IHD EXAM QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Peptic ulcer symptoms

A

Haematemesis
Epigastric pain which can radiate to the back
Dysphagia

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2
Q

Complications of a peptic ulcer

A

Perforations
Bleeding (haematemesis)
Gastric cancer
Weight loss due to dysphagia

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3
Q

How can H. Pylori survive in the stomach and cause ulcers?

A

Produces urease which converts urea into ammonia and CO2. Travels through to stomach protected by ‘cloud’ of urease

  • survives in mucin layer of stomach
  • here it causes rupture to endothelial cells, leading to ulceration of lining of the stomach
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4
Q

Causes of facial palsy

A

oIDIOPATHIC – BELLS PALSY
oINFECTION – TB, RAMSAY HUNT SYNDROME, GLANDULAR FEVER AND AIDS
oTRAUMA – FACIAL LACERATION AND POST PAROTID SURGERY
oNEOPLASTIC – PRIMARY OR SECONDARY CANCER, NEUROMA OF THE FACIAL NERVE AND ACOUSTIC NEUROMA
oMETABOLIC – DIABETES, PREGNANCY, SARCOIDOSIS AND GUILLAIN-BARRE SYNDROME
oIATROGENIC – LA INJECTION

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5
Q

Difference between UMN and LMN

A

oUPPER MOTOR NEURONE IS ABOVE ANTERIOR HORN CELL

oLOWER MOTOR NEURONE INDICATES IS EITHER IN ANTERIOR HORN CELL OR DISTAL TO ANTERIOR HORN CELL

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6
Q

Vesicles on external auditory meatus and treatment

A

oOCCURS IN RAMSAY HUNT SYNDROME (HERPES ZOSTER OTALGIA)
oTHE GENICULATE GANGLION OF FACIAL NERVE INFECTED WITH HERPES ZOSTER
oTREATMENT: ACYCLOVIR

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7
Q

TREATMENT FOR RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

A

o DMARDS e.g. methotrexate
o NSAIDS – anti-inflammatory and analgesic
o Steroids – anti-inflammatory e.g. prednisolone
o Biological drugs e.g. anti-TNF agents

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8
Q

SYSTEMIC MANIFESTATIONS OF RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

A

o LUNGS – LUNG FIBROSIS, NODULES, PLEURAL EFFUSIONS
o CARDIOVASCULAR – PERICARDIAL INFLAMMATION< MYOCARDITIS AND VALVE INFLAMMATION
o RENAL – AMYLOIDOSIS
o LIVER – HEPATIC IMPAIRMENT
o SKIN – PALMAR ERYTHEMA AND SUBCUTANEOUS RHEUMATOID NODULES

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9
Q

TREATMENT WHILST WAITING FOR AMBULANCE MI

A

300mg oral aspirin - chew and swallow
Oxygen/ nitric oxide 50/50 ratio - inhaled
GTN spray sublingually, can repeat after 10 mins

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10
Q

Tests for MI

A

Angiogram (USS)
Myocardial perfusion scan
Blood test for raised troponin
Elevated ST indicates STEMI MI

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11
Q

Why does pt have to wee more in diabetes type ii?

A

o HIGHER GLUCOSE CONCENTRATION IN BLOOD
o SO MORE IS EXCRETED AS CANNOT BE ABSORBED
o WATER MOVES OUT WITH GLUCOSE INTO NEPHRON DOWN THE OSMOTIC GRADIENT
o AS MORE WATER IS REMOVED, THERE IS AN INCREASED RATE OF URINARY EXCRETION

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12
Q

4 meds GP could prescribe for type ii diabetes

A
o	METFORMIN (BIGUANIDE)
o	GLICLAZIDE (SULFONYLUREA)
o	INSULIN
o	STATINS
o	ANTIHYPERTENSIVES
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13
Q

Long term complications of diabetes type ii

A
o	MACROVASCULAR 
	STROKE
	MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION
	PERIPHERAL VASCULAR DISEASE
o	MICROVASCULAR DISEASE
	DIABETIC RETINOPATHY
	DIABETIC NEUROPATHY
	DIABETIC NEPHROPATHY
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14
Q

Why is haemostasis impaired in liver disease?

A

o LIVER PRODUCES CLOTTING FACTORS
o HYPERSPLENISM: IN PORTAL HYPERTENSION (IN CLD), THERE IS BACKLOG OF PRESSURE INTO SPLENIC VEIN. AS A RESULT SPLEEN ENLARGES, REDUCING NUMBER OF PLATELETS AND WBCS. THIS LEADS TO THROMBOCYTOPENIA (INCREASED RISK OF BLEEDING), AND NEUTROPENIA (SO PERSON IS MORE SUSCEPTIBLE TO INFECTION)

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15
Q

5 things you can do in dental practice to stop haemorrhage after XLA and standard measures

A

o TRANEXAMIC ACID MOUTHRINSE 5% 5ML, 5-10 MINS POST-OP, QDS, KEEP IN MOUTH FOR 2 MINS THEN SPIT FOR 5 DAYS
o IF BLEEDING, HORIZONTAL MATTRESS SUTURE
o OXIDISED CELLULOSE
o GAUZE, BITE DOWN ON IT
o GELATIN SPONGE
o CLOTTING FACTOR CONCENTRATE
o CRYSTALLOID

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16
Q

Causes of hepatic cancer

A
Smoking
Alcohol
Diabetes
Hypertension
Hyperlipidaemia
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17
Q

5 investigations for kidney

A

o GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE: MEASURING INSULIN CLEARANCE AND CREATININE LEVELS
o FULL BLOOD COUNT – UREA, CREATININE
o URINE ANALYSIS FOR PROTEINURIA AND HAEMATURIA
o CT/ ULTRASOUND
o RENAL BIOPSY

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18
Q

Calcium metabolism and kidney disease

A

o LESS CA2+ REABSORPTION IN KIDNEYS SO LOWER CALCIUM IN BLOOD
o REDUCED PRODUCTION OF VITAMIN D, SO LOWER PRODUCTION OF CALCITRIOL. THEREFORE LOWER INTESTINAL ABSORPTION OF CALCIUM. PTH PRODUCTION INCREASES TO COMPENSATE FOR LACK OF CALCITRIOL. INCREASED PTH PRODUCTION LEADS TO INCREASED BONE RESORPTION.

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19
Q

Cyclosporine after transplant - which antibiotic can you not prescribe and why

A

o ERYTHROMYCIN IS CONTRA-INDICATED WHEN PT HAS RENAL TRANSPLANT AND TAKING CYCLOSPORIN AS ITS METABOLISM IS REDUCED LEADING TO INCREASING TOXICITY
o ERYTHROMYCIN INACTIVATES CYP3A, WHICH PROCESSES MANY DRUGS. CYCLOSPORIN PROCESSED BY CYP3A. AS IT IS INHIBITED, CYCLOSPORIN CAN’T BE BROKEN DOWN THEREFORE REACHES TOXICITY.

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20
Q

Reasons for taking bisphosphonates

A

o OSTEOPOROSIS
o PAGETS DISEASE
o BONE METASTASIS
oHYPERPARATHYROIDISM

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21
Q

MRONJ tx pathway

A

o CHLORHEXIDINE MOUTHWASH
o DEBRIDEMENT – REMOVE SHARP BONY EDGES AND GRANULOMATOUS TISSUE ETC. – CULTURE AND CHECK FOR ACTINOMYCES
o ORAL HEALTH EDUCATION
o ANTIBIOTICS IF INFECTED
o SUTURE AFTER XLA TO GET MUCOSAL COVERAGE
o POTENTIAL DRUG HOLIDAY IF THEY’RE ON BISPHOSPHONATE – NOT FOR MALIGNANCY
o KEEP REVIEWING PT

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22
Q

Gonorrhoea virulence factors

A

o PILI – ATTACHMENT
o OPA OUTER MEMBRANE PROTEINS FOR ADHESION AND PREVENTS IMMUNE RESPONSES
o LIPOOLIGOSACCHARIDES – HOST MIMICRY
o PORIN B PROTEINS – BACTERIAL INVASION
o IGA PROTEASES – ALTERS LYSOSOMAL ENZYMES

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23
Q

Action of penicillin

A

o B LACTAM
o INHIBITS CROSS LINKAGES OF PEPTIDOGLYCAN
o THIS PREVENTS CELL WALL FORMATION

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24
Q

Organism likely to cause pneumonia in pt with HIV

A

o PNEUMOCYSTIS JIROVECI

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25
Q

BVV defining features

A
  • WELL DEFINED, PEARLY EDGE, MAY CRUST THEN APPEAR TO REGRESS, SLOW GROWING
  • SURGERY (4MM MARGIN)
  • RADIOTHERAPY
  • IMIQUIMOID (IMMUNE STIMULATION)
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26
Q

Which sites are appropriate for pulse oximetry?

A

Fingers
Toes
Ear lobes
Bridge of nose

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27
Q

What percentage of the diagnostic pyramid is made up by special investigations?

A

5%

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28
Q

List 5 tests that can be carried out in the lab to aid diagnosis/ study of anaerobes.

A
  • Gram stain
  • Spore stain
  • Sensitivity to metronidazole
  • Sugar fermentation
  • Toxin production
  • Gas- liquid chromatography
  • RNA sequencing
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29
Q

Molar tooth colonies when culturing produced by which species

A

Actinomyces

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30
Q

Why can actinomyces often present at angle of the mandible?

A

Associated with traumatic extraction of lower 8s

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31
Q

Properties of S. pyogenes

A

Lancefield A - beta-haemolytic
Gram positive
Facultative anaerobe
Catalase negative

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32
Q

Which HHV is described as have slow growth primarily in T cells and lymphocytes, and which viruses belong to this classification?

A

Beta herpesvirus

Cytomegalovirus and HHV7

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33
Q

A typical CSF change in an individual who has developed bacterial meningitis is:

A

Elevated protein

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34
Q

What beneficial activity can commensals in the GI tract do

A

a) They can degrade toxins we are unable to degrade ourselves
b) They can help us absorb vitamins
c) They stimulate the immune system to keep it on top form

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35
Q

Antimicrobial action of metronidazole

A

Interference with nucleic acid synthesis or function

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36
Q

What is the treatment of paracetamol overdose and by what mechanism does it work?

A

N-acetyl-cysteine donates cysteine for synthesis of glutathione

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37
Q

What is the max time after paracetamol overdose for minimal liver damage?

A

Within 12 hours

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38
Q

Name 3 medications that increase the plasma concentration and effect of
warfarin?

A

Erythromycin
Miconazole
Metronidazole

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39
Q

What does a high Vd (volume of distribution) mean?

A

Drug highly bound to cell plasma

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40
Q

What is the bioavailability of a drug?

A

The ‘bioavailability’ of a drug is the fraction of a dose reaching the systemic circulation
after oral dosing. Determined by: Absorption/ FP metabolism

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41
Q

How can we reduce the risk of adverse effects of drugs on a patient?

A

a. Never use a drug unless indicated
b. Use as few drugs as possible, therefore limiting interactions
c. Check for any allergies
d. Check the patient isn’t taking any other medication (including OTC drugs)

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42
Q

How do NSAIDs work, why do they cause so many side effects and what are common side effects?

A

a. They work by blocking the COX enzyme, which prevents prostaglandin synthesis
b. However, since COX enzymes (especially COX-1) are found throughout the
body, there are a huge range of side effects
c. Side effects include, commonly, GI disturbance, indigestion and diarrhoea –
HENCE PRESCRIPTION OF A PPI. As well as oedema, dizziness, renal failure, heart failure.

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43
Q

Side effects of gabapentin

A

Drowsiness
Parasthesia
Ataxia

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44
Q

Erythromycin class

A

Macrolide

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45
Q

Name 3 ways in which antimicrobial resistance occurs:

A
 Target is structurally altered (mutation)
 The target is overproduced
 The drug is not activated
 The drug is removed
 The drug cant gain entry to the cell
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46
Q

What is the definition of antibiotic resistance?

A

An organism that is not inhibited or killed by an antibacterial agent at concentrations of
the drug achievable in the body after normal dosage.`

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47
Q

Aminoglycoside action

A

b. Not effective against anaerobes
c. Contain an aminocyclitol ring linked to sugar
d. Requires oxygen for bacterial uptake

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48
Q

List and describe the basic components of a cardiovascular examination.

A

Pulse, (rate/rhythm/character), Blood pressure, JVP, (if increased then likely right
sided heart failure), Peripheral and pitting oedema, Auscultation, Finger nails (for
evidence of infective endocarditis)

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49
Q

A 65 year old male patient attends your practice. He had a myocardial infarction two
months prior but his angina is now controlled with several medications; he also has a
metal heart valve. You notice a new carious lesion in the UR4 and the LL6 is heavily
broken down and requires extraction. How would you manage this patient and what
precautions would you take?

A

Avoid any treatment for at least 6 months after an MI. Care should be taken when
the patient returns for treatment with local anaesthetics and the cardiac effects of
adrenaline; either limit to 2 cartridges or use prilocaine with felypressin. Care should
also be taken as the patient is at risk of infective endocarditis and he should be
warned to be wary of this, but not given prophylactic antibiotics. When extracting
the LL6 care should be taken as the patient is likely to be on oral anticoagulants
such as warfarin so an INR check will be needed and must be between 2-4.

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50
Q

A gentleman has been diagnosed with chronic ischaemic valve disease and valvular
stenosis. Please discuss possible future treatment and management of this patient.

A
  • Management of lifestyle- reducing salt to reduce associated BP problems,
  • Reduce saturated fats to reduce ischemic heart disease from advancing.
  • Slowly increasing exercise regime.
  • Drugs- e.g. diuretics/ACE inhibitors/angiotensin receptor antagonist all possible to
    reduce blood pressure.
  • Warfarin- reduce chance of blood clotting and thrombosis forming
  • Digoxin- slows down the heart rate and strengthens the beat. allowing more
    efficient pumping.
  • GTN spray for possible angina attacks
  • Future surgery- coronary bypass surgery, valvular replacement, pacemaker fitted
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51
Q

Why should an aspirating technique be used when giving a patient with AF and IAN
block

A

Aspiration insures not injecting into a blood vessel.
if LA contains adrenaline can have systemic effects on the heart
Increase the force of contraction, and the rate of the heart.
Potentiate any existing heart diseases or even cause AF, increase in BP.

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52
Q

accurate description of Type II respiratory failure

A

A resulting from an inability to exchange gases at the alveoli, resulting in metabolic acidosis
due to retained CO2, resulting in warm extremities. A common cause would be cerebral
hemorrhage.

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53
Q

What produces pink frothy sputum?

A

Pulmonary oedema

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54
Q

Methylxanthamines are a type of bronchodilator used in the treatment of asthma. By
which process does it achieve this?

A

Inhibition of phosphdiesterase

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55
Q

Causes of community acquired pneumonia

A

M. catarrhalis
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae

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56
Q

Different treatments for atopic asthma and their action

A

Steroids (1) - have an anti-inflammatory effect, reducing the inflammatory response
by binding to receptors (1)
Mast cell stabilizers (1) - prevent the release of histamine (1)
β 2 -receptor agonists (1) -act onadrenergic receptors causing dilation of bronchioles
(1)
Avoiding the antigen (1)

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57
Q

What is emphysema?

A

Anatomical enlargement of airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles (1) with
destruction of elastin in walls (1)

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58
Q

What does S. pneumoniae cause?

A

Pneumonia
Otitis media
Sinusitis
Meningitis

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59
Q

What special investigations would you take if pneumonia was suspected?

A
  • Full blood count
  • Chest Xray
  • Oximetry
  • Sputum Test
  • Bronchoscopy
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60
Q

Which bacterium requires factor V and X?

A

Gram negative H. influenzae

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61
Q

Name a muscarinic inhibitor

A

Tiotropium

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62
Q

List the adjunct therapies available when treating asthma.

A

Leukotriene antagonists
Cromones
Anti-Ig therapy

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63
Q

Outline how is asthma treated, progressing from mild to severe cases. How does
this compare to the treatment of COPD?

A
As severity increases more drugs are added.
Asthma:
-SABA
-SABA + ICS
-SABA + ICS + LABA
-SABA + ICS + LABA + 4 th drug
COPD:
-SABA
-SABA + LABA
-SABA + LABA+ ICS
-SABA + LABA+ ICS + LAMA
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64
Q

A patient suffers from loss of vision. You did an examination of the patient. What
other questions would you ask regarding character of the vision loss?

A

Transient or continuous
Profound or mild
Rapid or slow onset
Central or
peripheral
One or both eyes
Affecting colour, contrast, night vision.

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65
Q

A chalazion is:

A

granuloma affecting meibomian gland

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66
Q

Main component of Hep B vaccine

A

Genetically engineered HBsAg

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67
Q

How is Hep C treated?

A

Interferon alpha and ribavirin

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68
Q

Kidney functions

A
Salt and water homeostasis
Excretion of waste products
Selectivity barrier
Humoral balance
-vit D processing
-erythropoeitin production
-renin productin (regulates blood pressure)
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69
Q

Campylobacter spp. leads to

A

Diarrhoea
Ulceration of jejenum
Reactive arthritis
Guillaime-Barre syndrome (muscular weakness)
(it is gram negative and symptoms last up to 3 weeks)

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70
Q

Name 3 important patient variables to consider in your pre-anaesthesia assessment.

A

Age, sex, fitness, diagnosis of ischaemic heart disease/heart failure/brain
disease/kidney failure.

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71
Q

What can you advise patients to take once local anaesthesia wears off?

A

Generally paracetamol plus an NSAID. “What they take for a headache” is usually
sufficient.

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72
Q

What are the 5 primary survey steps in Advanced Trauma Life Support?

A
A:Airwaymaintenance +C-spineprotection
B:Breathing&amp; Ventilation
C:Circulation&amp; Haemorrhage control
D:Disability– Neuro
E:Exposure/ Environment control
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73
Q

A 20 year old pedestrian has just been knocked over by a car at speed, you are first
to their aid. The pedestrian is conscious but pale, restless and sweating, there is no
evidence of blood loss.
a) Could you suspect haemorrhagic shock and why? (1 mark)
b) You manage to take their blood pressure and this is normal, would this change what
you initially suspected? (1 mark)
c) In this situation, what sign is a good indicator of haemorrhagic shock? (1 mark)

A

A) Yes, there maybe internal trauma: NB abdominal/retroperitoneal/intrathoracic blood loss
B) No: A fall in BP is alatesign of haemorrhagic shock - especially in young people.
C) Tachycardia: especially if sustained and prolonged

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74
Q

How does general anaesthesia work?

A
Neuronal membrane deformation
• Inhibit neurotransmission
Specific receptor blockers
• GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter)
• Glycine (inhibitory neurotransmitter)
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75
Q

Which medical diseases may influence the type of general anaesthesia used?

A
Cardiovascular (GA effect = depression)
Respiratory (GA effect = depression)
Cerebral
Renal (no issue with inhalational)
Hepatic
Diabetes
- Danger is Unrecognised hypoglycaemia under GA
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76
Q

How does local anaesthesia work?

A

Prevent conduction of impulses by nerve fibres
Un-ionised fraction diffuses in setting up a concentration gradient for ionised form to
diffuse in
Resting potential of nerve is -60mV to -90mV
In the nerve, as the [LA] rises, Rate of depolarisation falls and nerve conduction slows
Inhibits influx of sodium through voltage gated ion channels, preventing action potential.

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77
Q

What is the combination used for induction chemotherapy?

A

Cisplatin, 5FU, Docetaxel

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78
Q

List the possible risk factors for the occurrence of Head & Neck Cancers.

A

Smoking
Alcohol
Diet and Nutrition
Viruses - Human Papillomavirus or Epstein Barr Virus
Immunosuppression
Premalignant oral conditions - Leukoplakia, Lichen sclerosis Radiotherapy exposure

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79
Q

What is the average energy of a photon used in the radiotherapeutical treatment
of Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A

100kPa

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80
Q

Name a H&N cancer that is also a cancer of the skin

A

Merkel Cell Tumour

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81
Q

Prognostic marker for melanoma

A

BRAF mutation

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82
Q

A 65 year old patient presents with large tense blisters and itchy rash. He also has
blisters in the mouth. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Pemphigoid

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83
Q

Which immunoglobulin is associated with the dermatological disorders
pemphigoid and pemphigus?

A

IgG

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84
Q

What medication cannot be used in pregnancy

A

Miconazole

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85
Q

A female patient walks into your clinic. She informs you she is on her second
trimester. What can you infer about her respiratory output?

A

Increased pO2
RR unchanged
Tidal volume increased
Alkalosis

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86
Q

Side effects of lithium

A

Tremor
Thirst
Hypothyroidism

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87
Q

What does chlorpromazine do

A

Antipsychotic (schizophrenia)

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88
Q

What is given to patients on methotrexate to prevent mouth ulcers as a side effect?

A

Folate

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89
Q

Cytology can be used to safely diagnose pathology in the thyroid gland. However
this test is unable to differentiate between the malignant and benign type of which of
the following potential thyroid gland lesions?

A

Follicular

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90
Q

A patient presents with central weight gain, acne, and purple striae in the abdomen
area.
a) What do you suspect the patient has?
b) What tests would you send them for?

A

a - Cushing’s Syndrome
b - Hormonal tests of cortisol – (dynamic suppression tests – where you attempt to
suppress the cortisol level, if not suppressed then there is a problem. Also measure ACTH
and if it is decreased then the problem is in the adrenal glands, if it is increased the
problem is in the pituitary). If hormonal tests are abnormal then you send for radiological
analysis.
Increase in ACTH = send for MRI of pituitary.
Decrease in ACTH = send for CT of adrenals.

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91
Q

What does sulphonylurea do?

A

Blocks K+ entry into beta cells, leading to membrane
depolarisation. This leads to Ca2+ influx, causing
secretion of insulin from pancreatic b cells

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92
Q

What does metformin do?

A

Increases cellular insulin sensitivity so increases
uptake of glucose into cells. Decreases glucose
reabsorption in the intestines. Decreases liver
production of glucose.

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93
Q

Which STI increases your likelihood of contracting HIV by 5 times?

A

Gonorrhoea

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94
Q

List 3 strong associations of chlamydia infection in men

A
  • Acute epididymitis
  • Prostatitis
  • Infertility
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95
Q

List the different stages of syphilis, giving a brief summary of each stage

A
  • Primary stage: Marked by appearance of single chancre (but can be multiple) which
    lasts for 3-6 weeks and heals without treatment
  • Secondary stage: Characterised by non-itchy skin/mucous membrane rash. Other
    symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, sore throat, patchy hair loss, headaches,
    weight loss, muscle aches and fatigue. All resolve without treatment.
  • Latent stage: No signs/symptoms. Disease damages internal organs
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96
Q

Name 3 cardiovascular complications of haemodialysis and

CAPD?

A

K related arrhythmias
Hypertension
Cardiac valvular complications

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97
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with a UTI - there is no change when the sample is
cultured on MacConkey agar. On a microscope slide purple groups of cocci can be
seen. When the organism is added to a blood sample, the blood does not coagulate. In
a sensitivity test the organism is resistant to novobiocin. What organism has cause
this UTI?

A

Staph. saprophyticus

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98
Q

What type of treatment is there for mild/moderate renal failure?

A

 Diet (restrict things such as potassium and phosphate in the diet because the kidney
cannot get rid of them)
 Supplements- Alkali, Vitamin D and Iron
 Drugs- Phosphate, hypertension and anaemia

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99
Q

4) A patient attends your clinic during the history taking they inform you that they
suffer from Addison’s disease and are taking 20mg Hydrocortisone daily.
a) What is Addison’s disease?
b) They require an extraction, why is their history important?

A

a - An autoimmune condition causing primary adrenal insufficiency. It disrupts the
production of aldosterone and cortisol.
b - They are at risk from adrenal insufficiency (can lead to cardiovascular collapse).
- Need to double dose of hydrocortisone one hour before the extraction and then
double the oral dose for 24 hours after.

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100
Q

Choose the correct answer.
CRM 5 year survival
rate

Local
recurrence
A + 10% 75%
B + 20% 85%
C - 75% 20%
D - 85% 10%
A

B

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101
Q

What stages does the epithelium of the colon go through to develop into a
serious GI condition?

A

Normal epithelium > Adenoma > Colorectal adenocarcinoma > Metastatic colorectal
adenocarcinoma

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102
Q

What is the 5 year survival rate of a 42 year old female with oesphageal cancer 5
years after diagnoses?

A

18%

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103
Q

Nephritic vs nephrotic

A

Nephritic: haematuria
Nephrotic: proteinuria

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104
Q

Why can’t you give a pt with renal impairment NSAIDs?

A

not cleared/increased bleeding – inhibiting prostaglandins may lead to kidney failure

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105
Q

Side effects of gentamicin

A

Hearing loss

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106
Q

H. influenzae vaccine

A

Hib type B combination vaccine

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107
Q

Causes of diarrhoea with blood

A

E. coli
Salmonella
Shigella
Campylobacter

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108
Q

Liver functions

A
Bile production
Immune functions
-fighting infections
-RE system
Regulation of glycogen metabolism
Detoxification of drugs, hormones, waste products
Energy storage (fat, glycogen)
ability to Regenerate 
Synthesis of fats, enzymes, proteins (albumin), coagulation factors
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109
Q

What type of vaccine is Hib

A

Recombinant polysaccharide conjugate vaccine

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110
Q

Nappy rash is caused by

-treated by

A

Strep pyogenes?

-if strep pyogenes, would be treated by penicillin

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111
Q

Rust coloured sputum

A

Pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, lung cancer, pulmonary TB

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112
Q

Purpura rash, CSF= neutrophils, high protein, low

glucose, gram-ve diplococci

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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113
Q

CD4/CD8 levels test in HIV?

A

Flow cytometry

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114
Q

Symptoms of uraemia

A
Vomitting 
Confusion
Nausea
Pruritis
Fatigue
Weight loss/ anorexia
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115
Q

Side effects of tricyclic antidepressants

A

Dry mouth
Blurred vision
Sweating
Dizziness

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116
Q

Pt has been on dialysis that day and has bled more during

on extraction why is this?

A

Heparinisation

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117
Q

Pt has TB which drugs?

-vaccine

A

Rifampicin and isoniazide for 6 months
Pyrazinamide and ethambutol for 2 months
BCG vaccine

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118
Q

Pt had haemoptysis, upper lesions on CXR weight loss

which bacteria caused this?

A

TB

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119
Q

How does grapefruit juice influence drugs

A

Grapefruit juice is a CYP450 inhibitor so drugs that are metabolised by this enzyme cannot be and levels rise potentially to toxic levels in blood

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120
Q

Neck lump that gets worse with alcohol

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

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121
Q

Asthma mechanism

A
  • Hypersensitivity reaction type 1
  • IgE mediated, rapid onset, if higher levels of IgE then more susceptible
  • Allergen binds to specific IgE on mast cells causing cross linking of IgE bound receptors
  • Degranulation of mast cells with release of inflammatory mediators and histamine
  • Histamine release causes bronchoconstriction, mucosal inflammation, mucous hypersecretion
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122
Q

3 medications for asthma and how they work

A
  • Short acting bronchodilators stimulate beta adrenoreceptors to increase cAMP, leading to increased Ca2+, producing bronchodilation of smooth muscle of airways
  • Anticholinergics produce bronchodilation by blocking bronchoconstriction effect of vagal nerve stimulation on smooth muscle (muscarinic receptors M1-M3) e.g. ipratropium bromide
  • Inhaled corticosteroids (beclomethasone) bind to cytosolic glucocorticoid receptor to reduce cytokines
  • Disodium chromoglycate (mast cell stabiliser) prevents mast cells from granulating when antigen binds to specific IgE
  • long acting beta 2 agonists can increase glucocorticoid receptor availability and have high selectivity for b2 adrenoreceptor in smooth muscle (pulmonary tissue)
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123
Q

Dental considerations for patient with asthma

A
  • Ensure they have their bronchodilator on them
  • Keep them calm, relaxed
  • Ask if they’ve ever been admitted to ITU – how serious is it
  • What triggers the asthma – avoid allergen
  • Oral candidiasis from steroid inhaler use
  • Prepare for emergency attack
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124
Q

4 risk factors for stroke

A

Diabetes, atrial fibrillation, hyperlipiaemia (high cholesterol), hypertension, obesity, smoking, family history

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125
Q

3 mechanisms of a stroke

A

Transient ischaemic attack due to ischaemic either due to occlusion of vessel due to atherosclerosis e.g. in the internal carotid artery
Thrombotic due to emboli from proximal sources e.g. in atrial fibrillation
Haemorrhagic (haemorrage in brain) - high blood pressure can lead to aneurysms –> cerebral haemorrhage

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126
Q

What tests would you carry out for a stroke

A

Cerebral CT scan
Blood scan looking for clotting factors etc.
ECG

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127
Q

What is a transient ischaemic attack

A

Interruption of
blood to the brain which resolves within 24 hours. Stroke like
symptoms.

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128
Q

6 symptoms of Parkinsons

A
Tremor
Rigidity
Bradykinesia
Shuffling gait
Loss of facial expression
Weak voice 
Constipation
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129
Q

Which part of the brain does Parkinsons affect?

A

Degeneration of pigmented cells in substantia nigra leading to dopamine deficiency

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130
Q

2 ways in which Parkinsons affects dental treatment

A

Tremor - unable to open mouth

Unable to lie flat

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131
Q

4 conditions that cause tremors

A
Parkinsons
Stroke
Multiple sclerosis
Hyperthyroidism
Alcoholism
132
Q

3 year old, feels well and spontaneously bleeds. Has high WBC, low platelets and glucose

  • what is the diagnosis
  • 8 clinical features of this condition
  • pathology of this condition
  • 2 treatments
  • how does this condition affect dentistry?
A
  1. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
  2. Pallor, lethargy, infections, bleeding, bone pain, fever, swollen lymph nodes
    3.Malignant proliferation of lymphoblasts in bone marrow.
    Mainly affects children
  3. Induction and consolidation chemotherapy
  4. Short apt times, pre-tx assessment, dental care in acute phase: identify oral disease, risk,
    remove, side effects, OH, prevention; acute phase: limit to emergency care, dental tx close to next
    cycle of chemo as possible; post: continue at least 12M. children seen by paedriastis (3M) and ortho every 6M
133
Q

How does acyclovir work?

A

HSV thymidine kinase phosphorylates guanosine when HSV DNA replicates. Humans can’t phosphorylate ACV very well.
In HSV infected cells, ACV is phosphorylated by viral
Thymidine kinase to ACV-P. ACV-P then inhibits virus
replication as it is a chain terminator.
Simple terms: Acyclovir inhibits viral replication as it is
integrated into the viral DNA but does not have a terminal hydroxyl group so bases cannot be added, so it is a chain terminator.

134
Q

Graves mechanism

A

Autoantibody binds to TSH receptor on thyroid cells and stimulates it causing increased production of T3 and T4. -more?

135
Q

Dental considerations with hyper and hypothyroidism

A
Hyperthyroidism
● Don't use adrenaline in local anaesthetics (uncontrolled hyperthyroidism) as increased sensitivity may result in arrhythmia or palpitations
● Antithyroid drug carbimazole may cause taste disturbance
● If have AF may be on warfarin
● Goitre may compress trachea when supine of it's very big
● Accelerated dental eruption
● Maxillary and mandibular osteoporosis
● Increased susceptibility to caries
● Periodontal disease
Hypothyroidism
● Susceptible to oral candidiasis
● Don't use sedation unless in a specialised unit
● Delayed eruption
● Enamel hypoplasia
● Micrognathia
● Thick lips
● Macroglossia
● Dysgeusia
● Mouth breathing
● Delayed wound healing
136
Q

What tests would you do if you suspected pt had pneumonia?

A
Chest x-ray
Sputum cytology
Serology
Blood tests
Bronchoscopy
CT Scan
137
Q

Pneumonia - why does pt have pain on inspiration

A

Alveoli are inflamed due to pneumonia. Expansion of
inflamed tissue as air enters alveoli during inspiration
causes pain.

138
Q

8 tests for TB

A
● Tuberculin skin test
● Chest X-ray
● Sputum smears
● Sputum culture
● Ziehl-Neelson Stain
● Auramine Rhodamine Stain
● Automated culture
● Quantiferon Gold
139
Q

4 risk factors for TB

A
● HIV infection
● Immunosuppression e.g. steroids, chemotherapy,
transplants, elderly
● Overcrowded conditions
● Malnourished
● Stay in high rate country
● Those exposed to TB in youth
● Children of parents in high rate countries
● Prisoner, drug addicts, alcoholics
140
Q

6 medical conditions that cause osteoporosis

A

i. Hyperparathyroidism
ii. Cushing’s
iii. Kidney Failure
iv. Vitamin D deficiency
v. Hyperthyroidism - increased early osteoporosis of
Mandible and Maxilla
vi. Crohn’s Disease - malabsorption

141
Q

Mechanism for bisphosphonates

A

i. Bisphosphonates encourage osteoclasts to undergo
apoptosis, slowing bone resorption. Also inhibits Oc recruitment and activity.
ii. It mimics pyrophosphate, giving bisphosphonates a
high affinity for bone, so it lasts for a long time (years).

142
Q

Pink puffers vs blue bloateres

A
Pink puffers: emphysema
-thin appearance
-increased CO2 retention
-minimal cyanosis
-purse lip breathing
-dyspnoea and exertional dyspnoea
-barrel chest
-speaks in short jerky sentences
-use of accessory muscles
Blue bloaters: COPD
-airway flow problem
-colour is dusky to cyanotic
-recurrent productive cough
-hypoxia and hypercapnia
-respiratory acidosis
-high haemoglobin
-increased respiratory rate
-dyspnoea on exertion
-finger clubbing
143
Q

What is the significance of breathing through pursed lips

A

Patient coping strategy to allow symptomatic improvement

Creates “auto-PEEP” to allow prolonged opening of distal airways to allow emptying of lungs

144
Q

COPD antibiotics given if

A

2 of the following:

  • increasing dyspnoea
  • sputum production
  • sputum purulence
145
Q

Oral Prednisolone COPD

A

7-10 days(0.6mg/kg/day) = 30-40mg/day
More rapid improvement in physiology
Shortens hospital discharge
Must weigh severity against side effects

146
Q

SABA side effects

A
Nervousness
Increased heart rate
Tremor
Hypokalaemia 
Headache
147
Q

Patient has atherosclerosis, what are the pathophysiological features of coronary
artery disease?

A

Initial fatty streak caused by accumulation of lipids (due to diet - hyperlipidemia and high cholesterol). Accumulation in tunica intima beneath endothelium.
ICAM-1 recruits foamy macrophages
Internal elastic lamina fragments and smooth
muscle cells migrate from the tunica media into the
lesion
Fibrolipid plaque - deposition of collagen, progressive fibrosis
PDGF stimulate fibroblast and smooth muscle cell
proliferation
Formation of complicated plaque - fibrous cap of the lesion protrudes into lumen
Beneath this are cholesterol clefts and foamy
macrophages
ohe fibrolipid plaque disturbs laminar blood flow, creating local turbulence
The currents cause endothelial ulceration where
there is collagen exposed to the blood content
This leads to activation of the coagulation cascade,
fibrin deposition and platelet aggregation
Erythrocytes become entrapped within the platelet
mesh
Fibrin forms on top of this complex in a layered
structure (platelet layer, erythrocyte + fibrin,
platelet layer etc…)
More turbulence, more platelet and fibrin deposition
Thrombus formation

148
Q

Investigations type 2 diabetes

A
Hb1Ac (blood glucose test)
Urine dipstick test
Oral glucose tolerance test
Fasting plasma glucose
FBC
149
Q

Patient has type 2 diabetes, abscess and allergic to penicillin. Gram pos cocci and gram negative bacilli – what are the organisms in the abscess

A

Strep viridans and fusobacterium

150
Q

Testing pt with renal failure

A
Urine dipstick test (creatinine, urea and glucose)
Blood sample - urea and electrolytes
eGFR
Imaging
Biopsy
151
Q

Systemic complications of inflammatory bowel disease

A
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Severe dehydration
> risk of colon cancer
Weight loss
Abdominal pain
Mouth ulcer
Fistula formation
152
Q

MIC vs MBC test

A

Minimal inhibitory concentration - inoculum added to test-tubes and left overnight. The minimum concentration at which no visible growth is seen will clear the cloudiness from the test tube.
Minimal bactericidal concentration: Take the test tube from MIC and place it in an agar plate. Add inoculum until cloudiness clears from agar. This is the MBC

153
Q

4 tests for CKD

A

Serum creatinine
eGFR
Urinary dipstick test (proteinuria, haematuria)
FBC (check for anaemia and platelet count)
Ultrasound, MRI or CT scan
Inflammatory marker test for CRP (C reactive protein) and ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)

154
Q

Mechanisms of antivirals

A
  1. Penetration/ uncoating
  2. Taking over viral machinery
  3. Post-translation inhibition
155
Q

Samter’s triad

A

Aspirin sensitivity
Nasal polyps
Sinusitis

156
Q

6 Ps of leg ischaemia

A
Pain
Pallor
Pulselessness
Parasthesia
Paralysis
Perishingly cold
157
Q

Tests for acromegaly

A

Test for IGF-1 production and levels

MRI of pituitary

158
Q

ACE inhibitors mechanism

A

Produce vasodilation by inhibiting the formation of
angiotensin II from angiotensin I by inhibiting Angiotensin
Converting Enzyme.
● Also prevents breakdown of bradykinin, increasing its
levels which contribute to vasodilator actions.
● It also down regulates sympathetic activity by blocking the effects of adrenaline
● Blocks angiotensin II stimulation of aldosterone secretion which promotes renal excretion of sodium and water reducing blood volume and venous/atrial pressure.

159
Q

Clopidogrel action

A

P2Y12 (sub-type of ADP receptor) inhibitor
● Which is an important ADP receptor on platelets
● Platelet not activated so no platelet aggregation and linking
to fibrin meshwork.
● Acts lifetime of platelet

160
Q

Describe how an upper and lower motor weakness presents (4)

and the difference between the two (1)

A

UMN presents with increased muscle tone, Weakness, increased reflexes, up going plantar response.
LMN presents with decreased muscle tone, weakness, atrophy, absence of reflex
In UMN, there is bilateral innervation at level of cortex so look for forehead sparing.

161
Q

4 types of lung cancer

A

● Small Cell carcinoma
● Non-small cell carcinoma
● Adenocarcinoma
● Squamous cell carcinoma

162
Q

4 conditions with constant high glucose

A

● Acromegaly – excess GH
● Cushings- Excess Glucocorticosteroids
● Diabetes mellitus – insulin insufficiency
● Pheochromacytoma

163
Q

Conditions that leave you immunocompromised

A

■ Acute myeloid leukaemia - overproduction of immature
myeloid cells (myeloblasts) in bone marrow so lack of
mature myeloid cells
■ Multiple myeloma - overproduction of B cells, but all
derived from single B cell so only 1 antibody type produced
■ Chronic myeloid leukaemia
■ Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
■ Liver failure - doesn’t produce immune factors
■ Diabetes - affects white cell chemotaxis and complements
■ Renal failure - splenomegaly - reduced circulating volume
of white blood cells - more in the spleen

164
Q

Action of prasugrel

A

Blocks ADP receptor irreversibly (acts for lifetime of platelet i.e. 7-10 days)

165
Q

What is thrombolysis?

A

Streptokinase or alteplase activate plasminogen –> plasmin. This lyses clots by breaking down fibrinogen and fibrin

166
Q

Symptoms, treatment of primary polycythaemia (rubra vera) and what it can lead to

A
  • pruritis, red face, thrombosis, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly
  • venesection, aspirin, myelosuppression
  • myelofibrosis (15-20%), acute myeloid leukaemia (2-10%)
167
Q

Hep C treatment

A

Interferon alpha and ribavirin

168
Q

Essential thrombocythaemia treatment

A

Aspirin, hydroxycarbamide, interferon, anagrelide

169
Q

Chronic myeloid leukaemia treatment

A

Imatinib (Glivec) blocks abnormal tyrosine kinase activity, can result in molecular remission
Allogeneic stem cell transplantation

170
Q

D-dimer test

A

For pulmonary embolism
Wherever there is clotting/injury, there is likely to be D-dimer released
D-dimer test is SENSITIVE (negative test leaves about 1% chance of PE), but
test is not SPECIFIC
Also elevated in:
-Liver disease (alcoholics, dehydration, co-smoking
with alcoholism)
-Inflammation – esp pneumonia (will be short of
breath too!)
-Pregnancy (predisposed to DVT and PE too and also
risks of CTPA)
-Malignancy (predisposes to DVT and PE)
-Trauma (but immobilisation may have caused a DVT
and PE)

171
Q

SADCASE

A
Suicidal
Anxiety, addiction
Depression, disordered thoughts, delusion
Concentration loss
Auditory, visual disturbances
Sleeping difficulties
Eating habits
172
Q

SADCASE

A
Suicidal
Anxiety, addiction
Depression, disordered thoughts, delusion
Concentration loss
Auditory, visual disturbances
Sleeping difficulties
Eating habits
173
Q

2 types of diuretics used to treat hypertension

A

Thiazide diuretics – inhibit reabsorption of sodium and chloride in cortical diluting segment of ascending loop of henle
Loop diuretics – inhibit reabsorption of potassium, sodium and chloride in thick segment of ascending loop of henle. Also increase production of prostaglandins which results in vasodilation.
This results in decreased reabsorption of water into blood so there’s less blood volume and reduced pressure

174
Q

Summarise how kidney failure affects the metabolism of calcium in the body

A

Less Ca reabsorption in tubules which means less Ca in the blood
In CKD the kidneys have a lesser response to PTH so less calcitriol secreted therefore less calcium reabsorption by the intestine
Because of reduced blood calcium, the parathyroid gland compensates for this by increasing production of PTH. PTH causes calcium to be released from bone into blood.

175
Q

Treatments for asthma

A

Emollients
Topical Steroids
Antihistamine for itch
Antibiotics if infected

176
Q

Explain how penicillin works.

A

Beta lactam – contains B lactam ring & inhibits cell wall formation
Inhibit cross linking of peptide chains
There are lots of proteins called penicillin binding proteins (PBP’s) on
bacteria which have affinity for penicillin. Transpeptidase is involved
in crosslinking.
Other PBP’s involved in maintenance of cell wall.
Penicillin activates autolysin inhibitors so bacteria produce autolysin
which produce defects in cell wall

177
Q

MC CHESS

A

● Enzymes
o Hyalurondinase for spreading
o Streptokinase breaks down clots
o C5a peptidase reduces chemotaxis by reducing infiltration of neutrophils
● Toxins
o Streptolysin O and S – binds cholesterol
o Erythrogenic toxin – exaggerated response (rash)
● Surface factors
o Capsule – hyaluronic acid
o M protein – encourages complement degradation

178
Q

5 similarities or differences between gram positive and gram negative cell membrane structure

A

● Gram+ve has no outer cell membrane
● Gram+ve has thick peptidoglycan cell wall
● Gram+ve retains crystal violet stain
● Gram+ve low lipid content
● Gram+ve no hydrophillic channels
● Gram+ve cell wall smooth, in Gram-ve it’s wavy

179
Q

5 similarities or differences between gram positive and gram negative cell membrane structure

A

● Gram+ve has no outer cell membrane
● Gram+ve has thick peptidoglycan cell wall
● Gram+ve retains crystal violet stain
● Gram+ve low lipid content
● Gram+ve no hydrophillic channels
● Gram+ve cell wall smooth, in Gram-ve it’s wavy

180
Q

3 serious complications as a result of IBS

A

● Bowel Cancer
● Osteoporosis as a result of steroid use
● Poor growth and development
● Primary sclerosing cholangitis

181
Q

Faster tests than gram staining to diagnose TB

A

MGIT - autoantibodies using PCR

182
Q

Organism that only grows on BCYE medium, poorly gram negative

A

Legionella pneumophila

Cause of atypical pneumonia

183
Q

Walking case of pneumonia, develops after 2 weeks of flu-like illness, yellow phlegm, CXR patchy bilateral consolidation. What organism?
-how is it identified

A

Mycoplasma penumoniae

-serology and PCR (culturing is difficult)

184
Q

Yersinia pestis virulence factors and treatment

A

Lipopolysaccharide
Type III secretion needle for injection of toxins
pCP1 - degrades complement components
pMT1 - anti-phagocytic capsule
Treatment: streptomysin, tetracycline, formalin killed vaccine

185
Q

Diagnosis of UTIs: steps

A
Sampling of midstream Urine (with care)
-cloudy or clear
-haematuria? (urine might be pink)
-culture on agar plates > 2x105 cells/ml
-traces of protein, leukocytes >10/ml
- > nitrites (NO3- > NO2-)
Pure or mixed growth?
Gram Stain of isolated bacteria or direct staining from urine sample
186
Q

Herpetic gingivostomatitis clinical features

A
Incubation 3-10 days
Duration 5-14 days
Multiple vesicles rupture to form extensive sloughing ulcers
Malaise, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy
Gingivitis with erythema and sloughing
187
Q

Diseases associated with chlamydia

A

Proctitis (homosexual men)
Reiter’s syndrome: reactive arthritis (mainly men)
Neonates infected –> conjunctivitis and/ or pneumonia in 20%

188
Q

Infection and replication of herpes virus

A

Virus with glycoproteins sticking out –> stick to receptor on cell surface –> when they bind virus decouples and injects DNA into cell –> dsDNA uncoated, makes its way into nucleus –> co-opts host cell polymerase and DNA starts to transcribe viral genes –> translation –> makes viral proteins including viral factor which goes back to host cell polymerase –> this drives more viral DNA replication –> all bits get put together in nucleus –> viral DNA back into virus –> mature virus –> break out of nucleus –> cells get packed full, cell pops, spread to other cells around or further
Can make proteins out of very little DNA

189
Q

Reversal of opioid effects

A

Naloxone 400mg IV

  • dramatic reversal of Mu receptor opioid effects
  • less effective on synthetic substances (effects on CNS less well defined)
190
Q

4 associations with atrial fibrilation

A
Stroke
Heart failure
Mural thrombosis
Valve disease
Tachycardia-induced cardiomyopathy
191
Q

How does chronic atherosclerotic plaque lead to MI

A
Fat pigs tell Emma and Michael monge two
-fatty streak
-fibrous plaque enlargement
-turbulence (blood pressure increases)
-endothelium ruptures and collagen exposed
-activation and aggregation of platelets
-meshwork of fibrin and red blood cells adhere
-more turbulence and growth of plaque
-thrombosis formation
Blocks cardiac artery --> ischaemia
192
Q

Unilateral tonsillar swelling, neck lymph nodes palpable. What 3 diagnoses would
you consider? (6)

A
● Lymphoma
● Carotid body tumour
● Lymphadenitis
● Lipoma
● TB
● Branchial cleft cyst
● Salivary gland/ thyroid gland tumour
● Regional metastasis
● Reactive lymph node
● Tonsilitus
Peritonsillar abscess?
193
Q

6 macroscopic features of lobular pneumonia

A
● Lung is grey/brown in colour.
● Heavy firm.
● Dilated.
● Some red seen due to blood in lungs
● Inflammation of lung
● Alveoli are fluid filled
194
Q

4 investigations to ascertain your diagnosis of pneumonia

A
Bronchoscopy
Chest x-ray
CT scan
Serology
Sputum cytology
Blood tests
195
Q

Features of asthma

A
● Narrowing of airway
● Increased mucus (hypersecretion and plugging)
● Tightened bands of smooth muscle
● Thickened smooth muscle
● Increased vascular permeability
● Submucosal oedema
● Degran of mast cell- histamine
● Interleukin 4 increase
196
Q

5 symptoms of peptic ulcer

A
● Abdominal pain
● Bloating and abdominal features
● Waterbrash
● Nausea and vomiting
● Loss of appetite and weight loss
● Haematemesis (vomiting blood)
● Melena (blood in faeces giving it a black tarry appearance)
197
Q

How H. pylori survives in the stomach

A

● Motile bacteria can swim around
● Lives in mucin layer of stomach
● Produces urease – covers uric acid to ammonia and carbon dioxide
● Carbon dioxide produced protective cloud around bacterium with pH of 7
Can multiply as initially causes asymptomatic gastritis
Attracts neutrophil polymorphs

198
Q

Neurological consequences of ankylosing spondylitis

A

● Spinal cord compression
● Lead to lower limb problems and abnormal gait, as well as bladder and bowel
disturbance.

199
Q

How to measure if kidney function is safe before giving LA/ GA

A

● eGFR
● Urine Dipstick Testing
● Imaging – Xrays, CT, MRI

200
Q

Action of calcitonin

A

Opposes action of PTH

Released from thyroid

201
Q

Contraindications of metronidazole

A

Pregnancy
Alcoholics
Wafarinised pts
Hepatic impairment

202
Q

Bulls eye rash

A

Lyme disease!

203
Q

Treatment of actinomycosis

A

Surgical drainage
6-8 weeks broad spectrum amoxicillin to penetrate fibrotic capsule
-or penicillin or tetracycline

204
Q

Benzodiazepines mechanism of action

A

Barbiturates / benzodiazepines –> bind to GABAa receptor at different allosteric sites –> facilitates GABA action –> Barbiturates > duration and frequency, benzodiazepines > frequency of opening of Cl- channel –> membrane hyperpolarisation –> CNS depression
At higher dose barbiturates can act as GABA mimetic

205
Q

Action of glucocorticoids

A

E.g. prednisolone
Reduces generation of eicosanoids and PAF
-lipocortin inhibits phospholipase A2
Reduces production and action of cytokines (IL-2, IL-6, TNFα), histamine and complement
–> reduced bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation

206
Q

Action of PPIs

A

Act by irreversibly blocking H+/ K+ ATPase (gastric proton pump)
Used for prolonged and long lasting inhibition of gastric acid

207
Q

Leprosy treatment

A

Dapsone and rifampicin NOT thalidomide

208
Q

Lytic life cycle

A
PLARM viruses
Attach
Penetrate
Replicate
Mature
Lysis
209
Q

Diphtheria symptoms

A
Thick dirty white/ grey/ green/ black coating
'Bull Neck'
Sore throat
Fever
Lymphadenopathy
210
Q

Use of flow cytometry in HIV

A

HIV infects CD4 T cells (T helper cells)
The number of CD4 T cells compared to CD8 T cells is determined
using Flow Cytometry
In HIV patients the number of CD4 cells is important as low CD4
numbers can mean progression to AIDS

211
Q

Conjugation of TI antigens to proteins

A
Hib polysacc specific B cells bind polysaccharide and internalise whole conjugate, including protein
Polysaccharide cannot be processed, but protein is and peptides derived from it are expressed on cell-surface with MHC class II 
Polysaccharide specific B cell receives help from DT specific T cell 
Strong antibody response even in infants, including IgG
212
Q

Live attenuated vaccine examples

A

Only 2
BCG- Bacille Calmette Guerin. Mycobacterium bovis grown over many passages in vitro. Gives some protection against TB
Salmonella typhi- temperature sensitive strain given orally.

213
Q

Recombinant protein vaccine examples

A

•2 examples on market, Hep B surface antigen, and HPV vaccines Cervarix and Gardasil

214
Q

Therapeutic Ab steps

A

Therapeutic Ab taken into cell via endocytosis
It enters the lysosome where the proteolytic
enzymes and pH release the drug inside the cell
The drug gets transported to the nucleus where it affects cell division.
Other cytotoxic molecules can be used to kill cells directly

215
Q

Viral live attenuated vaccines examples

A

Poliomyelitis (Sabin)-widely used to bring polio to the brink of eradication
Vaccinia virus- used in billions of doses to eradicate smallpox due to cross-reactivity between itself and the variola virus
Measles, mumps and Rubella- 3 given together

216
Q

Viral whole killed vaccine examples

A

Polio vaccine (Salk)-inactivated virus-IPV
Influenza vaccine-inactivated virus
Hepatitis A vaccine-inactivated virus
Rabies vaccine-inactivated virus

217
Q

Bacteria non-living vaccines examples

A

Diphtheria-cell free formaldehyde treated toxin- rendered non toxic “toxoid”
Tetanus, toxoid, as above
Pertussis- killed whole bacteria, given with the two above as DTP. 3-doses. UK now moved to acellular pertussis (aP)
Cholera- heat killed bacteria

218
Q

Histamine release –>

A
Vascular dilation
↑ Vascular permeability i.e. oedema 
Bronchospasm 
Urticarial rash – nettle rash  
↑ nasal and lacrimal secretions
219
Q

HyperIgM immunodeficiency mechanism

A
CD40 important for ‘class
switching’ 
Where IgM turns to IgG (Ab has 
same specificity) 
So can not switch from IgM to 
IgG 
Susceptible to pyogenic infections &amp; autoimmune disease 
(form auto‐IgM antibodies to 
neutrophils &amp; platelets)
220
Q

X-linked agglobulinaemia mechanism

A

Defective btk gene that encodes a B cell tyrosine kinase
btk Important in maturation of B cells
No B cell maturation SO no IgG – poor Ab responses
First 6‐12 months of life have protective maternal IgG
Get recurrent pyogenic infections

221
Q

IgA deficiency

A

Most common immunodeficiency (1 in 700 Caucasians)
Failure in terminal differentiation of B cells to plasma cells
Individuals develop Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex)
Susceptible to pyogenic infections

222
Q

Passive immunisation: specific immunoglobulin examples

A

Human tetanus immunoglobulin (HTIG)
-rapid protection of exposed individuals
Human rabies specific Ig
-used after exposure to rabies to give protection until vaccine becomes effective
Human Hepatitis B Ig (HBIG)
Varicella Zoster Ig (VZIG)

223
Q

LAD type 1

A

Deficient for CD18 (integrinβ chain)
Defective C’ Receptor 3 (CD18/CD11b) - this binds bacteria
opsonised with C3bi – increase phagocytosis
Can not phagocytose opsonised bacteria – recurrent infections
ALSO
Defective CD18/CD11c
Important in leukocyte adhesion (CD18/CD11c binds to ICAM‐1)
Phagocytes not able to bind to the endothelium and
extravasate

224
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease

A

Defective NAPDH oxidase
Phagocytes CANNOT form superoxide ions & H2O2 (ROS ‐ Reactive
Oxygen Species) to kill microbes
Organisms remain alive in phagocytes – persistent intracellular infections &
granulomas form
Infections with S. Pneumoniae &
abbesses in liver, skin etc.

225
Q

Glucocorticoids and immunodeficiency

A

Repeat dose – leads to low lymphocytes, lack of Ab and defective cytokine synthesis

226
Q

Secondary immunodeficiency - drugs - anti-cancer therapy - chemotherapy - Azathriopine

A

Azathioprine is converted to 6‐mercaptopurine in body then
metabolised to thioinosinic acid (a false base – chain terminator)
-this gets incorporated into DNA & stops DNA replication and proliferation

227
Q

Diagnosis of Chronic granulomatous disease

A

Inability of phagocytes to reduce nitroblue tetrazoliium (NBT) dye
NBT is pale yellow when taken up by phagocytes during phagocytosis.
In healthy phagocytes it is reduced by ROS to a purple colour
In pxs with CGD the dye remains yellow

228
Q

Hereditary angioneurotic oedema

A

Most important C’ deficiency
C1 inhibitor‐ inhibits activation of C1 ( first initiator of C’
pathway)
Inhibits C’ and elements of the kinin/clotting system
Allows severe oedema due to plasma leakage leakage
Patients have recurrent swelling
Intestine - abdominal pains and vomiting
Upper airways - choke and death due to obstruction

229
Q

5-FU mechanism

A

Pyrimidine analog that works through inhibition of thymidylate synthase
(this methylates deoxyuridine monophosphate (dUMP) into thymidine
monophosphate (dTMP))
SO – 5FU blocks thymidine synthesis, which is a nucleotide required for
DNA replication
5FU gets incorporated into DNA and RNA and induces cell cycle arrest
(in S‐phase) and apoptosis
Affects T and B cells & NK cell numbers

230
Q

X-linked agglobulinaemia treatment

A

Repeated injections of gamma-globulin throughout life

231
Q

Organ transplantation - T cell Ag recognition and activation

A

Involves co‐stimulatory molecules
CD28 on T cell bind to CD80/ CD86 on APC
This is required for full activation
Activation: IL-2 secreted and bind to IL-2R on T cells
Leads to: division, differentiation, effector functions, memory

232
Q

What type of patients are NSAIDs contraindicated in (6 marks)

A
  • Past Myocardial infarct patient (excluding Aspirin)
  • Peptic ulcer or stomach bleeding
  • Uncontrolled hypertension
  • Kidney disease
  • Past transient ischaemic attack
  • Past stoke (excluding Aspirin)
  • Coronary Artery Disease (excluding Aspirin)
  • Third trimester for Pregnancy
233
Q

Bone regeneration after a fracture (6 marks)

A

• Inflammation
Haematoma forms. Dead bone cells release cytokines which initiate healing process.
Osteoclasts recruited to remove dead bone cells. Blood clot joins two fractured prices of
bone, fibroblasts begin to lay down granulation tissue over the clot
• Soft callus formation
Fibroblasts now start to lay down cartilage and fibrocartilage. Blood vessels begin to form
Then osteoblasts from periosteum begin to lay down woven bone (soft and disorganised)
• Hard callus formation
Calcium and phosphate incorporated into the cartilage => hard callus
• Bone remodelling stage
Woven bone replaced by cortical and trabecular bone

234
Q

Blood test results and diagnosis. Increased levels of white blood cells and decreased platelets and
hb, what is diagnosis? (2 marks)

A

• Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
• Malignant Proliferation of myeoloblasts in bone marrow -> go on to make basophils,
eosinophil’s, neutrophils, macrophages

235
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute myeloid leukaemia

A
  • Anaemia (fatigue, paleness, and shortness of breath)
  • Neutropenia (liability to infections)
  • Thrombocytopenia (easily bleeding and bruising - purpura)
  • Lymphadenopathy (rare but common in ALL)
  • Bone Pain
  • Hepatosplenomegaly – asymptomatic
  • Oral Ulcers
  • Gum infiltration by leukemic cells in Acute Monocytic Subtype M5
236
Q

Pathology of Parkinsons disease

A

• Degenerative disorder of the central nervous system
• Degeneration of pigmented cells of the ventral aspect of Pars Compacta of substantia nigra
leading to dopamine deficiency
• Disease may also result previous brain history or cerebrovascular disease

237
Q

Treatment for graves. 3 answers

A
  • Carbimazole
  • Partial thyroidectomy
  • Radioactive iodine
238
Q

Dental implications of a patient that has over or underactive thyroid and how its relevant (6 marks)

A
Hyperthyroidism
o Don't use adrenaline in local anaesthetics (uncontrolled hyperthyroidism) as
increased sensitivity may result in arrhythmia or palpitations
o Antithyroid drug carbimazole may cause taste disturbance
o If have AF may be on warfarin
o Goitre may compress trachea when suppine of it's very big
o Accelerated dental eruption
o Maxillary and mandibular osteoporosis
o Increased susceptibility to caries
o Periodontal disease
Hypothyroidism
o Susceptible to oral candidiasis
o Don't use sedation unless in a specialised unit
o Delayed eruption
o Enamel hypoplasia
o Micrognathia
o Thick lips
o Macroglossia
o Dysgeusia
o Mouth breathing
o Delayed wound healing
239
Q

Investigations for pneumonia

A
  • Chest XRay
  • Urinary antigen test
  • Sputum culture
240
Q

Posterior circulation stroke syndrome

A

• Supplied by vertebra-basilar system
• Includes cerebellum, brain-stem cranial nerve nuclei
• Symptoms; incoordination of movement, visual field loss, hemiparesis (weakening of entire
side of body)

241
Q

Transient ischaemic stroke

A

• Stenosis/narrowing or occlusion of carotid artery – completely reverses within 24hours
• (Stroke if more than 24 hours)
• Causes hypoxia of brain tissue
• Symptoms Weakness or clumsiness of a hand, arm, or leg. Difficulties with speech.
Difficulties with swallowing. Numbness or pins and needles of a part of the body. Brief loss
of vision, or double vision.

242
Q

Investigations for stroke

A
  • Blood tests (thyroid function, cholesterol, glucose)
  • Carotid Duplex (ultrasound of major arteries in neck)
  • CT scan (rule out possible bleed)
  • ECHO (ultrasound scan of heart)
  • MRI scan to further investigate CT
243
Q

Investigations for biliary colic

A
  • Ultrasound of right upper quadrant
  • Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
  • CT
  • MRI
244
Q

Investigations for TB

A
  • Chest xray
  • Sputum smear
  • Automated culture (MGIT)
  • Nucleic acid detection tests
  • Tuberculin test (Heaf, Tine and Mantoux – protein derivatives of TB injected subdermally)
  • Blood test – detect reactive T cells
245
Q

Mycobacterium TB. Give the information about the organism (6 marks)

A

• Rod shaped organism
• Facultative intracellular pathogen
• Obligate aerobe – needs a lot of O2 to grow
• Cell wall rich in lipids (mycolic acid) – so doesn’t retain gram stain (although technically
gram+)
• Divides very slowly (15-20h)
• Stained with acid fast ziel-Nielsen stain

246
Q

Factors that predispose to TB

A
  • Immunocompromised
  • Unhealthy over-crowded conditions
  • Staying in high rate country (and children of parents from high country)
  • If exposed to TB while in youth
  • Prisoners, drug addicts, alcoholics
  • Malnourished
247
Q

How does secondary TB work?

A

Caseous (cheese-like) centres of tubercles liquefy
Organisms grow very rapidly in this
Large Ag load
-bronchi walls become necrotic and rupture
-cavity formation
-organisms spill into airways and spread to other areas of lung - highly infectious
Primary lesions heal - Ghon complex, Simon foci

248
Q

How does AF cause stroke

A
  1. Blood pools in atria
  2. Blood clot forms
  3. Blood clot breaks off
  4. Blood clot travels to brain and blocks a cerebral artery causing a stroke
249
Q

Clopidogrel action

A

Irreversible ADP mediated platelet inhibition.

250
Q

Action of nitrates

A

Symptomatic relief of angina
Produce nitric oxide at endothelial surface leading to vascular smooth muscle relaxation and arteriolar and venous dilatation
< myocardial oxygen demand (lower preload and afterload) and increase myocardial oxygen supply (coronary vasodilatation)

251
Q

Statins mechanism

A

Hydroxymethyl-glutaryl (HMG) CoA reductase inhibitors
Lower LDL cholesterol and may increase HDL cholesterol
< risks of MI stroke and CV death

252
Q

Systems effects of infective endocarditis

A

Splinter haemorrhage in nailbed (NOT leukonychia)
Osler’s nodes (red lesions on hands and feet)
Embolic infarct in kidney
Embolic infarct in spleen

253
Q

Infective endocarditis leads to

A
Cerebral abscesses
Aortic and mitral vegetations 
-lumps on valves caused by emboli 
Retinal emboli (Roth spots) 
Digital emboli 
-same cause as splinter haemorrhages, Janeway lesions etc. 
-not that common
254
Q

Psoriasis aetiology

A

HLA association
T-cell mediated
Keratinocyte proliferation early

255
Q

Gram stain process

A

Fixation –> crystal violet stain –> iodine treatment –> decolourisation –> counter stain (safranin)

256
Q

Sterile sites of the body

A

Blood, CSF, peritoneal fluid, bone, pleural fluid, peritoneal fluid, pericardial fluid, joint fluid

257
Q

Gram negative anaerobes and what they cause

A

Bacteroides (abdominal wound infections, necrobacillosis)
Prevotella (genital and oral infections)
-e.g. P. melaninogenica
Porphyromonas (oral infections)
Fusobacterium (oral infections and necrobacillosis)

258
Q

CLED medium

A

Cysteine Lactose Electrolyte Deficient
Allows growth of all urinary pathogens
Lactose fermenters e.g. E.coli shown as yellow with halo around
Non-lactose fermenters show up as blue-green
Electrolyte deficient to prevent swarming of Proteus species.

259
Q

Quantitative urine culture

A

5 microlitres loop used from urine sample
Spread over half of CLED medium and left overnight at 37 degrees
1 colony - 200 organisms/ ml
10 colonies - 10^3 organisms/ ml
100 colonies - 10^4 organisms/ ml
1000 colonies - 10^5 organisms/ml

260
Q

Urinary dipstick test

A

Protein in the urine may indicate kidney disease (60s)

Glucose in the urine may indicate diabetes (30s)

261
Q

Virulence of S. saprophyticus

A

A haemolysin
Adherence to uroepithelial cells by surface-associated protein
Production of extracellular slime
Haemogglutinin binds to fibronectin

262
Q

Virulence of UPEC

A

Type 1 pili binds to mannose on glycoproteins of uroepithelium
P. fimbriae binds to gal-gal residues on ceramide host lipids

263
Q

Proteus virulence

A

Fimbriae - adhesion
Production of urease which breaks down to urea and CO2 causing rise in pH of the bladder (can lead to precipitations and stones)
Flagella - motility

264
Q

Bacteria that can cause food poisoning

A

Clostridium perfringens (gram positive anaerobic bacillus)
E.coli (gram negative facultatively anaerobic bacillus)
Bacillus cereus (gram negative aerobic bacillus)
Campylobacter jejuni (gram negative microaerophile which is comma shaped)
Salmonella enterica (gram negative facultatively anaerobic bacillus)
Shigella (gram-negative facultatively aerobic non-motile bacillus)
Vibrio cholerae (gram negative facultatively anaerobic motile comma shaped)

265
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Mutation of bone matrix mineralisation
Type I collagen mutation
Affects ears, eyes (blue sclera), skin (hyperextensible skin), teeth

266
Q

Achondroplasia

A

Mutation of cartilage matrix formation
Autosomal dominant: mutation of FGF receptor 3 so it is constantly activated (it is a negative regulator of bone growth)
Failure of cartilage maturation at growth plate

267
Q

Kyphosis

A

Dowager’s hump seen in osteoporosis

268
Q

chalk stick fractures seen in

A

Paget’s disease
Genetic
Also causes hypercementosis of teeth

269
Q

Osteomyelitis

A
Blood borne
A complication of compound fractures =
Necrosis of bone fragments
New bone formation
Sinus drains pus
270
Q

47 years old woman. 20 year history of rheumatoid. Has oral discomfort and mild dysphagia.
Also has an ulcer. Takes methotrexate and folic acid. SERN positive. Prednisolone daily
(steroid)
a. 3 diagnosis for oral symptoms (3marks)

A

a. Medication related (methotrexate and taking steroids); secondary Sjogrens; infection (herpes/ HIV)

271
Q

Behcets disease and pathergy

A

Blood vessel inflammation throughout body
Hypersensitive skin leads to blisters after injections (pathergy)
Mouth and genital ulcers
Erythema nodosum
Iritis
Headaches/ migraines
Folliculutis

272
Q

Conditions that present with mouth ulcers

A
Crohns/ ulcerative colitis/ inflammatory bowel syndrome
Behcets
Herpes
Systemic lupus erythematous
Aphthous ulcer
Corticosteroid induced
HIV infection
Coeliac
Ankylosing spondylitis
273
Q

What are rheumatoid nodules

A

Collections of inflammatory cells under skin, will mean the patient will test positive for rheumatoid factor.

274
Q

Roth’s spots

A

Infective endocarditis

275
Q

28 year old nurse. Fatigue. Joint pain. Sandy eyes. Mild dysphagia and ANA positive

a. Diagnosis?
b. Tests?
c. Risks

A
Primary Sjogrens
b/  Schrimers test
 Rose Bengal stain
 Sialometry
 Sialography
 Ultrasound
 Biopsy of labial gland (inner lip)
c.  Weight loss
 Fever
 Malaise
 Lymphoma risk
276
Q

Rheumatological conditions linked with antinuclear antibodies

A

Primary Sjogrens
Polymositis
Scleroderma
Systemic lupus erythematous

277
Q

Which virus infects E. Coli

A

Enterobacteriaphage T4

278
Q

Verotoxin affects

A

Kidney in haemolytic-uraemic syndrome

279
Q

CD4/ CD8 levels in HIV

A

In normal people it is around 2 (between 1 and 4)

If it is less than 1 you may have HIV or AIDS

280
Q

Uraemia symptoms

A
Nausea.
Vomiting.
Fatigue.
Anorexia.
Weight loss.
Muscle cramps.
Pruritus.
Mental status changes.
NOT bruising
281
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants side effects

A
blurred vision,
dry mouth,
constipation,
weight gain or loss,
low blood pressure on standing,
rash,
hives, and.
increased heart rate.
282
Q

Pt has had TB for a month and been on treatment since then, how should you treat them in the dental surgery?

A

Not infectious - normal cross infection control

283
Q

MS symptoms

A
fatigue
vision problems
numbness and tingling (including loss of sensation on face)
muscle spasms, stiffness and weakness
mobility problems
pain
problems with thinking, learning and planning
depression and anxiety
sexual problems
bladder problems
bowel problems
speech and swallowing difficulties
284
Q

Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Metronidazole <28 weeks, tetracycline, augmentin, avoid ketoconazole, miconazole , amphotericin , NSAIDs >34 weeks

285
Q

Drugs that increase INR

A
CYP450 inhibitors:
Erythromycin
Grapefruit juice
Omeprazole
Ketoconazole
Diltiazem
Verapimil
Amiodarone
Isoniazid
ALSO
286
Q

What disease are patients undergoing dialysis at risk of?

A

K related arrhythmias - cardiovascular disease

287
Q

Photophobia and severe headache cause

A

Migraine
Meningitis
Acute (angle closure) glaucoma

288
Q

Unconscious hypoglycaemia treatment

A

1mg IM Glucagon/IV glucose 100ml dextrose 10%/Dextrose 30-50ml 50%

289
Q

Zoplicone

A

Sleeping pill for SHORT TERM USE only

Contraindicated in psychiatric illness

290
Q

Signs and symptoms of hypoglycaemia

A
  • Symptoms: Anxiety, palpitations, dry mouth, hunger, sweating, tremor (increased adrenaline response)
  • Signs: Confusion, slurred speech, aggression, coma, convulsions, death (neurological response)
291
Q

Vitamin A deficiency

A

Night blindness

292
Q

Treatment for giant cell arteritis

A

Steroid, usually prednisolone

293
Q

Causes of vertebral wedge (compression) fracture

A

Osteoporosis

-can be caused by steroid medications e.g. osteoporosis

294
Q

Normocytic anaemia

A

A normocytic anemia is defined as an anemia with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 80–100 which is the normal range. However, the hematocrit and hemoglobin is decreased.
M&W >85yo
Blood loss is a common cause

295
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Lack of production of vasopressin (ADH) produced by posterior pituitary or impaired response to ADH by the kidney
Thirst and polyuria
Causes: head injury, pituitary tumour or sarcoid

296
Q

SIADH

A

Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
Low blood sodium level with high urinary sodium concentrate
Secondary to some malignancies and certain benign chest disorders e.g. pneumonia.

297
Q

Phaeochromocytoma

A

Rare cause of hypertension
Benign tumour of adrenal medulla producing excess catecholamines e.g. adrenaline
Symptoms: headaches, sweating, palpitations, pallor, hypertension
Usually unilateral
Anaesthetic injections with Adr should be avoided

298
Q

Depression and dentsitry

A

Hypochondriachal ideas and delusions
May worsen pre-existing dental anxiety
Appetite reduced –> may ascribe this as ‘teeth being too weak’
Alcohol excess may be cause or consequence
Oral hygiene may deteriorate (self-neglect)

299
Q

Streptokinase and alteplase mechanism

A

Plasminogen activator –> plasmin

300
Q

HBsAg

A

Hepatitis B surface antigen - first manifestation of infection
Hep B core antigen: HBcAg
-if HbSAg -ve but HbcAg +ve it signifies donor infectivity
Hep B e antigen: found if HBsAg +ve (index of infectivity)
Ab to HbsAg: protection from infection

301
Q

Sarcoidosis

A
Sarcoidosis is a disease involving abnormal collections of inflammatory cells that form lumps known as granulomas. The disease usually begins in the lungs, skin, or lymph nodes.
Symptoms:
-respiratory impairment
-visual impairment
-jaundice
-renal impairment
-steroid therapy
-Associated with Sjogrens
-gingival enlargement
-cranial neuropathies
302
Q

CTFR gene

A

Cystic fibrosis

303
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis symptoms

A
HLAB27 gene
Back pain and stiffness
Arthritis
Enthesitis
Fatigue
Anterior uveitis
304
Q

Conns syndrome

A

Hyperaldosteronism is a disease in which the adrenal gland(s) make too much aldosterone which leads to hypertension (high blood pressure) and low blood potassium levels

  • increased sodium
  • increased glucose
305
Q

Oesophageal cancer survival rate

A

20% 15-39s

5% 80-99s

306
Q

Causes of finger clubbing

A
GI
-liver cirrhosis
-inflammatory bowel disease
Cardiothoracic
-infective endocarditis
-cyanotic congenital heart disease
-intrathoracic pus e.g. lung abscess, bronchiectasis
-bronchial carcinoma
-fibrosing alveolitis
Other
-familial
-idiopathic
-secondary to thyrotoxicosis
307
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

Localised enlargement of abdominal aorta such that the diameter is >3cm or 50% larger than normal diameter.
Usually asymptomatic but may present with abdominal, leg or back pain
Rupture is usually fatal

308
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency associated with

A

Folate deficiency / macrocytic/ megalolastic anaemia

  • caused when red blood cells aren’t produced properly
  • because cells are too large, they may not be able to exit bone marrow to enter bloodstream and deliver oxygen
309
Q

Glucocorticoid cover

A

Major surgery/ GA: hycdrocortisone 100mg IM at induction and double oral med 24hr
Simple procedures: double dose 1 hr before, double oral med 24hr afterwards

310
Q

Most frequent complication of Paget’s disease

A

Bilateral progressive hearing loss (sensorineural)

311
Q

Reversal drug for heparin

A

Protamine sulphate

312
Q

What drug should not be given to pregnant woman with rheumatoid arthritis

A

Methotrexate

313
Q

Testing for H. influenzae

A

Chocolate agar
Gram stain
Catalase and oxidase positive
Latex agglutination test

314
Q

Sympathetic cervical chain dysfunction

A

Horner’s syndrome

Familial dysnautonomia

315
Q

Which genetic condition most likely to cause DVT

A

Antithrombin deficiency

-last likely Prothrombin deficiency and P20210A mutation

316
Q

How long do symptoms last in

  • salmonella
  • shigella
  • campylobacter
  • cholera
A

Salmonella 4-7 days
Shigella (dysentery) around a week
Campylobacter up to 2 weeks
Cholera rice water stool - must be treated quickly

317
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia treatment

A

Antiepileptic/ anticonvulsant

318
Q

Iron deficiency can cause

A

Microcytic anaemia

319
Q

Macrolides and mechanism

A

Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin

Interferes with protein synthesis by binding to 50s subunit of bacterial ribosome

320
Q

Aminoglycosides and mechanism

A

Interfere with reading of codes on the ribosome

Gentamycin

321
Q

Curb 65

A

for predicting mortality in community-acquired pneumonia and infection of any site

322
Q

Mydriasis

A

Dilation of pupil of eye

323
Q

Complications of sickle cell disease

A

Brain: Stroke
Eye: Proliferative retinopathy, retinal artery occlusion, retinal detachment
Spleen: autosplenectomy
Liver: Gallstones
Urinary: Priapism, renal papillary necrosis
Locomotor: Avascular necrosis of the hip
Skin: Leg ulcers
Psychosocial: Depression

324
Q

SLE hypersensitivity type

325
Q

Which valve of the heart is most likely to get infected with infective endocarditis in IV
drug users

326
Q

Alveoli size

A

An adult alveolus has an average diameter of 200 µm