answer 69

Conjugated bilirubin

Question 70

What percent of cardiac output is the hepatic blood supply?

Answer 70

25%

Question 71

What is the structure in the middle of the hepatic lobule?

Answer 71

central vein

Question 72

Which compound is returned to the liver by the enterohepatic circulation?

Answer 72

urobilinogen

Question 73

why is cholecystokinin released?

Answer 73

in response to the presence of amino acids in the gut as well as lipids, free fatty acids, peptides but not carbohydrates or HCl.

Question 74

how much bile does the gall bladder store?

Answer 74

up to 50 mls

Question 75

what do chief cells secrete?

Answer 75

pepsinogen

Question 76

What is the first location that Fat is acted upon by Lipase enzymes when passing through the GI tract?

Answer 76

oral cavity

Question 77

How do non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) irritate the stomach?

Answer 77

NSAIDs inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 (COX = cyclo-oxygenase). COX-2 is the target enzyme and blockade of this will inhibit production of inflammatory and nociceptive-enhancing prostaglandins. Inhibition of COX-1 will prevent production of gastro-protective prostaglandins.

Question 78

What is the porta hepatis? what runs through it?

Answer 78

fissure on the underside of the liver. - the hepatic artery proper - portal vein - hepatic bile duct - Vagus nerve branches - sympathetics - lymphatics

Question 79

What is the function of Intrinsic Factor produced in the stomach?

Answer 79

Allows absorption of Vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum

Question 80

signs of MND

Answer 80

- weakness in both hands - wasting of the thenar eminence - slurred speech and difficulty swallowing - spastic tongue

Question 81

frontal lobe lesion characteristics:

Answer 81

-lack of spontaneous activity - unmotivated, uninterested -loss of attention loss of abstract thought -perseveration -change of affect

Question 82

cerebellar lesions cause...

Answer 82

- wide, unsteady gait - impaired coordination - uncontrolled repetitive eye movements - difficulty with fine motor skills - intention tremor - slurred speech

Question 83

what is myasthenia graves? what are the main symptoms?

Answer 83

ACh receptors are blocked by an autoimmune reaction - condition of the neuromuscular junction - abnormal fatigable weakness of muscles - ptosis or diplopia

Question 84

what are symptoms of a brainstem lesion?

Answer 84

* cannot move or communicate verbally due to paralysis of nearly all voluntary muscles. * Blinking and vertical gaze may be preserved depending on the extent and level of the lesion within the brainstem * They are conscious and aware. * Complete recovery is rare.