ii. Cardiovascular System Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

L25: What are the two main risk factors for CVD?

A
  • Smoking;

- Genetics.

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2
Q

L25: Name 3 irreversible risk factors for CVD:

A
  • Age;
  • Sex;
  • Family history.
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3
Q

L25: Name 3 reversible risk factors for CVD:

A
  • Smoking;
  • Obesity;
  • Diet;
  • Exercise;
  • Stress;
  • Hypertension;
  • Hyperlipidaemia;
  • Diabetes.
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4
Q

L25: What is primary prevention for CVD and how can this be achieved?

A

Primary prevention is a patient centred and controlled approach to prevent CVD before it becomes a problem.

This largely involves the patient’s motivation with doctor’s guidance but if they are high risk, medication will also be used.

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5
Q

L25: What is secondary prevention for CVD and how can this be achieved?

A

Secondary prevention is applied after a CV event has occurred. This still involves the methods used in primary prevention but medication will always be advised.

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6
Q

L25: Why is primary prevention often difficult to achieve?

A

It is hard to change the patient’s motivation before anything has happened as they will have an opportunistic approach to it.

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7
Q

L25: What lifestyle changes are included as prevention for CVD?

A
  • Diet, low in saturated fats etc, recommended fibre intake (30g), lower sugar intake;
  • Exercise;
  • Smoking cessation;
  • Reduced alcohol intake.
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8
Q

L25: What medication is used to control total blood cholesterol?

A

Statins

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9
Q

L25: What is the target to reduce blood cholesterol to?

A

< 5.0mmol/L or 25%

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10
Q

L25: What is the target to reduce blood pressure to?

A

<140/85

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11
Q

L25: When are anti platelets (e.g. aspirin) prescribed to prevent CV events?

A
  • When CVD is identified;

- When a pt is HIGH risk but with no identified disease.

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12
Q

L25: What 4 classes of drugs are used to prevent further CVD?

A
  • Anti platelet drugs;
  • Lipid lowering drugs;
  • Anti-arrhytmics;
  • Anticoagulants.
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13
Q

L25: What 5 classes of drugs are used to reduce symptoms of current CVD?

A
  • Diuretics;
  • Anti-arrythmics;
  • Nitrates;
  • Calcium channel blockers;
  • ACE inhibitors.
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14
Q

L25: How do antiplatelet drugs work to reduce the risk of a CV event?

A
  • Prevent platelets from aggregating/ sticking to artery walls;
  • Irreversible effect so will work on platelets whilst in circulation, until they are replaced;
  • Effects are additive (e.g. aspirin and clopidogrel are more effective than aspirin alone).
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15
Q

L25: What is the major consideration/ risk in a dental surgery to anti platelet pts?

A

Larger risks of bleeding

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16
Q

L25: Give 2 examples of anti platelet drugs:

A
  • Aspirin;

- Clopidogrel.

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17
Q

L25: How do anticoagulant drugs work to reduce the risk of a CV event?

A
  • Reduce the efficiency of the coagulation cascade, i.e. reduce clot formation;
  • Prevent embolisms (clot in leg, thrombosis, being fired up to lungs or heart.
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18
Q

L25: How does warfarin work?

A
  • Inhibits synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors;
  • 2, 7, 9 and 10;
  • Protein C and S.
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19
Q

L25: What is the quick effect warfarin has and how is this counteracted?

A
  • Acts on proteins C and S which initially become hyper coagulating;
  • Heparin used concurrently for the first few days.
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20
Q

L25: How long do the effects (for patient to become anticoagulating) of warfarin take to set in?

A

2-3 days

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21
Q

L25: What are the common suffixes for anti coagulant drug names?

A

-in, -an

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22
Q

L25: Give 2 examples of anticoagulant drugs:

A
  • Warfarin;

- Rivaroxiban.

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23
Q

L25: How are warfarinised pts monitored?

A

Use of INR

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24
Q

L25: What does an INR of 2-4 tell you about a pt?

A
  • INR good;

- Warfarin working as wanted.

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25
L25: What does an INR of >4 tell you about a pt?
Pt at risk of bleed
26
L25: What does an INR of <2 tell you about a pt?
Pt at risk of clot
27
L25: Why must warfarinised pts be monitored regularly?
- INR susceptible to change; | - Food/ drug interaction.
28
L25: How do lipid lowering drugs work? (statins)
- Block reductase inhibitors; - Inhibit cholesterol synthesis in the liver; - Reduces cholesterol in the blood; - Prevents further atherosclerosis.
29
L25: What medications used in dentistry should not be used with statins?
Fluconazole (antifungal)
30
L25: What are B-blockers used for?
- Reduces heart muscle excitation; - Prevents increase in heart rate; - Prevent arrhythmias leading to cardiac arrest (VF).
31
L25: Which receptors do B-blockers target in the heart?
B1
32
L25: What is the common suffix for B-blocker drug names?
-olol
33
L25: Name a selective (B1 only), B-blocker?
Atenolol
34
L25: Name a non-selective (B1 and B2), B-blocker?
Propanolol
35
L25: What other receptors can non-selective B-blockers effect?
- B2, lungs (increased risk of asthma!); | - B2, brain (reduces anxiety).
36
L25: What are diuretics used for in CVD?
- Increase salt and water losses; - Reduce plasma volume; - Reduce bp; - Reduce cardiac workload.
37
L25: What are the two main types of diuretics used and give examples?
- Thiazide diuretics (bendroflumethiazide); | - Loop diuretics (frusemide).
38
L25: What are potential side effects of diuretics?
- Can lead to electrolyte imbalance; | - Can lead to dry mouth.
39
L25: Which part of a nephron do thiazide diuretics work on?
Distal tubule
40
L25: Which part of a nephron do loop diuretics work on?
Thick ascending limb
41
L25: What are nitrates used for in CVD?
- Dilate arteries; - Pressure reduces; - Reduces cardiac workload; - Reduces cardiac oxygen consumption; - Different ones for short or long term relief.
42
L25: Name a short acting nitrate drug and state what it is used for:
Glycery Trinitrate (GTN) spray, used to relieve angina pain
43
L25: Name a long acting nitrate drug and state what it is used for:
Isosorbide Mononitrate, prevention of angina pectoris
44
L25: How are nitrates administered?
- Sublingual; - Transdermal; - IV. (inactivated by first pass metabolism)
45
L25: What is the common suffix for calcium channel blocker drug names? Give two examples.
- -pine; - Nifedipine; - Amlodipine.
46
L25: How do calcium channel blockers work?
- Block calcium channels in smooth muscle; | - Relaxation and dilation of blood vessels.
47
L25: Name a calcium channel blocker that is active on heart muscle?
Verapamil, slows conduction of pacing impulses
48
L25: What is a common dental side effect of calcium channel blockers?
Gingival hyperplasia
49
L25: What is the common suffix for ACE inhibitor drug names? Give two examples.
- -pril; - Ramapril; - Lisonopril.
50
L25: How do ACE inhibitors work?
- Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitors; - Inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to II; - Prevents aldosterone dependent reabsorption of salt and water; - Reduce bp.
51
L25: What is a common dental side effect of ACE inhibitors?
- Angio-oedema; | - Lichenoid reaction.
52
L51: What is infective endocarditis?
- Infection of the endocardium (inner most layer of tissue of the heart, lines the chambers); - Microbial colonisation of thrombi on endocardial surface abnormalities; - Bacteria from bloodstream (often oral origin); - Usually originates (and causes most damage to) on the valves.
53
L51: What is the main microorganism associated with infective endocarditis?
Viridans streptcocci
54
L51: What is Rheumatic fever?
An autoimmune inflammatory disease, triggered by a throat infection, that can involve the heart, joints, skin, and brain
55
L51: What is Rheumatic heart disease?
A condition in which the heart valves have been permanently damaged by rheumatic fever (usually a mitral valve)
56
L51: How does infective endocarditis arise?
- Surface abnormalities on valves/ endocardium; - Lead to haemodynamic changes (change in flow); - Turbulence; - This causes platelet/ fibrin deposition (thrombus); - Thrombus could then become colonised by bacteria from the blood stream, leading to a vegetation; - This can enlarge and cause damage to the tissue, bacteria can spread to endocardium.
57
L51: What are typical signs and symptoms of infective endocarditis?
- Many experience 'flu-like' symptoms; - Fever; - Heart murmur; - Splinter hemorrhages (under finger nails); - Splenomegaly. [can take up to six weeks to develop - hard to link to dentistry sometimes]
58
L51: How is infective endocarditis treated?
- IV antibiotics; - Combination of drugs; - Permanent valve damage, sometimes need replaces; - High risk of death (50%).
59
L51: Who should receive antibiotic prophylaxis, i.e. are considered high-risk (2006 BSAC guidelines)?
- Valve replacement patients; - Patients who have pulmonary shunts/ congenital heart problem; - Patients who have previously had infective endocarditis. [receiving any dental tx involving the dento-gingival junction, bacteraemia!]
60
L51: Why did NICE guidelines (2008) suggest that AB prophylaxis was not necessary for any patients? (still v similar but with 'routinely' added to guidelines)
- Not enough sufficient evidence of its benefit; - Bacteraemia load should be minimised where possible (to reduce IE risk), to keep bacterial load similar to that of what enters the blood after brushing/ eating etc.; - Risks of adverse antibiotic reaction.
61
L51: What advice should be given to reduce risk of IE, day-to-day?
- Attendance for oral care; - Rapid management of infection; - Maximal OH and prevention; - Avoid risk activity: piercings.
62
L51: What are the current guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis (SDCEP)?
- Risk assessed by dentist via patient's medical history; - Decision made by patient and physician, communicated to dentist in writing; - Patients must be aware of risks of allergy v IE; - AB prophylaxis will be given for procedures likey to produce a significant bacteraemia (manipulation of dents-gingival junction).
63
L51: What is the drug regime for AB prophylaxis (SDCEP)?
- 3g oral amoxycillin, 1 hour before procedure, in the dental practice (incase of anaphylaxis); - IF penicillin allergy: 1.5g clindamycin.