IFSet3010118v2 Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following insurance principles relates to disclosing information?
A. Quantum
B. Offer and acceptance
C. Insurable interest
D. Utmost good faith
A

D. Utmost good faith

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2
Q

The case that established the principle that the duty of utmost good faith applies to an insurer as well as a proposer was:
A. Rozanes v. Bowen (1928)
B. Carter v. Boehm (1766)
C. London General Omnibus Co. Ltd. V. Holloway (1912)
D. Banque Keyser Ullmann SA v. Skandia (UK) Insurance Company Ltd. (1986)

A

D. Banque Keyser Ullmann SA v. Skandia (UK) Insurance Company Ltd. (1986)

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3
Q
The Marine Insurance Act 1906 defined a material fact as something that would affect the judgment of a: 
A. particular insurer 
B. shrewd insurer 
C. prudent insurer 
D. prudential insurer
A

C. prudent insurer

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4
Q
Mike’s potential insurer has asked permission to send round a surveyor to take a look at the risk. This is most likely because Mike is looking for: 
A. private motor insurance 
B. professional indemnity insurance 
C. commercial property insurance 
D. household buildings insurance
A

C. commercial property insurance

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5
Q
Which of the following would be considered as a poor moral hazard under motor insurance? 
A. The age of the vehicle 
B. A driver’s lack of care 
C. The age of the driver 
D. The condition of the vehicle
A

B. A driver’s lack of care

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6
Q

In the context of duty of disclosure, what core change was brought about by the Consumer Insurance (Disclosure and Representations) Act 2012?
A. Transfer of the duty of disclosure from the insured to the intermediary
B. Creation of the requirement for insurers to include ‘opt out’ provisions in their
proposals forms
C. Creation of a legal duty for consumers to volunteer material facts
D. Abolition of the duty on consumers to volunteer material facts

A

D. Abolition of the duty on consumers to volunteer material facts

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7
Q
Fraudulent non-disclosure or misrepresentation is also known as?
A. Inducement 
B. Corruption 
C. Concealment 
D. Laundering
A

C. Concealment

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8
Q

Under the Consumer Insurance (Disclosure and Representations) Act 2012, in the case of a deliberate or reckless breach of the duty of disclosure by a policyholder which induces the insurer to enter a contract of insurance, the remedy available to an insurer is?
A. Avoid the policy (it will be held to have never existed)
B. Alter their terms and deal with the risk in the same way they would have done had there been no breach
C. Request payment of any higher premium that should have been paid had there been no breach and then pay out the claim
D. Proportionately reduce the amount payable for a claim if they would have charged a higher premium had there been no breach

A

A. Avoid the policy (it will be held to have never existed)

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9
Q
A risk survey can help determine each of the following with the exception of:
A. a description of the risk 
B. estimated maximum loss 
C. an assessment of the level of risk 
D. premium rating
A

D. premium rating

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10
Q
When an insurer has provided a proposer with the subjectivities of a policy such as the premium and terms and conditions, this is known as? 
A. a quotation 
B. a proposal 
C. an estimate 
D. a statement of fact
A

A. a quotation

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11
Q

Chris gets a quote for car insurance. The quote is valid for 30 days. He decides to accept the quote after 31 days; what will happen?
A. The insurer must issue a new quote
B. Nothing, the insurer is forbidden to honour the quote by law
C. The insurer may choose to honour the quote
D. Nothing, the insurance is already on cover

A

C. The insurer may choose to honour the quote

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12
Q
In the context of insurance, what is ‘Lemonade’?
A. A price comparison website 
B. An American online insurer 
C. An underwriting network 
D. A fraud database
A

B. An American online insurer

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13
Q

Why is it necessary for the proposal form for a commercial risk to include a warning about material information and material circumstances?
A. To comply with FCA regulation
B. To point out the dangers of non-disclosure
C. To meet data protection provisions
D. To assist in the identification of fraudulent proposals

A

B. To point out the dangers of non-disclosure

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14
Q
A products liability insurance was effected on the basis of annual turnover of £25m at a rate of 0.5 per mille on turnover. What would the premium have been? 
A. £12,500 
B. £23,750 
C. £25,000 
D. £50,000
A

A. £12,500

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15
Q
What enables an insurer to accurately determine a fair premium for a risk where they already have a large pool of similar exposures? 
A. The law of large numbers 
B. The law of average 
C. The law of tort 
D. The law of equality
A

A. The law of large numbers

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16
Q
Martin's house is valued at £200,000. His insurer applies a premium rate of 0.5%. What would his premium be? 
A. £500 
B. £1,000 
C. £1,500 
D. £2,000
A

B. £1,000

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17
Q
If an insured cannot provide an exact figure for the premium basis at the beginning of the policy period, they pay an initial premium based on an estimate. This is called: 
A. a deposit premium 
B. an initial premium 
C. an adjustable premium 
D. a conditional premium
A

A. a deposit premium

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18
Q
What can an insurer issue for the insured as proof of cover during the period that further information is being awaited before the final policy documents are issued? 
A. A charter note 
B. A schedule 
C. An endorsement 
D. A cover note
A

D. A cover note

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19
Q

Employers are required to display employers’ liability certificates in their place of business. If they don’t do this, where else is an acceptable place to provide them to employees?
A. In an encrypted format
B. In new employees’ welcome packs
C. On request in the personnel department
D. In an electronic format, accessible by all employees

A

D. In an electronic format, accessible by all employees

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20
Q
Which rule means that neither the insurer nor the proposer can rely on negotiations leading up to the contract for its terms and conditions but must rely on the contract itself? 
A. The parol evidence rule 
B. The contract certainty rule
C. The Rylands v. Fletcher rule 
D. The uberrimae fides rule
A

A. The parol evidence rule

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21
Q
According to the 'contra proferentem' rule, if an insurance policy contains an ambiguous term who will it be interpreted in favour of? 
A. The insured 
B. The insurer 
C. Either the insured or the insurer 
D. Neither the insured or the insurer
A

A. The insured

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22
Q
The common policy condition which states that an insured must not hinder the insurer in their investigation of a claim is usually: 
A. a compulsory condition 
B. an implied condition 
C. an express condition 
D. an additional condition
A

B. an implied condition

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23
Q
Details of complaints procedures can be found in which section of the policy?
A. The recital clause 
B. The operative clause 
C. The information section 
D. The schedule
A

C. The information section

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24
Q
Which type of exclusion applies only to particular parts of the policy?
A. Specific exclusions 
B. Market exclusions 
C. General exclusions 
D. Particular exclusions
A

A. Specific exclusions

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25
Q

Which of these statements relating to the most recent Pool Re scheme is FALSE?
A. The insured can choose whether to purchase the additional cover
B. The premium rates are set by the government
C. All damage caused by a terrorist attack is excluded in the insurer’s standard commercial property wordings for the risks
D. Each individual insurer’s maximum liability is capped for each terrorist attack and per year

A

B. The premium rates are set by the government

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26
Q
In the event of an insurer exercising subrogation rights to recover payment from a third party, whose name will the court action be held in? 
A. Joint names 
B. The third party's name 
C. The insured's name 
D. The insurer's name
A

C. The insured’s name

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27
Q

Each of these statements regarding warranties is true with the exception of?
A. They must be strictly and literally complied with
B. They may relate to past or present facts
C. Express warranties are written and will be incorporated into the policy
D. The law on warranties is unaffected by the Insurance Act 2015

A

D. The law on warranties is unaffected by the Insurance Act 2015

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28
Q

In relation to representations made by consumers, which of these is an effect of the Consumer Insurance (Disclosure and Representations) Act 2012?
A. Representations made by consumers can no longer be converted to warranties
B. Representations made by consumers must be converted to warranties
C. Representations made by consumes cannot be converted to conditions
D. Representations made by consumers are converted to implied conditions

A

A. Representations made by consumers can no longer be converted to warranties

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29
Q
A policy where the insured needs cover for a finite period, such as a contract works policy for a buildings insurance, is a: 
A. benefit policy 
B. short-term policy 
C. contract policy 
D. renewable policy
A

B. short-term policy

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30
Q

What is usually the method that insurers use to invite an insured to renew their policy?
A. Awaiting telephone contact by the insured
B. Issuing a renewal notice
C. Phoning the customer
D. Deducting a premium from the customer’s bank account

A

B. Issuing a renewal notice

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31
Q
If a customer wants to cancel a policy mid-term and an insurer gives them a less than proportionate refund to take into account administration costs, this is called: 
A. Reconciliation premiums 
B. Mid-term premiums 
C. Short-period premiums 
D. Proportionate premiums
A

C. Short-period premiums

32
Q
Under a third party only motor insurance policy what is the limit of liability for third party property damage? 
A. £1.2m 
B. £5m 
C. £10m 
D. £20m
A

D. £20m

33
Q
What can usually be added to a commercial motor vehicle insurance policy by means of an optional extension? 
A. Indemnity to hirers 
B. Indemnity to drivers 
C. Indemnity to passengers 
D. Indemnity to users
A

A. Indemnity to hirers

34
Q

How is cover usually provided by a sickness policy in the event of a valid claim?
A. The policy pays a sum of money irrespective of any financial loss
B. The policy pays a sum of money depending on the amount of the insured’s financial loss
C. The policy indemnifies the insured for their loss
D. The policy pays a sum of money subject to the insured suffering a direct financial loss

A

A. The policy pays a sum of money irrespective of any financial loss

35
Q
Under a personal accident policy, an injury which does not prevent the injured person having a normal lifestyle, but that is permanent is known as: 
A. PTD 
B. PPD 
C. TTD 
D. TPD
A

B. PPD

36
Q
The time franchise on a personal accident and sickness policy is usually:
A. 5, 7 or 14 days 
B. 7, 14 or 21 days 
C. 14, 21 or 28 days 
D. 21, 28 or 30 days
A

B. 7, 14 or 21 days

37
Q

A standard buildings insurance policy usually excludes for cover for:
A. breakage of a skylight
B. legal fees for reinstatement of a building
C. damage caused by own pets
D. accidental damage to underground pipes

A

C. damage caused by own pets

38
Q

A household contents insurance policy can provide cover for:
A. theft of cash that does not involve forcible entry
B. accidental damage to clothing
C. valuable single items exceeding the agreed percentage of the total sum insured
D. temporary removal within the British Isles

A

D. temporary removal within the British Isles

39
Q
Which of these is usually excluded by a travel insurance policy?
A. Damage to fragile objects 
B. Loss of deposits 
C. Travel interruption 
D. Medical and associated expenses
A

A. Damage to fragile objects

40
Q
On what does the market largely base the wording of its fire policies?
A. BIIBA standard fire policy wording 
B. BIIBA special perils wording 
C. ABI recommended wording 
D. FCA guidance
A

C. ABI recommended wording

41
Q
"Burst pipes cover" is provided under which section of a commercial property insurance? 
A. Flood 
B. Escape of water 
C. Leakage 
D. Storm
A

B. Escape of water

42
Q

Which of these events would usually be included under a theft policy?
A. Entry to the insured’s premises by key
B. Leaving without forcible exit
C. Breaking in to the insured’s premises
D. A trick or concealment on the insured’s premises whilst they are open

A

C. Breaking in to the insured’s premises

43
Q

Money cover can usually be extended to include:
A. errors or omissions in accounting
B. personal accident/assault
C. dishonesty of an employee, not discovered within seven days
D. damage arising outside the UK

A

B. personal accident/assault

44
Q

Business interruption insurance only applies after:
A. a material loss under a property insurance has occurred
B. theft has occurred
C. fire, theft or lightning damage have occurred
D. engineering failure has arisen

A

A. a material loss under a property insurance has occurred

45
Q
Legal liability to a third party for a loss is usually dependent upon:
A. injury 
B. death 
C. negligence 
D. damages
A

C. negligence

46
Q

Which of these situations would be excluded by a public liability insurance policy?
A. Incorrectly processed tinned food causing food poisoning
B. Injury caused by a faulty wiring on an electric kettle
C. Damage to a car by a faulty part
D. Cost of rectifying a defective toaster

A

D. Cost of rectifying a defective toaster

47
Q
Which aspect of risk involves discovering what threats already exist and what potential threats could exist in the future? 
A. The underside of risk 
B. The upside of risk 
C. The downside of risk 
D. The outside of risk
A

C. The downside of risk

48
Q

Which of these is not a recoverable uninsured loss under a motor policy?
A. Increased insurance premiums due to loss of no claim bonus
B. Cost of hiring a replacement car
C. Damage repair to vehicle under a third-party policy
D. The driver’s property

A

A. Increased insurance premiums due to loss of no claim bonus

49
Q
What will most of the underwriting work in relation to proposal forms for personal insurances be like? 
A. Complex 
B. Technical 
C. Administrative 
D. Actuarial
A

C. Administrative

50
Q

What is the consumer’s duty of disclosure when taking out an insurance policy?
A. To advise the insurer of the main underwriting factors
B. To answer fully and accurately the questions asked of them by the insurer
C. To disclose all material facts that may influence the insurer
D. To make a full disclosure in writing of all facts material to the risk

A

B. To answer fully and accurately the questions asked of them by the insurer

51
Q
What is the major factor that is considered by household insurers when underwriting buildings insurance? 
A. Value of specified items 
B. Cover for items away from home 
C. Construction and location 
D. Occupation of the insured
A

C. Construction and location

52
Q
Each of these is an important consideration in theft insurance with the exception of?
A. Precautions taken 
B. The safety features of a building 
C. The construction of a building 
D. Moral hazard
A

B. The safety features of a building

53
Q

What is usually the most important underwriting consideration in public liability insurance?
A. The materials used in the proposer’s trade
B. The proposer’s trade or business
C. The employees’ occupations
D. The proposer’s professional qualifications

A

B. The proposer’s trade or business

54
Q
Which of these allows insurers to check the true claims history of individuals for personal insurance policies: 
A. MID 
B. MIAFTR 
C. Arts loss register 
D. CUE
A

D. CUE

55
Q
What is the name given to the groups covered by the Equality Act 2010?
A. Equality groups 
B. Associative groups 
C. Disabled and discriminated 
D. Protected characteristics
A

D. Protected characteristics

56
Q

Under the General Data Protection Regulation ‘sensitive personal data’ is now referred to as?
A. Protected personal data
B. Special categories of personal data
C. Restricted categories of personal data
D. Ring-fenced personal data

A

B. Special categories of personal data

57
Q
An example of operational level management data is that produced to analyse:
A. strategy implementation 
B. new business activity 
C. accuracy of claims handling 
D. renewal retention information
A

C. accuracy of claims handling

58
Q
How often is operational data usually required?
A. Weekly or monthly 
B. Monthly or quarterly 
C. Quarterly or half yearly 
D. Half yearly or annually
A

A. Weekly or monthly

59
Q
Which of these is a possible effect of large claims on the overall pattern of claims?
A. Homogeneity 
B. Distortion of the claims profile 
C. Distortion of policyholder profile 
D. Increased loss frequency
A

B. Distortion of the claims profile

60
Q
Marlene has lost her mobile phone. Derek’s has broken as a result of him dropping it. Brian’s has been stolen. The level of risk associated with mobile phones is classified as: 
A. low frequency, high severity 
B. high frequency, low severity 
C. low frequency, low severity 
D. high frequency, high severity
A

B. high frequency, low severity

61
Q
What is the ratio of claims to premiums called?
A. Earned loss ratio 
B. Claims loss ratio 
C. Risk loss ratio 
D. Outstanding loss ratio
A

B. Claims loss ratio

62
Q
What is the term for the premium required to cover the total cost of claims (taking into account the amount of time if might take to settle them)? 
A. Risk premium 
B. Gross premium
C. Net premium 
D. Settlement premium
A

A. Risk premium

63
Q
When insurers calculate the average cost of a particular type of claim, what are they calculating? 
A. Predictability 
B. Latency 
C. Frequency 
D. Severity
A

D. Severity

64
Q
When calculating the risk premium an insurer must take each of the following into account with the exception of? 
A. Exposure 
B. Claims inflation 
C. Staff bonuses 
D. Reinsurance cost
A

C. Staff bonuses

65
Q

Which of these is an effect of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012?
A. Some insurers increased their rates by 2.5%
B. Some insurers were forced to withdraw from the casualty market place
C. Some insurers reduced their rates by up to 15%
D. A market agreement was reached on motor insurance rates

A

C. Some insurers reduced their rates by up to 15%

66
Q
The proportion of account premiums that an insurer must keep free to meet claims is called the: 
A. risk capital requirement 
B. portfolio return 
C. profit surfeit 
D. investment income
A

A. risk capital requirement

67
Q
What type of investment generally generates a higher rate of return over the medium to long-term? 
A. Fixed interest 
B. Equities 
C. Deposit accounts 
D. Savings accounts
A

B. Equities

68
Q
What are the measurable aspects of the risk called, such as how substantial a sum insured is? 
A. Quantitative aspects 
B. Qualitative aspects 
C. Questionable aspects 
D. Queried aspects
A

A. Quantitative aspects

69
Q

What can lead to reduced underwriting profits?
A. Claims inflation and reduced premiums
B. Claims reduction and reduced premiums
C. Claims reduction and increased premiums
D. Claims inflation and higher premiums

A

A. Claims inflation and reduced premiums

70
Q

An economic issue that affects the insurance market cycle is:
A. amendments to legislation creating new liabilities
B. increased customer awareness
C. improvements in consumer rights
D. returns from investments in the financial markets

A

D. returns from investments in the financial markets

71
Q
The sharing of risk between two or more insurers is called:
A. dual insurance 
B. co-insurance 
C. reinsurance 
D. self-insurance
A

B. co-insurance

72
Q
How can an insurer protect itself against losses in several categories of risk arising from a single event? 
A. Disaster reinsurance 
B. Catastrophe reinsurance 
C. Stability reinsurance 
D. Protection reinsurance
A

B. Catastrophe reinsurance

73
Q
Each of the following is a valid reason for an insurer to reinsure risk with the exception of: 
A. entering a new market 
B. underwriter's peace of mind 
C. at the request of a customer 
D. protection of company capital
A

C. at the request of a customer

74
Q
If surplus reinsurance is arranged, the sum insured is £500,000 and the amount retained by the insurer is £100,000, what proportion of a loss would the reinsurer be responsible for? 
A. 20% 
B. 40% 
C. 60% 
D. 80%
A

D. 80%

75
Q
Under excess of loss reinsurance, what would the reinsurer's liability be for a loss of £150,000 with a layer of reinsurance at £150,000 in excess of £50,000? 
A. £50,000 
B. £100,000 
C. £150,000 
D. £200,000
A

B. £100,000