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ABRET Prep 2/2 > II.K Correlation of history with EEG pa > Flashcards

II.K Correlation of history with EEG pa Flashcards

1
Q

The EEG pattern of hypsarrhythmia is usual associated withs
A) absence seizures
B) infantile spasms
C) generalized tonic-clonic seizures
D) complex partial seizures

A

infantile spasms.

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2
Q

Slow spike-and-wave complexes are characteristic of
A) juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
B) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
C) Sturge-Weber
D) absence seizures

A

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome.

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3
Q

Photic induced epileptic discharges are lost likely associated with
A) Down syndrome
B) hepatic encephalophathy
C) barbiturate withdrawal
D) meningitis

A

barbiturate withdrawal.

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4
Q

BENIGN ROLANDIC EPILEPSY
A) central-temporal spikes
B) Occipital spikes
C) Frontal spikes
D) parietal-occipital spikes

A

central-temporal spikes

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5
Q

This EEG epoch contains abnormalities which are suggestive of:
A) Begign Rolandic Epilepsy
B) Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
C) Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy
D) Stage II Sleep - Vertex Waves

A

Benign Rolandic Epilepsy

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6
Q

Which of the following would indicate the best prognosis in a comatose patient?
A) Electrographic changes indicating wakefulness and sleep
B) Spindle coma
C) Generalized suppression of the EEG
D) Generalized low amplitude delta with no background activity

A

Electrographic changes indicating wakefullness and sleep

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7
Q

The EEG of a patient with Down’s syndrome is most likely to show:
A) normal activity
B) paroxysmal fast activity
C) high amplitude delta slowing
D) slow spike and wave

A

normal activity

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8
Q

Seizures with visual hallucinations such as flashing lights are most likely to arise from the
A) parietal lobe
B) frontal lobe
C) occipital lobe
D) temporal lobe

A

occipital lobe

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9
Q

The EEG is most likely to show a hypsarrhythmia pattern in patients with:
A) West syndrome
B) Temporal lobe epilepsy
C) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
D) Absence seizures

A

West syndrome

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10
Q

The EEG of a patient in the earliest stages of Alzheimer’s disease is most likely to show:
A) 5-6 Hz background activity
B) Temporal sharp waves
C) FIRDA
D) Normal activity j

A

Normal activity

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11
Q

Occipital spikes in response to low frequency flashes are commonly seen in what conditions?
A) Batten’s disease
B) Occipital lobe epilepsy
C) Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy
D) Huntington’s disease

A

Batten’s disease

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12
Q

An underlying lesion of white matter will more likely result in
A) Suppression
B) Intermittent slowing
C) Generalized spike and wave
D) Focal slowing

A

Focal slowing

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13
Q

This patient’s seizures begin with mumbling and difficulty with speech, progress to jerking on the right side, then a generalized convulsion. What is the likely correlate?
A) Bi-PLEDS
B) Wicket spikes
C) Electrodecremental seizure
D) Complex partial seizure

A

Complex partial seizure

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14
Q

Which of the following tumors is most likely to provoke EEG abnormalities?
A) Meningioma
B) Acustic neuroma
C) Glioblastoma
D) Chordoma

A

Glioblastoma

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15
Q

An EEG pattern usually seen in toxic-metabolic encephalopathies, most commonly hepatic or renal. Usually associated with an alteration of consciousness.
A) Intermittent rhythmic delta patterns
B) Triphasic waves
C) PLEDS
D) Subtile changes in the background rhythms

A

Triphasic waves

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16
Q

If a 3-year-old girl has a febrile seizure a week prior to EEG recording, which of the following is the mist likely finding?
A) A normal record
B) Focal spikes
C) 3 Hz spike-and-wave activity
D) High voltage slowing with occasional spikes

A

A normal record

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17
Q

Creuetzfeldt-Jakob disease:
A) LPDs/PLEDs
B) multi-focal spikes
C) FIRDA
D) GPDs/GPEDS

A

GPDs/GPEDS

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18
Q

Which of the following is important to know when evaluating the background activity?
A) If hyperventilation has been performed
B) If there is a history of seizures
C) Patient’s ability to cooperate
D) Patient’s level of alertness

A

Patient’s level of alertness

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19
Q

Seizures commonly result from withdrawal of which of the following?
A) Nicotine
B) Ibuprofen
C) Antihistamine
D) Alcohol

A

Alcohol

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20
Q

Which of the following occurs during a typical absence seizure?
A) Prolonged postictal depression
B) Aura
C) Generalized tonic-clonic activity
D) Impaired consciousness

A

Impaired consciousness

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21
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is associated with:
A) Polio
B) Mononucleosis
C) HIV
D) Measles

A

Measles

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22
Q

What effects might be seen on an EEG performed on a patient with chronic alcoholism?
A) Frontal slowing
B) High amplitude beta
C) Diffuse slowing
D) Low amplitude and decreased alpha

A

Low amplitude and decreased alpha

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23
Q

The waveform morphology during the clonic phase of a GTC may present as
A) Diffuse rhythmic slowing
B) Spike and slow wave - rhythmic generalized
C) Diffuse polyspikes
D) Multifocal sharps and spikes

A

Spike and slow wave - rhythmic generlized

24
Q

MENINGITIS
A) Nuchal rigidity
B) Aphasia
C) Cortical blindness
D) Positive Babinski’s sign

A

Nuchal rigidity

25
Q

High amplitude spikes in the occipital region, time locked with a slow photic stimulus rate in young children is a characteristic of which of the following diseases?
A) Malaria Disease
B) Batten’s Disease
C) Rubella Disease
D) Pertusis Disease

A

Batten’s Disease

26
Q

The EEG is always abnormal in:
A) Herpes simplex encephalitis
B) Transient ischemic attack
C) Parkinson’s disease
D) Alzheimer’s disease

A

Herpes simplex encephalitis

27
Q

Eyelid myoclonia with absences, eye closure induced seizures, EEG paroxysms and photosensitivity:
A) Rasmussen Syndrome
B) Landau-Kleffner Syndrome
C) Jeavons Syndrome
D) Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome

A

Jeavons Syndrome

28
Q

A 60 year old male presents with new onset dementia and myoclonus. What would you expect to see on the EEG?
A) Rolandic spikes
B) Generalized periodic epileptiform discharges
C) hypsarrhythmia
D) Burst suppression

A

Generalized periodic epileptiform discharges

29
Q

Which of the following is the WORST prognostic feature in the EEG of a comatose patient
A) absence of fast activity
B) generalized irregular data
C) voltage below 40 microvolts
D) monoryhthmic tracing without variability

A

monorhythmic tracing without variability

30
Q

Landau-Kleffner Syndrome
A) Ataxia
B) Aphasia
C) Agnosia
D) Apraxia

A

Aphasia

31
Q

PLEDs are NOT typically seen in patients with
A) Acute cerebral infarct
B) Acute cerebral lesions
C) Herpes simplex encephalitis
D) Lennox-Gastaut

A

Lennox-Gastaut

32
Q

Five year old boy with previously normal development, presents with a sudden loss of language skills. EEG shows frequent epileptiform discharges during sleep. Which of the following could be considered as a potential diagnosis?
A) Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
B) Tourette Syndrome
C) Dravet Syndrome
D) Landau-Kleffner Syndrome

A

Landau-Kleffner Syndrome

33
Q

Which of the following represents a poor prognosis?
A) diffuse slowing
B) spindle coma
C) alpha coma
D) non-convulsive status

A

alpha coma

34
Q

In deepening coma, triphasic waves are most likely to
A) become unilateral
B) increase in frequency
C) become more prominent
D) disappear

A

disappear

35
Q

In the majority of patients with arterial hypertension and acute pure motor hemiplegia, an EEG will MOST likely show
A) normal activity
B) hyperventilation induced focal delta slowing
C) contralateral hemispheric polymorphic delta activity
D) frontal intermittent rhythmic delta activity

A

normal activity

36
Q

Features such as bicycling movements, kicking, throwing things, rocking; often nocturnal
A) Frontal lobe seizures
B) Occipital lobe seizures
C) parietal lobe seizures
D) Temporal lobe seizures

A

Frontal lobe seizures

37
Q

Tonic phase in GTC is characterized by:
A) Generalized voltage suppression and muscle artifact
B) Synchronous spike and wave
C) Focal polyspikes
D) Generalized delta-theta with focal spike and wave

A

Generalized voltage suppression and muscle artifact

38
Q

Which of the following infectious diseases is most frequently associated with periodic complexes in the EEG?
A) Neurosyphilis
B) Tuberculous meningitis
C) Herpes simplex encephalitis
D) Mumps encephalitis

A

Herpes simple encephalitis

39
Q

Which of the following must be ruled out as a cause of electrocerebral inactivity in the determination of brain death?
A) Hyperthermia
B) Barbiturate overdose
C) Huntington’s chorea
D) Catatonic state

A

Barbiturate overdose

40
Q

Localized or lateralized high voltage delta:
A) subarachnoid hemorrhage
B) cerebral abscess
C) alcohol withdrawal
D) subdural hematoma

A

cerebral abscess

41
Q

What is the typical EEG pattern associated with absence seizures?
A) Polyspike and wave
B) Focal spike wave
C) 3 Hz spike wave
D) 1.5 Hz spike and wave

A

3 Hz spike and wave

42
Q

The EEG of a patient with hepatic encephalopathy is most likely to show:
A) Generalized triphasic waves
B) Burst suppression pattern
C) Atypical spike and wave
D) FIRDA

A

Generalized triphasic waves

43
Q

The EEG of a patient with meningitis is most likely to show:
A) alpha coma pattern
B) triphasic waves
C) Slowing
D) temporal sharp waves

A

Slowing

44
Q

Seizure activity in which anatomical region may produce strong Deja vu and chewing automatisms?
A) Parietal
B) Occipital
C) Frontal
D) Temporal

A

Temporal

45
Q

In which of the following conditions are periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges most likely?
A) Migraine with aura
B) Herpes simplex encephalitis
C) Absence epilepsy
D) Wernicke encephalopathy

A

Herpes simplex encephalitis

46
Q

The EEG of a child with benign rolandic epilepsy is most likely to show:
A) Occipital spikes
B) 3 Hz spike and wave
C) Generalized atypical spike and wave
D) C3 spikes

A

C3 spikes

47
Q

What clinical states may cause the alpha rhythm to attenuate?
A) Attention
B) All are collect
C) Drowsiness
D) Anxiety

A

All are correct! Anxiety, Drowsiness, Attention.

48
Q

A degenerative disease characterized by dementia and “dance-like” movements:
A) Alzheimer’s disease
B) Huntington’s chorea
C) Lewy body dementia
D) Parkinson’s disease

A

Huntington’s chorea

49
Q

Very high voltage, generalized, anteriorly-predominant fast activity appearing as continuous sleep spindles that is sometimes found in patients with intellectual disability has been referred to as:
A) super spindles
B) mega spindles
C) extreme spindles
D) frontal spindles

A

extreme spindles

50
Q

Which of the following EEG patterns is characteristic of West syndrome?
A) Hypersynchrony
B) Status epilepticus
C) Hypsarrhythmia
D) Generalized spike and wave

A

Hypsarrhythmia

51
Q

Infantile spasms with developmental delay and hypsarrhythmic EEG pattern
A) West syndrome
B) Rasmussen’s syndrome
C) Subacute sclerosing pancephalitis
D) Reye’s syndrome

A

West syndrome

52
Q

An EEG obtained within 24 hours following a closed head injury would be LEAST likely to show
A) focal polymorphic delta activity
B) asymmetry of the background activity
C) focal spike activity
D) focal spike activity

A

focal spike activity

53
Q

The EEG of a patient with Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome is most likely to show:
A) Occipital spikes
B) Temporal sharp waves
C) 3 Hz spike and wave discharges
D) 1.5 Hz spike and wave discharges

A

1.5 Hz spike and wave discharge

54
Q

BURST-SUPPRESSION
A) Benign hypertension
B) Transient ischemic attack
C) Deep anesthesia
D) Rage attack

A

Deep anesthesia

55
Q

The interictal EEG of children with a history of untreated febrile seizures usually is
A) excessively fast
B) diffusely paroxysmal
C) asynchronous and slow
D) normal

A

normal

56
Q

A disease characterized by progressive dementia and periodic sharp wave complexes on the EEG is:
A) Wilson’s disease
B) Rasmussen’s encephalitis
C) Tay Sachs disease
D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

57
Q

A stroke which results in only LEFT leg weakness most likely involves which of the following arteries?
A) The RIGHT vertebral artery
B) The RIGHT posterior cerebral artery
C) The RIGHT anterior cerebral artery
D) The RIGHT posterior communication artery

A

The RIGHT anterior cerebral artery

ABRET Prep 2/2 (21 decks)

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