Ignat Ch 32: Care of Critically Ill Patients with Respiratory Problems

Question 1

A nurse answers a call light and finds a client anxious, short of breath, reporting chest pain, and having a blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg on the cardiac monitor. What action by the nurse takes priority?

a. Assess the clients lung sounds.
b. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
c. Provide reassurance to the client.
d. Take a full set of vital signs.

Answer 1

ANS: B
This client has manifestations of a pulmonary embolism, and the most critical action is to notify the Rapid Response Team for speedy diagnosis and treatment. The other actions are appropriate also but are not the priority.

Question 2

A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

a. Encourage the client to walk 5 minutes each hour.
b. Refer the client to smoking cessation classes.
c. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing.
d. Tell the client that sometimes no cause for disease is found.

Answer 2

ANS: C
Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including PE. A client with no known risk factors for this disorder should be referred for testing. Encouraging the client to walk is healthy, but is not related to the development of a PE in this case, nor is smoking. Although there are cases of disease where no cause is ever found, this assumption is premature.

Question 3

A client has a pulmonary embolism and is started on oxygen. The student nurse asks why the clients oxygen saturation has not significantly improved. What response by the nurse is best?

a. Breathing so rapidly interferes with oxygenation.
b. Maybe the client has respiratory distress syndrome.
c. The blood clot interferes with perfusion in the lungs.
d. The client needs immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation.

Answer 3

ANS: C
A large blood clot in the lungs will significantly impair gas exchange and oxygenation. Unless the clot is dissolved, this process will continue unabated. Hyperventilation can interfere with oxygenation by shallow breathing, but there is no evidence that the client is hyperventilating, and this is also not the most precise physiologic answer. Respiratory distress syndrome can occur, but this is not as likely. The client may need to be mechanically ventilated, but without concrete data on FiO2 and SaO2, the nurse cannot make that judgment.

Question 4

A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The clients most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What order should the nurse anticipate?

a. Decrease the heparin rate.
b. Increase the heparin rate.
c. No change to the heparin rate.
d. Stop heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Answer 4

ANS: B
For clients on heparin, a PTT of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value is needed to demonstrate the heparin is working. A normal PTT is 25 to 35 seconds, so this clients PTT value is too low. The heparin rate needs to be increased. Warfarin is not indicated in this situation.

Question 5

A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?

a. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
b. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
c. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
d. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.

Answer 5

ANS: B
Often clients are discharged from the hospital on warfarin (Coumadin) after a PE. However, clients with a variation in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin well and have higher blood levels and more side effects. This client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, and the prescriber will most likely order an IVC filter device to be implanted. The nurse should prepare to do preoperative teaching on this procedure. It would be impossible to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet. A chronic illness support group may be needed, but this is not the best intervention as it is not as specific to the client as the IVC filter. A soft-bristled toothbrush is a safety measure for clients on anticoagulation therapy.

Question 6

A nurse is caring for four clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Which laboratory value possibly indicates that a serious side effect has occurred?

a. Hemoglobin: 14.2 g/dL
b. Platelet count: 82,000/L
c. Red blood cell count: 4.8/mm3
d. White blood cell count: 8.7/mm3

Answer 6

ANS: B
This platelet count is low and could indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. The other values are normal for either gender.

Question 7

A client appears dyspneic, but the oxygen saturation is 97%. What action by the nurse is best?

a. Assess for other manifestations of hypoxia.
b. Change the sensor on the pulse oximeter.
c. Obtain a new oximeter from central supply.
d. Tell the client to take slow, deep breaths.

Answer 7

ANS: A
Pulse oximetry is not always the most accurate assessment tool for hypoxia as many factors can interfere, producing normal or near-normal readings in the setting of hypoxia. The nurse should conduct a more thorough assessment. The other actions are not appropriate for a hypoxic client.

Question 8

A nurse is assisting the health care provider who is intubating a client. The provider has been attempting to intubate for 40 seconds. What action by the nurse takes priority?

a. Ensure the client has adequate sedation.
b. Find another provider to intubate.
c. Interrupt the procedure to give oxygen.
d. Monitor the clients oxygen saturation.

Answer 8

ANS: C
Each intubation attempt should not exceed 30 seconds (15 is preferable) as it causes hypoxia. The nurse should interrupt the intubation attempt and give the client oxygen. The nurse should also have adequate sedation during the procedure and monitor the clients oxygen saturation, but these do not take priority. Finding another provider is not appropriate at this time.

Question 9

An intubated clients oxygen saturation has dropped to 88%. What action by the nurse takes priority?

a. Determine if the tube is kinked.
b. Ensure all connections are patent.
c. Listen to the clients lung sounds.
d. Suction the endotracheal tube.

Answer 9

ANS: C
When an intubated client shows signs of hypoxia, check for DOPE: displaced tube (most common cause), obstruction (often by secretions), pneumothorax, and equipment problems. The nurse listens for equal, bilateral breath sounds first to determine if the endotracheal tube is still correctly placed. If this assessment is normal, the nurse would follow the mnemonic and assess the patency of the tube and connections and perform suction.

Question 10

A client is on a ventilator and is sedated. What care may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

a. Assess the client for sedation needs.
b. Get family permission for restraints.
c. Provide frequent oral care per protocol.
d. Use nonverbal pain assessment tools.

Answer 10

ANS: C
The client on mechanical ventilation needs frequent oral care, which can be delegated to the UAP. The other actions fall within the scope of practice of the nurse.

Question 11

A nurse is caring for a client on mechanical ventilation. When double-checking the ventilator settings with the respiratory therapist, what should the nurse ensure as a priority?

a. The client is able to initiate spontaneous breaths.
b. The inspired oxygen has adequate humidification.
c. The upper peak airway pressure limit alarm is off.
d. The upper peak airway pressure limit alarm is on.

Answer 11

ANS: D
The upper peak airway pressure limit alarm will sound when the airway pressure reaches a preset maximum. This is critical to prevent damage to the lungs. Alarms should never be turned off. Initiating spontaneous breathing is important for some modes of ventilation but not others. Adequate humidification is important but does not take priority over preventing injury.

Question 12

A nurse is caring for a client on mechanical ventilation and finds the client agitated and thrashing about. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

a. Assess the cause of the agitation.
b. Reassure the client that he or she is safe.
c. Restrain the clients hands.
d. Sedate the client immediately.

Answer 12

ANS: A
The nurse needs to determine the cause of the agitation. The inability to communicate often makes clients anxious, even to the point of panic. Pain and confusion can also cause agitation. Once the nurse determines the cause of the agitation, he or she can implement measures to relieve the underlying cause. Reassurance is also important but may not address the etiology of the agitation. Restraints and more sedation may be necessary, but not as a first step.

Question 13

A nurse is preparing to admit a client on mechanical ventilation from the emergency department. What action by the nurse takes priority?

a. Assessing that the ventilator settings are correct
b. Ensuring there is a bag-valve-mask in the room
c. Obtaining personal protective equipment
d. Planning to suction the client upon arrival to the room

Answer 13

ANS: B
Having a bag-valve-mask device is critical in case the client needs manual breathing. The respiratory therapist is usually primarily responsible for setting up the ventilator, although the nurse should know and check the settings. Personal protective equipment is important, but ensuring client safety takes priority. The client may or may not need suctioning on arrival.

Question 14

A client is on mechanical ventilation and the clients spouse wonders why ranitidine (Zantac) is needed since the client only has lung problems. What response by the nurse is best?

a. It will increase the motility of the gastrointestinal tract.
b. It will keep the gastrointestinal tract functioning normally.
c. It will prepare the gastrointestinal tract for enteral feedings.
d. It will prevent ulcers from the stress of mechanical ventilation.

Answer 14

ANS: D
Stress ulcers occur in many clients who are receiving mechanical ventilation, and often prophylactic medications are used to prevent them. Frequently used medications include antacids, histamine blockers, and proton pump inhibitors. Zantac is a histamine blocking agent.

Question 15

A client has been brought to the emergency department with a life-threatening chest injury. What action by the nurse takes priority?

a. Apply oxygen at 100%.
b. Assess the respiratory rate.
c. Ensure a patent airway.
d. Start two large-bore IV lines.

Answer 15

ANS: C
The priority for any chest trauma client is airway, breathing, circulation. The nurse first ensures the client has a patent airway. Assessing respiratory rate and applying oxygen are next, followed by inserting IVs.

Question 16

A client is being discharged soon on warfarin (Coumadin). What menu selection for dinner indicates the client needs more education regarding this medication?

a. Hamburger and French fries
b. Large chefs salad and muffin
c. No selection; spouse brings pizza
d. Tuna salad sandwich and chips

Answer 16

ANS: B
Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin Kdependent clotting factors. Foods high in vitamin K thus interfere with its action and need to be eaten in moderate, consistent amounts. The chefs salad most likely has too many leafy green vegetables, which contain high amounts of vitamin K. The other selections, while not particularly healthy, will not interfere with the medications mechanism of action.

Question 17

A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin (Coumadin). What assessment finding by the nurse indicates a possible barrier to self-management?

a. Poor visual acuity
b. Strict vegetarian
c. Refusal to stop smoking
d. Wants weight loss surgery

Answer 17

ANS: B
Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin Kdependent clotting factors. Foods high in vitamin K thus interfere with its action and need to be eaten in moderate, consistent amounts. A vegetarian may have trouble maintaining this diet. The nurse should explore this possibility with the client. The other options are not related.

Question 18

A student nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client. What action by the student requires immediate intervention by the supervising nurse?

a. Assessing the clients platelet count
b. Choosing an 18-gauge, 2-inch needle
c. Not aspirating prior to injection
d. Swabbing the injection site with alcohol

Answer 18

ANS: B
Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, so the 18-gauge, 2-inch needle is too big. The other actions are appropriate.

Question 19

A client in the emergency department has several broken ribs. What care measure will best promote comfort?

a. Allowing the client to choose the position in bed b. Humidifying the supplemental oxygen
c. Offering frequent, small drinks of water
d. Providing warmed blankets

Answer 19

ANS: A
Allow the client with respiratory problems to assume a position of comfort if it does not interfere with care. Often the client will choose a more upright position, which also improves oxygenation. The other options are less effective comfort measures.

Question 20

A client has been diagnosed with a very large pulmonary embolism (PE) and has a dropping blood pressure. What medication should the nurse anticipate the client will need as the priority?

a. Alteplase (Activase)
b. Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
c. Unfractionated heparin
d. Warfarin sodium (Coumadin)

Answer 20

ANS: A
Activase is a clot-busting agent indicated in large PEs in the setting of hemodynamic instability. The nurse knows this drug is the priority, although heparin may be started initially. Enoxaparin and warfarin are not indicated in this setting.

Question 21

A client is brought to the emergency department after sustaining injuries in a severe car crash. The clients chest wall does not appear to be moving normally with respirations, oxygen saturation is 82%, and the client is cyanotic. What action by the nurse is the priority?

a. Administer oxygen and reassess.
b. Auscultate the clients lung sounds.
c. Facilitate a portable chest x-ray.
d. Prepare to assist with intubation.

Answer 21

ANS: D
This client has manifestations of flail chest and, with the other signs, needs to be intubated and mechanically ventilated immediately. The nurse does not have time to administer oxygen and wait to reassess, or to listen to lung sounds. A chest x-ray will be taken after the client is intubated.

Question 22

A student nurse asks for an explanation of refractory hypoxemia. What answer by the nurse instructor is best?

a. It is chronic hypoxemia that accompanies restrictive airway disease.
b. It is hypoxemia from lung damage due to mechanical ventilation.
c. It is hypoxemia that continues even after the client is weaned from oxygen.
d. It is hypoxemia that persists even with 100% oxygen administration.

Answer 22

ANS: D
Refractory hypoxemia is hypoxemia that persists even with the administration of 100% oxygen. It is a cardinal sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome. It does not accompany restrictive airway disease and is not caused by the use of mechanical ventilation or by being weaned from oxygen.

Question 23

A nurse is caring for a client on the medical stepdown unit. The attached data are related to this client. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

a. Call respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment.
b. Facilitate a STAT pulmonary angiography.
c. Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation.
d. Prepare to administer intravenous anticoagulants.

Answer 23

INSERT IMAGE

ANS: B
This client has manifestations of pulmonary embolism (PE); however, many conditions can cause the clients presentation. The gold standard for diagnosing a PE is pulmonary angiography. The nurse should facilitate this test as soon as possible. The client does not have wheezing, so a respiratory treatment is not needed. The client is not unstable enough to need intubation and mechanical ventilation. IV anticoagulants are not given without a diagnosis of PE.

Question 24

A nurse is caring for five clients. For which clients would the nurse assess a high risk for developing a pulmonary embolism (PE)? (Select all that apply.)

a. Client who had a reaction to contrast dye yesterday
b. Client with a new spinal cord injury on a rotating bed
c. Middle-aged man with an exacerbation of asthma
d. Older client who is 1-day post hip replacement surgery
e. Young obese client with a fractured femur

Answer 24

ANS: B, D, E
Conditions that place clients at higher risk of developing PE include prolonged immobility, central venous catheters, surgery, obesity, advancing age, conditions that increase blood clotting, history of thromboembolism, smoking, pregnancy, estrogen therapy, heart failure, stroke, cancer (particularly lung or prostate), and trauma. A contrast dye reaction and asthma pose no risk for PE.

Question 25

When working with women who are taking hormonal birth control, what health promotion measures should the nurse teach to prevent possible pulmonary embolism (PE)? (Select all that apply.)

a. Avoid drinking alcohol.
b. Eat more omega-3 fatty acids.
c. Exercise on a regular basis.
d. Maintain a healthy weight.
e. Stop smoking cigarettes.

Answer 25

ANS: C, D, E
Health promotion measures for clients to prevent thromboembolic events such as PE include maintaining a healthy weight, exercising on a regular basis, and not smoking. Avoiding alcohol and eating more foods containing omega-3 fatty acids are heart-healthy actions but do not relate to the prevention of PE.

Question 26

A client with a new pulmonary embolism (PE) is anxious. What nursing actions are most appropriate?
(Select all that apply.)
a. Acknowledge the frightening nature of the illness.
b. Delegate a back rub to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
c. Give simple explanations of what is happening.
d. Request a prescription for antianxiety medication.
e. Stay with the client and speak in a quiet, calm voice.

Answer 26

ANS: A, B, C, E
Clients with PEs are often anxious. The nurse can acknowledge the clients fears, delegate comfort measures, give simple explanations the client will understand, and stay with the client. Using a calm, quiet voice is also reassuring. Sedatives and antianxiety medications are not used routinely because they can contribute to hypoxia. If the clients anxiety is interfering with diagnostic testing or treatment, they can be used, but there is no evidence that this is the case.

Question 27

The nurse caring for mechanically ventilated clients uses best practices to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. What actions are included in this practice? (Select all that apply.)

a. Adherence to proper hand hygiene
b. Administering anti-ulcer medication
c. Elevating the head of the bed
d. Providing oral care per protocol
e. Suctioning the client on a regular schedule

Answer 27

ANS: A, B, C, D
The ventilator bundle is a group of care measures to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. Actions in the bundle include using proper hand hygiene, giving anti-ulcer medications, elevating the head of the bed, providing frequent oral care per policy, preventing aspiration, and providing pulmonary hygiene measures. Suctioning is done as needed.

Question 28

A nurse is caring for a client who is on mechanical ventilation. What actions will promote comfort in this
client? (Select all that apply.)
a. Allow visitors at the clients bedside.
b. Ensure the client can communicate if awake.
c. Keep the television tuned to a favorite channel.
d. Provide back and hand massages when turning.
e. Turn the client every 2 hours or more.

Answer 28

ANS: A, B, D, E
There are many basic care measures that can be employed for the client who is on a ventilator. Allowing visitation, providing a means of communication, massaging the clients skin, and routinely turning and repositioning the client are some of them. Keeping the TV on will interfere with sleep and rest.

Question 29

The nurse caring for mechanically ventilated clients knows that older adults are at higher risk for weaning failure. What age-related changes contribute to this? (Select all that apply.)

a. Chest wall stiffness
b. Decreased muscle strength
c. Inability to cooperate
d. Less lung elasticity
e. Poor vision and hearing

Answer 29

ANS: A, B, D
Age-related changes that increase the difficulty of weaning older adults from mechanical ventilation include increased stiffness of the chest wall, decreased muscle strength, and less elasticity of lung tissue. Not all older adults have an inability to cooperate or poor sensory acuity.