Ij Flashcards

1
Q

In the waterfall model which of the following evaluates a given product against the specifications written for the product

A

Verification

Verification evaluates the products performance to the acclaimed functionalities and production levels. It also compares the specifications of the product to the actual resulting product

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2
Q

When containing an Incident what is the first step that should always be taken

A

Secure the area and protect potential evidence

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3
Q

Based on the following asset information what is the organization single loss expectancy per hour?

Maintaining and updating their database cost $124,000 per year customer base revenue is $500,000 per year. For every hour of data compromise Or unavailability they could lose one percent of their customers

A

5,000

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4
Q

Chosen ciphertext attacks are mainly use against what kind of ciphers?

A

Pubic key

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5
Q

The risk of the following attack could be mitigated by software develop training

A

Buffer overflow

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6
Q

Which of the following relies on UDP

A

DHCP

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7
Q

Who is the primary user of an IDE

A

Software developer

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8
Q

A company has decided they need to separate the development team from the support team. According to general security principles what job function should be done by the development team

A

Software design

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9
Q

What protocol provides the user authentication authorization for remote client access?

802.1x
EAP-TLS
ChAP
RADIUS

A

RADIUS

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10
Q
Which distributed computing architecture is used extensively by web applications?
Timesharing
Three tier
Peer to peer
Client server
A

Three tier

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11
Q

An individual with secret level security clearance cannot read a document designed as top-secret. Which security model is is an example of?
Discretionary access control, Beba, Bell-lapadula or clark Wilson 

A

Bell la Padula

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12
Q

What type of memories typically use as cash memory?

Cashing random access memory, read only memory, dynamic random access memory, static random access memory

A

Static random access memory

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13
Q

During an evacuation who is responsible for checking that each individual that area has begun evacuation?

Door monitor, business unit manager, safety warden or meeting point leader

A

Safety warden

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14
Q

Which of the following is not a responsibility of an information owner?
Approving any disclosure activities, ensuring that the necessary security controls are in place, defining security requirements per classification of back up requirements or ensuring that proper access rights are being used in configuring them properly

A

Ensuring that proper access rights are being used in configuring them properly

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15
Q

Which of the following biometric access control measures the blood vessels in an eye?
I rescan, fingerprint, facial recognition or retina pattern

A

Retina pattern

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16
Q

Which of the following devices are read in written into a sequential order?

USB stick, solid-state drive, floppy drive or magnetic tape

A

Magnetic tape

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17
Q

Which of the following circumstances is computer application security most effective and economical?

When the system is optimized before the additional security, when the system as customers to meet specific security threat, when the system is Design from the beginning to provide the necessary security or when the system is purchase off-the-shelf

A

When the system is designed from beginning to provide the necessary security

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18
Q

When planning to perform a vulnerability assessment, a large international companies CIO decided to scan their entire IP address space. How can this affect the value of the scan?

The scan will review more problems that can be resolved in a reasonable time, the scan will have a high chance of failing before it completes, the network network will be unavailable while the scan is running or the scan will admit computers are not running at the time

A

The skin will reveal more problems than can be resolved in a reasonable time

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19
Q

What type of host discovery is used to find a live network systems that aren’t running responsive listing services?

Port scanning, Port monitoring, active or passive

A

Passive

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20
Q

Which of the following attributes could be used to qualify access control measures?

Administrative defensive detective, administrative preventive detective, associative preventive deterrent, associative preventive detective

A

Administrative preventive and detective

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21
Q

What is a driving factor in clearly stated data destruction policies?

Easy availability of archival info,

Pre-trial discovery during litigation,

historical records to advise policy makers,
or statistical analysis of past performance

A

Pretrial discovery during litigation

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22
Q

With regard to access control terminology when are built in subjects for an operating system defined?

When an administrator has a business need,

at that time the operating system is designed,

at the time the operating system is compiled

or when a new policy dictates the need for one

A

At the time the operating system is designed

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23
Q

Which of the following is example of a directive control?

Background check, encryption, Smart card or locks?

A

Background check

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24
Q

What is the number of UDP port that could be open on a system?

131,070, 131,072, 65,535 or 65,536

A

65,536

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25
Q

What step of incident response comes immediately after response?

Containment, mitigation remediation or reporting

A

Mitigation

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26
Q

What security issue is related to Legacy SCADA protocols like modbus, DNP3, pro fibrous and RP – 570?

A

They’re clear text

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27
Q

A computer is assigned a time to transmit by controller to void collisions. Which of the following uses a technique?

CSMA\CD, pulling, CSMA backslash CA or ATM? 

A

Polling

Pulling is commonly used in mainframe environments

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28
Q

What type of token generates new unique codes at fix time intervals?
Asynchronous dynamic, static, challenge response or synchronous dynamic

A

Synchronous dynamic

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29
Q

A mouse trap manufacturing company factory was flooded during a tsunami. Another division within the company manufacture rat traps in another plant that was not flooded. It could be used to make mouse traps after a day of retooling. What kind of site is this?

Cold, warm, hot or reciprocal

A

Warm

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30
Q

The computer ethics Institute has published a code of ethics which six to govern behavior of computer users. Which statement accurately reflects one of the 10 Commandments??

Dial shall not use the computer as a witness tool, that should not interfere with other people’s computer work, they’ll shall not use a computer for recreation, or thou shall not waste government computer resources

A

Thou shall not interfere with other people’s computer work

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31
Q

Against which risk is a perimeter firewall effective?

External exploit of a file server with an unpatri access vulnerability,

An employee opening attachment in a fishing email

Attackers pivoting to a database from a user machine with compromised credentials

Infective files downloaded via SSL from a compromise external Web server

A

External export of a file server with the unpaired remote access vulnerability

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32
Q

What resources consumed by a botnet during a DDOS

RAM
BANDWIDTH
CAM table space
Source ports

A

Bandwidth

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33
Q

Which of the following is a primary protective mechanism for active X?

Sandbox, antivirus, integrity checking or digital signature? 

A

Digital signature

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34
Q

What does CER, FAR AND FRR relate to IN A GRAPH?

Business impact analysis, biometric authentication, IDS/IPS tuning Or vulnerability assessment

A

Biometric authentication

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35
Q

Which of the following tools we use to record and send a users password over the network?

Keylogger, father, Kerberos or a root kit

A

Keylogger

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36
Q

What should take place to restore server and it’s data files after a system failure?

Take a forensic hard drive image, reformat the server and reinstall the OS, implement system recovery procedures or clone the server from a similar system

A

Implement system recovery procedures

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37
Q

Which of the following is only likely to be identified through an assessment of core security processes

IP addresses of house probably in the network perimeter, the root cause of security failures, identification of zero de compromises or the number of listening services on a network

A

The root cause of security failures

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38
Q

What activity can often uncover evidence of a data breach?

Vulnerability assessment, user acceptance testing, centralize log review, business impact analysis

A

Centralized log review

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39
Q

While reviewing a file server security log a system administrator notices there are no events log for any type of file access. What type of issue is this?

Authentication, authorization, accountability or availability

A

Accountability

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40
Q

Removing unnecessary applications and services is part of what process?

Creating security metrics, The provisioning systems, continuous monitoring, or applying security baselines

A

Applying security baselines

Key component to any baseline security configuration is establishing the minimum necessary services applications needed to perform the required functions this can also be referred to as principle of lease privilege

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41
Q

Which part of a pen test are WHOIS and DNS often use

Exploitation, reconnaissance, vulnerability assessment or scanning

A

Reconnaissance

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42
Q

Which of the following is so she was buffer overflows?

Cat, and map, a a a a or gets ()

A

gets()

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43
Q

What is the meterpreter in the Metasploit framework?

payload, a threat, and exploit or vulnerability

A

A payload

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44
Q

What is a mandatory component of a single sign-on system?

A non-discretionary access control, Federated Identity management, multifactoral syndication or centroids credential source

A

Centralize credential source

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45
Q

What is the difference between an incremental backup and a differential back up?

And incremental back up is on site and a differential is remote,

a differential backup is on site incrementals remote,

an incremental back up creates files for each day and a differential back up file grows each day

or differential backup creates files for each day in incremental back up file girls each day

A

An incremental backup creates files for each day and a differential back up file grows each day

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46
Q

Which of the following should be used to extinguish a fire and operating electrical transformer station?

Soda acid, dry powder, CO2 or water

A

CO2

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47
Q

A $200,000 service firm has a single loss expectancy of 40,000. What is a server firms exposure factor?

20%, 40%, 200% of 500%

A

20%

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48
Q

Which code review method is a characteristic of extreme programming?

Pair programming, fuzz testing, tool assisted or static analysis

A

Pair programming

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49
Q

What is the defining characteristic of an 802. 11 ad hoc wireless network?

Clients connect to an access point, Allows access points to communicate with clients, operates without essential access point are used for sniffing wireless networks

A

Operates without a central access point

An ad hoc wireless network is a peer to peer network specifically designed to operate without is central access point

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50
Q

What does an attacker do with the return pointer when it’s over written?

Set it to a program on the drive the Attacker wants to run

Sets it to another currently running applications and the machine

Set it to an incoming data stream from the network

Sets it to the location in the stack are the commands are

A

Sets it to location in the stack where the commands are

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51
Q

And administrator working on a web server open some malicious link while downloading patches. What kind of attack is this?

Trojan horse, server-side, come in injection or client-side

A

Client-side

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52
Q

Which of the following is used to identify how an ATM sell can reaches destination?

Point of point protocol, virtual path identifier, permanent virtual circuit or switch to virtual circuit

A

Virtual path identifier

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53
Q

Which software development Methodology is not primary code centric?

SDLC

DEVOPS

LIBSAFE

CMMI

A

Devops

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54
Q

What organization manages request for comments (RFCs)

National Institute of standards and technology, Internet engineering task force(IETF) , International organization for standardization ISO or Center for Internet security CIS

A

Internet engineering task force I ETF

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55
Q

Which of the following types of business country plan testing is known as validity testing?

Full interpretation, simulation testing, structure walk-through testing or checklist


A

Structure walk through testing

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56
Q

Which of the following topologies is most widely used today because of scalability and fault tolerance

Star biology, bus topology, ring topology or loop topology

A

Star

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57
Q

What’s the following categories fits these terms: Client/server, three – tier and peer-to-peer

Software architecture, Computer architecture, software development Methodology, interprocess communication

A

Software architecture

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58
Q

What element is part of the base metrics in the common vulnerabilities scoring system?

Temporal,

access vector

environmental or

emanations 

A

Access vector

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59
Q

The defense on a computer fraud case United States wishes to offer a third-party personal email records into evidence that could help prove her client had no malicious intent. What is the prosecuting same most likely to do?

Object based on the hearsay rule 

I’ve just based the emails containing PII in the main headers

Object base in the exclusionary rule

Object based on data retention policies


A

Object base and the hearsay rule

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60
Q

Which software development methodology uses and enter iterative approach to develop it working model with typically includes frequent interaction between the customer and developer

Spiral, address, scram or prototyping

A

Prototyping

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61
Q

What type of evidence obtained from an outside source and is admissible in court?

Hearsay, circumstantial, inculpatory kr corroborating 

A

Hearsay

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62
Q

I do bass administrators alerted to a spike in activity that has caused a space shortages over the last week. Where should the administrator look to turn whether the increase in activities due to valid or abnormal request?

The database is Aralog, the operating system‘s application law, the database is transaction log or the app ring system security log

A

The database transaction log

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63
Q

How can organization share a single document repository were each company retains control over its own authentication credentials

Access control matrix, two factor authentication, coveralls key distribution center or Federated identity management

A

Federated Identity management

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64
Q

Fuzzing a running applications part of what process?

Code review, stress testing, dynamic application security testing or static analysis

A

Dynamic application Security testing

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65
Q

There are many types of testing methods involve a exercising and maintaining a business continuity plan. Which of the following types of testing is known as consistency testing

The literally testing, structured walk-through testing, simulated testing, or checklist testing

A

Checklist testing

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66
Q

What functionality do open ID and Saml provide?

Openid uses centralized Storage for credentials, while SAML uses distributed storage 

true or false?

A

False

Open ID performs authentication while SMAL and codes authentication related information

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67
Q

What causes the chrome browser to have many process instances when there are multiple tabs

Standard libraries
Buffer overflow
Sandboxing
Memory leaks

A

Sandboxing

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68
Q

Which of following is not one of the private IP address ranges designated by the internet assigned numbers authority

  1. 12.0.0:16-128.92.0.0/16
  2. 0.0.0/8
  3. 168.0.0/16
  4. 16.0.0/16-172.31.0.0/16
A

128.12.0.0/16-128.920.0/16

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69
Q

What is the act of hiding data within another medium?

Permutation
Substitution
Steganography
Transposition

A

Straganography

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70
Q

If a company does not inform employees that they may be monitored and does not have a policy stating how monitoring should take place, what should a company do?

A

Don’t monitor individual employees in any fashion

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71
Q

What is the goal of synthetic transactions

A

Ensure an application is performing as intended

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72
Q

What is one way of avoiding excessive damage to equipment while maximizing personal safety and using recommendations of fire protection and insurance industries for data centers

A

Dry pipe

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73
Q

Which of the following characteristics of secondary memory?

A

Has slower data retrieval speeds

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74
Q

Which of the following Algorithms is used to secure the exchange of key when implementing public Key cryptography

DES
AES
IDEA
DIFFIE-hellman

A

Diffie hellman

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75
Q

What computer resources make up the TCB?

A

The kernel and processes designed to meet a formal security policy

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76
Q

What is the first step to be accomplished in a preliminary legal investigation

Gather evidence, determine if Crime has occurred, interview witnesses or inspect damage

A

Determine if a crime had occurred

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77
Q

Even Joy streaming videos from the wild while on her work computer. Sometimes access to videos are cut off for hours or even the rest of the workday period it seems random to eve the day of the week the websites hosting the videos, and how long she can access sight do not follow a pattern. Which control is blocking the website?

Context base access control, web application firewall, whole space in certain section or time base access control

A

Context based access control

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78
Q

Which of the following does every user in organization not need to be aware of regarding their organizations information security policy?

A

The actions required to recover systems in case of a disaster

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79
Q

What writing protocol is used to communicate between autonomous systems and large networks such as the Internet?

ARP
RIP
DNA
ESP
BGP
A

BGP

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80
Q

Which of the following terms describes determining an individual is who they claim to be?

Authorization, identification, authentication

A

Authentication

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81
Q

Which of the following land transmission protocols is use on ethernet networks??

CSMA/CD
TOLEN PASSING
CSMA/ca
Polling 

A

Csma/cd

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82
Q

The pen testing team is getting access to orientation by sending a PDF file from a spoon human resources email address. Which the following controls would help medicate this attack?

security audits, code review, user training or transport layer security? 

A

User training

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83
Q

What is the security weakness of the password authentication protocol? PAP

A

Sends passwords in plaintext

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84
Q

When a cookie is marked secure which of the following controls are in place?

It may be sent over SSL/TLS, it cannot be accessed by JavaScript, is encrypted with the private key or it is encrypted with a symmetrical key? 

A

It may be sent over SSL/TLS

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85
Q

The most complete picture of the security of network results from which of the following?

I Pinterest, vulnerability assessment, firewall rule based audit or security assessment

A

Security assessment

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86
Q

Once you understand a risk, you can decide not to become evolved in this risk situation. What should the choices below describes this decision

Risk avoidance, risk acceptance, risk reduction or risk transfer

A

Risk avoidance

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87
Q

What mechanism can be used to ensure that it failed database transaction or system for the return the subject to a meaningful point in some process

A

Checkpoint

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88
Q

The following statement can be best described as what type of security documentation? I’ll end-user systems on the network must be protected at the host level again smell weird unauthorized access

Procedure, policy, standard, baseline, guideline

A

Policy

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89
Q

Which of the following best describes operation security

A

Taking steps to make sure environment and information access within it stay at a certain level of protection

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90
Q

What is the unit of transmission in an ethernet network called

A

Frame

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91
Q

Which of the following forms of communication should be used and reporting an incident to management

A

Out of band

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92
Q

What component of a VoIP system exchanges traffic between a packet switch in circuit-switched network

A

Media gateway

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93
Q

What solution aims to solve latency issues caused by differences between client in public servers

A

Content distribution networks

Provides faster delivery of content to the user distributed world wide

It is a group of servers that are placed all over the globe and increase the delivery of web content

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94
Q

What type of control can automatically initiate corrective control

A

Detective

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95
Q

Dedicated

A

Dedicate a motive operation means at the system contains objects of one classification label

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96
Q

Which search engine poses a problem for SCADA system is connected to the Internet

A

Shodon

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97
Q

What is the Best definition for equal error rate EER

A

The rate at which the FAR equals a FRR

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98
Q

In tunnels mode IPSEC The outer packet is address to which of the following

A

The receiving Gateway

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99
Q

Which of the following sulfur controls is an output control

A

Reconciliation

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100
Q

What type of control as a security policy

A

Directive

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101
Q

What Mac motive operation place a reference monitor to mediate between subjects and objects

A

Multi level

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102
Q

Which of the following destroys patterns that connect plane textures associate ciphertext

A

Diffusion

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103
Q

Compressing IPv6

A

Leading zeros are all suppressed

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104
Q

Which of the following access control measures is directive

A

Background check

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105
Q

What type of memory must be refreshed by reading and rereading each but every Few milliseconds

A

DRAM

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106
Q

Which Class of fire suppress by dry powder

A

Electrical

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107
Q

Which of the following pen testing activities with the effective invalidating Tempus effectiveness

A

Radiation monitoring

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108
Q

Which distributed computing Thank you architectures fully decentralized

A

Peer to peer

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109
Q

The account management process should ensure adherence to a security principal

A

Least priv

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110
Q

Which of the following Theresas the Internet activities board consider violation of the ethics in the Internet

A

Compromising the privacy of users

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111
Q

Antivirus Blocked an executable and sent a notice to security event information management system. What type of control does antivirus represent

A

Preventative

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112
Q

During a preliminary investigation of potential security incident which step should occur in what order

A

Review the complaint, inspect the damage, exam in logs and work with management and if necessary is this management in notifying law enforcement

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113
Q

With respect to do classification rolls in which of the following is a responsibility the system owner

A

To assist in identification of the common security controls

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114
Q

Metasploit

A

Validate if the vulnerability is exploitable

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115
Q

Where would attackers focus our efforts to disable Kerberos

A

Key distribution center

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116
Q

Which of the following concepts requires having a central authority maintain a copy of everybody’s private keys are there any users encrypted data can be decrypted by the central authority

A

Escrowed encryption

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117
Q

What should be considered in the purchase of a preventative control

A

Total cost of ownership

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118
Q

A no NIDS is alerted by a database connection

A

False negative

False negative occurs when the IDS is not set off an alert and the traffic is malicious

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119
Q

What is an application Output control

A

Reconciliation

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120
Q

What technology allows a single switch to host multiple networks 

A

Vlan 

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121
Q

What memory addressing technique always refers to a temporary storage location of the rather than the main memory

A

Registered direct addressing

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122
Q

Which of the following provides the set of statements used to design a database Sxhema

A

Data definition language

123
Q

What layer of the OSI model does 802.1X provide authentication

A

Data link

124
Q

Why would someone use frame-relay instead of x.25

A

Lower overhead

125
Q

What are the four tasks in the access provisioning life cycle

A

Account Administration
Maintenance
Monitoring
And revocation

126
Q

Identity is what

A

Making a claim to the system as to who you are

127
Q

Providing user name and password is what

A

Authentication

128
Q

After authentication then authorization is next, what does it do

A

Looks what what access the user has

129
Q

After authorization is accountability

A

This deals with who does what in the system

130
Q

What is AAA

A

Authentication
Authorization
Accountability

131
Q

Auhtorizarion determines what

A

What access to what group of information a user or group of users has

132
Q

Accountability is what

A

Makes the user responsible for their actions

133
Q

Four

A
134
Q

Four categories of authentication are

A

Something you know (password, phrase)
something you have
Something you are
Someplace you are

135
Q

True or false using two authentication factors is known as two factor authentication

A

True

136
Q

What is CER

A

Crossover error rate

Percentage of false rejection rate compared to false acceptance rate

137
Q

PoLP is what

A

Principle of least privilege and it makes sure individuals are granted access necessary to perform their required business functions

138
Q

True or false, the PoLP applies to users and system configuration, firewall rulesets, and many other items in security

A

True

139
Q

What is a key policy for fraud deterrence/detection

A

Rotation of duties

140
Q

What is the base level of protection that a reasonable person takes to check a piece of code

A

Due care

141
Q

What is the process followed to ensure that an org is exercising their duty of care

A

Due diligence

142
Q

What do detective controls do

A

Makes us aware of a condition that might warrant further inspection or response

Any device that has an alarm feature is this

143
Q

Prevention controls do what

A

Deprive unauthorized access to resources

144
Q

What includes organizational policies and procedures

A

Administrative or directives

145
Q

Type of controls

A
Preventative
Detective 
Corrective 
Deterrent
Recovery 
Compensating
146
Q

Administrative controls are

A

Background checks and policies and procedures

147
Q

Physical controls are

A

Locks
Security laptops
Security magnetic media
The protection of cable

148
Q

Technical controls are

A

Encryption

Smart cards

149
Q

Preventative controls do what

A

Prevent an attack from being successful

150
Q

Detective controls do what

A

Assuming an attack has begun, it tried to detect that there is a problem after an attack occurs

Timing in critical

151
Q

Deterrent controls do what

A

Discourages security violations, such as a beware of dog sign

152
Q

Compensating controls do what

A

Provide alternatives to other controls. If there is a weakness in a control, add another layer of security to reduce the risk

153
Q

Corrective controls do what

A

Reacts to an attack and takes corrective action

154
Q

Recovery controls do what

A

Restores the operating state to normal after an attack or system failure

155
Q

First step to managing risk is what

A

Asset evaluation

What is the impact of unavailability

What is the impact of a data breach

What is the impact of the data was altered

156
Q

Risk =

A

Threat x vulnerability

157
Q

What is something that can bring harm to a system

A

Threat

158
Q

What is a threat source , aka threat source

A

It is the cause of a threat

159
Q

What is the means a threat exercises a vulnerability?

A

Exploit

160
Q

What is the source or binary code that eases the ability for an attackers to exploit a vulnerability

A

Exploit code

161
Q

What is the action that the attacker wants to carry out as a result of the exploitation.

What is part of the post exploitation portion of an attack

A

Payload

162
Q

What is the worlds most used pen testing framework

A

Metasploit

163
Q

What are the two primary approaches to risk assessment

A

Quantitative and qualitative

164
Q

What type of risk assessment is perfected by the business and usually uses numbers

A

Quantitative

165
Q

Quantitative formulas

A

SLE = EF xAV

ARO

ALE =SLE X ARO

TCO
ROI

166
Q

Which risk assessment focuses on what

A

Uses risk matrix and does not use numbers

167
Q

What must an effective risk management prioritize

A

A risk reduction strategy

168
Q

What are the three fundamental elements of security

A

Confidentiality integrity and availability

169
Q

What defines the CIA triad in terms of loss?

A

Disclosure alteration and denial (DAD)

170
Q

What is the request for information to be made to initially gather information about the available providers of the item or service being procured.

A

RFI

Request for information

171
Q

What is the stage of procurement to determine which providers will bid for the project

A

Request for proposal

172
Q

Rfq

A

Request for quote

173
Q

What is used when a business operates legally as a partnership
It addresses ownership, profits/losses and contributions

A

BPA

Business partner agreement

174
Q

What is used when two org interconnect information systems/networks

A

MOU/A

It defines basic roles, responsibilities and requirements. It also refers to the ISA got details concerning the security requirements

175
Q

Woah dictates the technical security requirements associated with two orgs connecting information system/networks

A

ISA

176
Q

What is used to force service providers to agree to provide and acceptable level of security or else potentially be found in a breach of contract

A

SLA

177
Q

What is an internal

Agreement that supports the SLA?

A

OLA

operating level agreement

178
Q

What governs how about org that license a large volume of software is allowed to use that software?

A

ELA

enterprise license agreement

179
Q

COTS

A

commercial off the shelf

180
Q

What does SOC stand for

A

Service organization controls

181
Q

What is the name for a SOC 1

A

Service organizations: internal

Control over financial reporting (ICFR)

182
Q

What is the name for a SOC II

A

Service organizations:trust services criteria

183
Q

Name for a SOC III

A

Service organizations: trust services criteria for general use report

184
Q

What needs does a SOC I meet

A

Entities that use service organizations and the CPAs that audit the user entities financial statements and controls on the financial statements

185
Q

What does a SOC II do

A

Gives a detailed information action and assurance about the controls at a service org relevant to security, availability and processing integrity of the systems the service org uses to process users data and the confidentiality and privacy of the information processed by these systems

186
Q

What is a SOC III used for

A

Giving assurance about the controls at a service organization relevant to security availability, processing integrity confidentiality or privacy

187
Q

The concept of threat modeling is closely associated with what?

A

Software or application development

188
Q

Approach for threat misruling is STRIDE . What does STRIDE. Stand for

A
Spoofing ID 
TAMPERING With data 
repudiation 
Information disclosure 
DoS
Elevation priv
189
Q

What is the goal of threat identification

A

Appreciate the threat sources, understand their motivation and determine their capabilities

190
Q

What is the method attackers use to touch or exercise vulnerabilities

A

Threat vectors or vector

191
Q

What represents all the ways in which an attacker could attempt to introduce data to exploit a vulnerability

A

Attack surface

192
Q

How do you reduce the attack surface of an application

A

Security configuration management or hardening . This ensures only necessary features are enables on systems

193
Q

What governs individual conduct as it pertains to laws both federal and state

A

Criminal law

194
Q

What refers to an action against a coma y that causes damage or financial losss

A

Civil law

195
Q

What protects inventions for 20 years

A

Patent

196
Q

What is a recorded thought, a form of expression copyright

A
197
Q

Lifi uses what

A

Uses LED lights bulbs to send data

198
Q

What includes 4g and 5g

A

Lifi zig bee and satellite and cellular networking

199
Q

Tools used to recover shared WEP keys

A

WEPcrack
Airsnort
dwepcrack

200
Q

What uses existing LES bulbs to send data to receivers

A

LIFI

201
Q

What are the benefits of LIFI

A

Speed

Down side is it cannot pass through light

202
Q

What leverages battery powered radios to form a mesh person area network

A

Zigbee

203
Q

What network let’s the computers in a network communicate directly with each other without an intermediary

A

Peer to peer

204
Q

What are characteristics of the waterfall methodology

A

The project is divided into sequential stages, each with specific milestones

This is knows your be the most direct toward the objectives with the shortest dev time and cost possible

205
Q

What maturity level of software assurance modem (SAMM) as described as initial understanding and ad hoc provision of security practice?

A

Level 1

Level 0: implicit starting point representing the activities in the practice being unfulfilled

Level 1: same as question

Level 2: increase efficiency and or effectiveness of sec. Practice

Level 3: comprehensive mastery of the sec practice at scale

206
Q

Ensuring only min required access is given to developers at any time is an example of what?

A

Least priv

207
Q

What approach would be best suited to help identify flaws by examining source code?

A

Static application security testing

208
Q

What applies an agile methodology to threat and vulnerability management, incident handling/response and overall security operations?

A

Security orchestration automation and response (SOAR)

SOAR is the automatic handling of security operations-related tasks. Process of executing these tasks, like scanning for vulnerabilities or searching logs

209
Q

One of the oldest Programming vulnerabilities allows that allows code to be inserted into memory locations potentially allow code execution?

A

A buffer overflow

This is when the programmer fails to perform bounds checking

For example
The ()gets functions goes not enforce a character length limit when data is input

210
Q

Which level in the CMMI is defined by the phrase
The software process for both management and engineering activities is documented, standardized and integrated into a standard software process for the organization?

A

Level 3

211
Q

Which type of testing would be most appropriate to ensure that all expected functionality of the app is present and working properly?

A

Quality assurance

212
Q

What development methodologies uses paired programmers who work from a detailed specification, has a high level of customer involvement and uses detailed test procedures?

A

Extreme programming (XP)

213
Q

What principle is violated when developers reviews code in production

A

Separation of duties

214
Q

What maturity level of software assurance model is described as comprehensive mastery of the security practice scale?

A

Level 3

215
Q

What file methodology co twins small teams of developers, senior member of the org who acts like a coach and the product owner?

A

Scrum

216
Q

What can be used to develop applications faster and increase programmers analysts productivity

A

IDE

Integrated development environment
Musically has a code editors, debugger and build/compiler

217
Q

What is the best way to reduce risk in software

A

Code review

218
Q

Management is concerned about apps having successfully passed through QA and user acceptance testing but later having unforeseen issues when deployed into the prod. What term would be most applicable to address this?

A

Devops

219
Q

Which software developmental model has unique discrete sequential phases

A

Waterfall

220
Q

What enables rapid deployment of virtual security applicable and devices like virtual firewalls, virtual IPS

A

Software defined security

221
Q

What term describes a structured approach to documenting and approving changes to systems

A

Change control

222
Q

What level of the CMMI model is defined by detailed measures of the software process in product quality are collected

A

Level 4

223
Q

What type of coding far is exploited would allow a normal user account to gain increased or even admin access

A

Priv escalation

This type of attack increases a users or process privilege typically to superuser level. Most of these tax require nonprivileged local access. SETU ID root programs are frequent targets of priv escalation attacks

224
Q

What is the main factor that drives a spiral model of application development

A

Risk

225
Q

What is being implemented if development staff does not manage security functions

A

Separation of duties

Development team should have clearly defined borders between developers, the QA department in the coder applications used on prod environments 

226
Q

One of the primary approach is to ensure that Java applet do not negatively impact the underlying operating system involves running the code with any more isolate environment with limited access

A

Sandbox

227
Q

Some numeric values are often stored in fixed length memory locations. What type of a taxi to explode this characteristic to achieve memory corruption

A

Integer overflow

228
Q

What should be done in order to be able to correlate the mini logs produced by different systems

A

Use a reliable and accurate time source

Maintaining a centralized Backup copy of all your logs as quickly important to your monitoring. If they are accurate this what is the log correlation. It’s a timestamps her off it will not be helpful

229
Q

What type of minoring would be best suited for discovering a compromise internal system being used to scan public hosted cloud assets

A

Egress monitoring

It monitors traffic leaving an organization, system for interface like the traffic from internal system that scans public hosted cloud assets. Ingressed monitoring examine the behavior of assets of an organization or system seem whether they are in compliance with standards or not

230
Q

Measuring the baseline of activity overtime in highlighting expectations is referred to as what

A

Anomaly detection

This type of tool notices unusual trends in traffic patterns. They use expected behavior patterns as their baseline then ignore sells patterns as a process data

231
Q

And Apache web service is considered to be what type of Kobe service

A

PaaS

Edmonds have control over the service configuration only, and not the general operating system. An admin could we start the web service but not reboot the entire system

232
Q

What detective technology would be best able to help discover adversary Compromise of a legitimate user account based on deviation from typical behavior

A

UEBA

user and entity behavior analytics provides baseline self profile how users behave. A SIEM may include you EBA data but that cannot be guaranteed

233
Q

What is the goal of a business impact analysis

A

It focuses on determining mission critical business processes and the impact associated with disruption of those services. Its purpose is to determine the tolerable level of impact and keep business functions. The primary focus is on the disruption of availability and determination of the effect of an outage over a period of time. The BIA informs the requirements regarding RTO

234
Q

What is a computer forensics image

A

A binary copy of the hard drive

Binary copy can capture files that have been deleted and hashing algorithms can be used during acquisition and After to be right assurance to the integrity of the image acquired

235
Q

During incident response, you find a dynamic internal IP address is Implicated as the attacker. What would be a key log needed for incident response in forensics

A

DHCP logs

It provides assets with the IP address is dynamically, so that the IP address of a house can vary. The DHCP logs could enable investigatory to determine which host the adversary used

236
Q

Marin Is the manager of the quality department and you just his RFID card to access the building and later uses the same car to access his office what type of control is this

A

Technical

237
Q

What are two types of identity management systems?

LDAP
AD
DC
DN

A

Ad and ldap
Active directory

Lightweight directory access protocol

238
Q

An SSO system is characterized by what

A

Provides a single user name and password to access entire network

239
Q

What is the best performing biometric authentication systems have

A

Low crossover error rate

240
Q

After a users thumb print has been enrolled for future authentication what does their print get stored as

A

Hash

Parametric images are converted to hashes so there’s a hacker exploits a password they will only obtain representations of the biometrics and not the real images

241
Q

Nadia As a security administrator tasked with finding users with week passwords. What type of attack but she attempts first as part of the security audit

Rainbow tables
Birthday
Dictionary
Brute force

A

Dictionary

242
Q

What is it called when an employee moves from department to department and the rights and priv are not removed

A

Authorization creep

243
Q

Which SSO system uses secret keys, principals and tickets

A

Kerberosis

Kerberosis uses a key distribution center to grant tickets to users for services to use such as email and file sharing

244
Q

Kerberosis uses what keys

A

Symmetric

This provides redundancy with the key distribution center to medicate it being a single point of failure. Make certain to use the longest to resist brute force attacks

245
Q

Diskless comouters with lots of memory and fast CPUs that obtain their operating system and data from a centralized server called what

A

Thin clients

246
Q

When implementing security containers on a system it will be divided into too secret, secret, confidential and unclassified. Which type of system is she implementing

A

MAC

mandatory access control

247
Q

What is not a SSO system

A

Circumference

248
Q

Which should be added to make tjeee factor authentication if the person uses a card to swipe into the server room?

Pin
Retina scan
Otp
Authenticator

A

Pin

Retina scan

249
Q

Which access control model prioritizes availability over Confidential Aliti and integrity so that owners of their files determine the authorizations of their objects

A

DAC

Discretionary access control

250
Q

Allow MAC address 35:35:43:an:ac:a1

Deny all

A

Rule based access control

251
Q

What are two difference between TACAS and RADIUS

A

TACAS encrypts all the data . RADIUS encrypts the password only and

TACAS transmits data via T P and RADIUS transmits data via UDP

252
Q

Which is not a physical access control type

8 foot fence
Data backup
Security awareness training
Network segmentation

A

Security awareness training

253
Q

Example of admin controls

A

Non disclosure agreement

Dress code policy

254
Q

What device would monitor network activities

A

IDS

255
Q

When tasked with lowers the threshold of monitoring activities as part of her seeking to discover an external threat, what is one thing that she will notice first

A

The system perform reduces

By lowering the threshold, increases alerts. So false positives increase and logging tables fill up faster. The increased monitoring will eventually find it

256
Q

When an admin is given priv to Ana he printers and hard drives but not the network, what is this an example of

A

Least priv

257
Q

Ok Unix and Linux systems what is the best rewrite to implement to mitigate brute force attacks

A

Name the root log in name to roto-root3r

258
Q

What is an example of data hiding

A

Steganography

259
Q

What is the act of intentionally positioning data so that it is not viewer or accessible to an unauthorized subject

A

Data hiding

260
Q

What is an important part of multilevel secure systems?

A

Data hiding

261
Q

What is the science of hiding the meaning of intent of a communication from unintended recipients

A

Encryption

262
Q

What is the line of intersection between any two areas, subnets or environment s that have different security requirements or needs

A

Security boundary

263
Q

What is it called when there is an established plan, policy and process to Protect the interests of an organization

A

Due diligence

264
Q

What is it called when it is practicing the individual activities that maintain the due diligence effort?

A

Due care

265
Q

What is the document that defines the scope of security needed by the org and discusses the assets that require protection

A

Security policies

266
Q

What defines requirements for the use of hardware, software, technology and security controls

A

Standards

267
Q

What is the minimum level of security that every system throughout the org must meet

A

A baseline

268
Q

What is the element of the formalized security policy structure

A

Guideline

269
Q

Do all users need to know the security standards, baselines, guidelines, and procedures for all security classification levels

A

No they do not

270
Q

What is the process where potential threats are identified, categorized and analyzed

A

Threat modeling

271
Q

What type of testing is specialized dynamic testing technique that too idea different types of input to software to dress its limits and find previously infected flaws

A

Fuzzing

272
Q

CIA

A

Confidentiality integrity and availability

273
Q

What is the principle that objects are not disclosed to unauthorized objects?

A

Confidentiality

274
Q

What is the principle that objects retain their veracity and are intentionally modified k my by authorized subjects

A

Integrity

275
Q

What is the principle that authorized subjects are granted timely and uninterrupted access to objects

A

Availability

276
Q

What is AAA

A

identification, authentication, authorization auditing and accountability

277
Q

What is the process of verifying or testing that a. Claim identity is valid

A

Authentication

278
Q

WhG ensures activity or object based access is possible given the rights and priv assigned to the authenticated identity

A

Authorization

279
Q

What is auditing

A

Programmatic means by which subject are held accountable for their actions while authenticated on a system through the documentation or recording of subject based activities

280
Q

What repudiation

A

Ensures that the subject of an activity cannot deny that the event occurred

281
Q

Abstraction is what

A

It is used to collect similar elements into groups classes are bowls that are assigned security controls, restrictions are permissions as a collective. It has efficiency to caring out a security plan

282
Q

What is defense ok depth

A

Is known as layering, it is simply they use multiple controls in a series. Using a multi layered solution allows for numerous different controls to guard against whatever threats come to pass

283
Q

What is it called when you are preventing the different been discovered her access by subject

A

Data Hiding

284
Q

What is it called when there’s a line of intersection between the two areas, subnets, or environments that have different security requirements or needs

A

Security boundaries

285
Q

What is security governance

A

It is a collection of practices related to supporting defining interesting to secure the efforts of an organization

286
Q

What is the process of reading the exchange materials And verifying them again standards and expectations. In many situations special related to government or military agencies are contractors failing to provide sufficient documentation to meet requirements of third-party governance can result in loss of or a voiding of authorization to operate

A

Documentation review

287
Q

What is security management planning

A

Ensures proper creation implementation and enforcement of a security policy.

288
Q

What needs to be in order in order to be able to create an comprehensive security plan you need what

A
Security policy 
Standards
Baselines
Guidelines 
And 
procedures
289
Q

Security management is based on theee rules of plans

A

Strategic tatical and operational

290
Q

Key security roles are

A

Senior manager, security professional, as an owner, custodian, user and auditor

291
Q

Confidentiality integrity and availability are typically viewed as the primary goals and objectives of a security infrastructure. Which Of the following is not considered a violation of confidentiality

Stealing passwords using a key struggling tool,

eavesdropping on wireless network communications,

hardware destruction caused by arson or

social engineering that tricks to use her and she providing personal information to a false website

A

Eavesdropping on the wireless network

292
Q

What is a primary goal and objective a security

A

The CIA Triad

293
Q

James recently discovered an attack taking place against his org that prevented employees from accessing critical records. What part of the CIA was violated

A

Availability

294
Q

What is security governance

A

Security governance seeks to compare the security processes and infrastructure used within the organization with knowledge and insight obtained from external sources

295
Q

You have been tasked with crafting a long-term security plan That is fairly stable. It needs to find the organization securities purpose. It also needs to find security function in a line it to the goals, Michigan, and objectives of the organization. Why are you being asked to create

A

Strategic plan

296
Q

What is a risk associated with a. Merger

A
Inappropriate info disclosure 
Increased worker compliance 
Data loss
Downtime 
Additional insight into the motivations of inside attackers
297
Q

What is a set recommended best practices for core IT security and operational processes and

A

ITIL

298
Q

What security role has the functional responsibility for security including writing the security policy and implementing it

A

Security professional

299
Q

When confidential Documents are exposed to an authorized entities, which element of straight is used to reference that violation

A

D

Denial of service

300
Q

A development team is working on a new project. During the early stages of systems development the team considers the vulnerabilities, threats, and risks of their solution and integrates protections Against Unwanted outcomes. What concept to start modeling is this

A

Proactive approach 

301
Q

Whenever an organization work for the third party it’s supply chain risk management process it should be applied. One of the common requirements is establishment of minimum security requirements of the third-party. What should these requirements me based on

A

Existing security policy

302
Q

What is a risk centric threat modeling approach that aims at selecting or developing countermeasures in relation To the value of the assets to be projected

A

PASTA

Process for attack simulation and threaten else’s. It is a seven states threat modeling methodology

303
Q

What term relates to defense in depth

A

Layering, classifications, zones, realms, compartments, sales, segmentations, lattice structure and protection rings