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IFR Theory > IFR Theory > Flashcards

IFR Theory Flashcards

1
Q

Max time outbound for a hold up to FL140

A

1 min or time limit specified on the chart

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2
Q

Rate of turn allowed in a holding pattern

A

25° or rate one (whichever is the less)

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3
Q

What does the “DME Limit” mean in regards to holding patterns?

A

The DME distance at which to start turning onto the reciprocal track

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4
Q

What do you need in order to start a DME/GNSS Arrival?

A
  1. Database card must be current
  2. The VOR/NDB must not be capable of modification by the crew
  3. RAIM must be available
  4. The VOR/NDB must be used for lateral guidance
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5
Q

If RAIM is lost during a DME/GNSS Arrival, what must the pilot do?

A

Conduct a missed approach

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6
Q

If a DME slope takes a pilot OCTA, does he need to get clearance to re-enter CTA?

A

Yes

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7
Q

When can an aircraft descend below the LSALT/MSA?

A

“VIVAT”
1. Visual approach or departure
2. Instrument approach or departure
3. VMC by day
4. ATC clearance
5. Take-off or landing

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8
Q

CAT A Initial and Intermediate speed.

A

90 – 150kts

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9
Q

CAT A Final speed

A

70 – 100kts

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10
Q

CAT A Circling speed

A

100kts

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11
Q

CAT A Missed Approach Max Speed

A

110kts

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12
Q

What does the DA need to be adjusted to, in order to account for pressure error AW139 and B412?

A

Requirement removed

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13
Q

If there is a discrepancy b/w the altimeter and the final check height published on an ILS chart, what must the pilot do?

A

Carry out a missed approach

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14
Q

If the LOC or GS indicates a full-scale deflection at any time during the approach, what must the pilot do?

A

Carry out a missed approach

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15
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance gradient for a missed approach?

A

2.5% or 152ft/min

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16
Q

When can an aircraft commence an approach w/o entering a holding pattern?

A
  • The reversal procedure entry requirements are satisfied.
  • The DME arc procedure entry requirements are satisfied
  • When the aircraft is within 30° of the inbound course or reversal
  • For an RNAV… when the aircraft is within the capture regions
    (90° either side of the outer IAP fixes and 70° either side of the middle IAP fix for a x3 IAP Approach)
    (90° either side of the out IAP fix and 70°/110° either side of the middle IAP for a x2 IAP Approach)
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17
Q

What does “established on track” mean?

A
  1. Within half-scale for an ILS, VOR and GNSS.
  2. Within 5° for an NDB
  3. Within 2nm for a DME Arc
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18
Q

What is the maximum vertical speed allowed after crossing the FAF

A

1000ft/min

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19
Q

Describe the 45°/180° procedure turn…

A

45° turn away from the outbound track for 1min 15secs (CAT C), followed by an 180° in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track

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20
Q

Describe the 80°/260° procedure turn…

A

80° turn away from the outbound track, immediately followed by a 260° turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track

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21
Q

Describe the base turn…

A

A specified outbound track for a specified time/DME distance, followed by a turn to intercept the inbound track

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22
Q

When must a missed approach be executed…

A

‘So Not Visual ROFL’

  1. So - A straight-in LDG cannot be performed unless you can circle under the circling minima
  2. No Visual: You’re not visual by the DA or MAPT
  3. R - RAIM warning or loss of RAIM after IAF below MSA
  4. O - Outside the appropriate tolerances when after the FAF
  5. F - Failure or suspect NAVAID below MSA
  6. L - Lost visual reference is lost while circling
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23
Q

If you don’t get visual by the MDA height, do you have to track to the MAPT before conducting the missed approach? What are the conditions of this?

A

Yes, however you can initiate a climb prior to reaching the MAPT

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24
Q

If you have to conduct a missed approach while circling… what must you do?

A

Make an initial climbing turn towards the LDG RWY and make sure that you are overhead the airport before conducting the missed approach

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25
Q

If you lose RAIM after passing the IAF of a GNSS approach, what must you do?

A

Conduct a missed approach

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26
Q

If RAIM comes back while you are in the missed approach part of a GNSS approach, may you use your GNSS equipment for missed approach guidance?

A

Yes

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27
Q

If RAIM is still lost while you are in a missed approach, what must you do?

A

Use an alternative means of guidance or dead-reckon the missed approach

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28
Q

When can you descend below the MDA whilst circling?

A
  1. When within the circling area
  2. When visibility is > the circling minimums on the approach chart
  3. When you can maintain visual contact with the RWY environment (ie. threshold lighting, approach lighting or RWY edge lighting)
  4. By night or day… when you are in a position where you can maintain a continuous normal descent to the threshold whilst maintaining minimum obstacle clearance until you are aligned with the RWY
  5. By day only… when you are able to maintain the minimum obstacle clearance within the circling area until you are aligned with the RWY
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29
Q

When can you circle in a “no circling” area?

A

Visual by day

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30
Q

When can you conduct a visual approach by day?

A

Within 30nm of aerodrome, at an altitude not below the MSA/LSALT for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GNSS arrival procedure, or the MDA for the procedure flown until established:

  1. Clear of cloud
  2. In sight of ground and water
  3. Visibility not <5000m or in the case of a helicopter heli VMC is permissible or the aerodrome is in sight
  4. Can maintain 1, 2 and 3 at an altitude not less than:
    - if in CTA 500’ above the lower limit unless cleared to depart and re-enter controlled airspace
    - min height prescribed by CASR 91.265 or 91.267

If in CTA:
- cleared VA
- maintain track and heading till within 5nm

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31
Q

When can you conduct a visual approach by night?

A

At an altitude not below the MSA/LSALT for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GNSS arrival procedure, or the MDA for the procedure flown until established:

  1. Clear of cloud
  2. In sight of ground and water
  3. Visibility not <5000m
  4. Can maintain 1, 2 and 3 at an altitude not less than:
    - if in CTA 500’ above the lower limit unless cleared to depart and re-enter controlled airspace
    - min height prescribed by CASR 91.265 or 91.267

until

  • for an aerodrome with and capable of using IAP within the category or higher circling area and the aerodrome in site, or
  • without or not capable of using IAP, within 3NM and AD in sight if no IAP or not authorised to use IAP, or
  • 5nm (7nm with ILS RWY) aligned with the centreline not below “on-slope” on a T-VASIS or PAPI
  • 10nm (14nm for 16L and 34L at Mascot) aligned with the centreline not below full-scale on an ILS GP

If in CTA:

  • cleared VA
  • maintain track and heading till 3NM for VFR flight or prescribed circling area for IFR flight.
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32
Q

What are the take off requirements IFR?

A

A pilot in command must not commence a take-off if, at the time of take-off:
(a) the meteorological conditions are less than the take-off minima for the aircraft; or
(b) the meteorological conditions that would exist if it were necessary to return to land at the departure aerodrome because of engine failure, are not:
(i) at or above the landing minima for any IAP that the pilot in command is able to conduct at the aerodrome; or
(ii) such as to allow a visual approach for the return to land.

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33
Q

Qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft means an IFR rotorcraft that?

A

(a) has a Category A performance supplement; and
(b) is operated to the Category A weights, limitations and procedures contained in
the supplement; and
(c) in the event of an engine failure — is capable of maintaining terrain clearance
until reaching the minimum height for IFR flight.

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34
Q

What is the T/O minima for a QUALIFYING multi-engine rotorcraft?

A

The take-off minima are:

(a) visibility of:

         (i)  800 m, or

        (ii)  550 m, but only if:

– the relevant runway or final approach and
take-off area (FATO) has both illuminated
edge lighting at spacing intervals not
exceeding 60 m, and centreline lighting,
that are both supported by a secondary
power supply with a switchover capability
of one second or less, and

– where the aerodrome is non-controlled, or
is controlled but ATC is not in operation,
where radio carriage is mandatory, the
take-off must be conducted by day.

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35
Q

Take-off minima for other rotorcraft other than qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft?

A

cloud ceiling of 500 ft
visibility of 800 m.

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36
Q

What are the conditions of the T/O Minima?

A

A pilot in command must not commence a take-off if, at the time of take-off:
(a) the meteorological conditions are less than the take-off minima for the aircraft; or
(b) the meteorological conditions that would exist if it were necessary to return to
land at the departure aerodrome because of engine failure, are not:
(i) at or above the landing minima for any IAP that the pilot in command is able
to conduct at the aerodrome; or
(ii) such as to allow a visual approach for the return to land.

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37
Q

What is the Landing Minima for an airport w/o an Instrument Approach chart?

A
  1. IFR by day… visual approach requirements
  2. IFR by night… VMC from LSALT within 3nm
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38
Q

For an RNP APCH-LNAV/VNAV, an RNP APCH-LPV, or a precision approach procedure — the minimum visibility must not be below 1200 m whichever?

A
  1. the approach cannot be flown to at least the landing minima using a flight director
  2. the aircraft is not equipped with an operative failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading reference systems; or
  3. HIAL is available
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39
Q

For an RNP APCH-LNAV/VNAV, an RNP APCH-LPV, or a precision approach procedure — the minimum visibility must not be below 800 m whichever?

A

If RVR information in the threshold zone is not available

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40
Q

Prior to passing the IAF, what type of QNH must you set?

A
  1. Actual airport QNH
  2. Aerodrome forecast (TAF) QNH
  3. Forecast area QNH
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41
Q

Where the forecast area QNH is used, the minima used must be increased by?

A

It must be increased by 50ft

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42
Q

Which aircraft can use special alternate minima?

A

Dual ILS/VOR approach capability must include:
a. duplicated LOC; and
b. duplicated GP; and
c. duplicated VOR; and
d. either:
(i) duplicated DME; or
(ii) duplicated GNSS; or
(iii) single DME and single GNSS

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43
Q

When will special alternate minima not be available?

A
  1. When METAR/SPECI or TAFs are not available
  2. When an otherwise controlled airport is not controlled
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44
Q

What does the acronym ACVWPPLS mean in regards to alternate airports?

A

A - AIDS
C - Cloud
V - Visibility
W - Wind
P - PROB Forecast
P - Provisional Forecast
L - Lighting
S - Storms

Alternates Could Very Well Prove Life Savers

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45
Q

When must you provide for an alternate airport in regards to Wind, Visibility or Cloud?

A
  1. Wind: When the XW or TW is > aircraft capabilities (gusts must be considered)
  2. Visibility: < the alternate minima, or greater than the alternate minimum, but the forecast is
    endorsed with at least a 30% percentage probability of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum.
  3. When TS or associated server turb or PROB is forecast.
  4. Cloud: More than SCT below the alternate minima

Alternate or holding is not required for reduction in vis or TS/associated turb for any PROB 30 or 40.

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46
Q

How much holding fuel do you need for a TEMPO?

A

60mins

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47
Q

How much holding fuel do you need for an INTER?

A

30mins

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48
Q

If the weather after a FM/BECMG period gets better, when does that bad weather still remain valid?

A

30mins after the end of the FM/BECMG period if the TAF3 is not valid.

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49
Q

What is the alternate minima for an airport WITH an instrument approach procedure?

A

The alternate specified on the approach chart

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50
Q

If the TAF for an aerodrome is unavailable or is “provisional”, must you plan for an alternate?

A

Yes

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51
Q

What is the alternate minima for an airport WITHOUT an instrument approach procedure by day?

A
  1. Ceiling: Route LSALT + 500ft
  2. Visibility: 8km
52
Q

What are the Airport NAVAID requirements in regard to alternates?

A

A destination alternate aerodrome must be planned for an IFR flight by night to a planned destination aerodrome that is:
a) not served by an instrument approach procedure; or
b) is served by 1 or more instrument approach procedures, none of which the pilot is able to conduct.

53
Q

If the RWY lighting at the destination is portable, do you need an alternate?

A

Yes, unless there is a responsible person in attendance

54
Q

If the RWY lighting is fixed or pilot activated, but has NO STBY power, do you need to plan for an alternate?

A

Yes, unless there is a responsible person in attendance

55
Q

If the RWY lighting is pilot activated and has STBY power, do you need to plan for an alternate?

A

Yes, unless there is a responsible person in attendance

56
Q

If the RWY lighting is fixed and has STBY power, do you need to plan for an alternate?

A

No

57
Q

If you do need an alternate due to RWY lighting, what are the requirements of the alternate airport in terms of lighting?

A
  1. Alternate must not have PAL
  2. Alternate can have PAL but a responsible person must be in attendance
58
Q

An aerodrome served by PAL may be nominated as an alternate aerodrome. There is no requirement for a responsible person to be in attendance, but the aircraft must be equipped with?

A

a. dual VHF; or
b. single VHF and HF and carries 30 minutes holding fuel to allow for the alerting of ground staff in the event of a failure of the aircraft’s VHF communication

59
Q

If you originally needed an alternate due to lighting but you intend to land just before first light, do you still need an alternate?

A

Yes, unless you had carried enough holding fuel to allow for first light + 10mins

60
Q

What does a “Horizontal White Dumbbell” mean?

A

Use only hard or sealed surfaces

61
Q

What does a “White Cross” mean?

A

Aerodrome unserviceable

62
Q

What does a “White Double Cross” mean?

A

Gliding OPS in progress

63
Q

If PAL is not being used, from what period do you need portable lighting available on for departure?

A

10mins before departure to 30mins after T/O

64
Q

If PAL is not being used, from what period do you need portable lighting available on for arrival?

A

30mins before ETA til when LDG and Taxi has been completed

65
Q

How long do the pulses need to be to activate PAL w/o AFRU?

A

3 secs “ON” x3 times w/ 1 sec “OFF” in between

66
Q

How long do the pulses need to be to activate PAL with AFRU?

A

1 sec “ON” x3 times w/ 1 sec “OFF” in between

67
Q

How long is PAL activated for? And what happens to the Wind Indicator Lighting after 20mins?

A

30mins… after 20mins Wind Indicator Lights flash at 1 sec intervals and the AFRU will transmit the message “RWY LIGHTS 10MINS REMAINING”

68
Q

If x2 altimeters are used, what must they be read within? What happens if x1 is out of tolerance?

A

60ft… x1 can read b/w 60-75ft up to the 1st point of LDG, if it still reads >60ft, it is unserviceable

69
Q

What must an aircraft operating under the IFR be navigated by?

A
  1. Use of an approved area navigation system (GPS)
  2. Use of a radio navigation system (NDB/VOR) on routes where, after making allowance for possible track errors of +/-9° from last positive fix, the aircraft can fall within coverage of another NAVAID to determine the current position of the aircraft… time interval b/w fixes not exceeding 2 hours
  3. Visual reference to ground or water by day
70
Q

What is a positive fix determined by?

A
  1. The passage over an NDB, VOR, TACAN, Marker Beacon or DME
  2. The intersection of x2 or more position lines which intersect at angles not < 45° and which are obtained from NDB’s, VOR’s, LOC’s or DME’s.
  3. GNSS
71
Q

If you obtain a positive fix using x2 NDB’s, what is the maximum range that they can be from one another?

A

30nm

72
Q

If you obtain a positive fix using any combination of x2 NAVAIDS (besides x2 NDB’s) what is the maximum range that they can be from one another?

A

Must fall within rated coverage of each AID

73
Q

What is the maximum amount of track deviation that you can have before you have to notify ATC?

A
  1. LOC/VOR/GNSS = Half Scale
  2. NDB = +/- 5°
  3. DME = +/- 2nm
  4. Visual Reference to Ground/Water = 1nm
74
Q

Do you need an ADSB Transponder if you need to fly IFR?

A

Yes

75
Q

When must you notify ATC in CTA if RAIM is not available?

A
  1. RAIM is lost for >5min
  2. During a terminal phase of flight — there is RAIM loss or loss of GNSS integrity
  3. DR mode or experiences loss of its
    navigation function for >1min
  4. The GNSS receives loss of navigation for >1min
76
Q

If RAIM comes back in CTA, must you notify ATC?

A

Yes

77
Q

Are you allowed to land at an airport with less than the Fixed Reserve Fuel?

A

No

78
Q

What period must a destination/alternate forecast be valid for in regards to planned ETA’s?

A

From 30min before to 60min after the planned ETA

79
Q

What is the order of preference in regards to submitting a flight notification?

A
  1. NAIPS
  2. In Writing
  3. By telephone
  4. Via ATC
80
Q

When can you be cleared a visual departure?

A

By day VMC, if ATC is assured that the pilot can maintain VMC up to either the MVA or the MSA/LSALT

81
Q

What must the pilot do if cleared a visual departure?

A
  1. Maintain HDG/TRK given from ATC
  2. Remain not <500ft ABV LL of CTA
  3. Visually maintain obstacle clearance
82
Q

Unless tracking via a SID, how far from the departure airport must you be established on-track by?

A

5nm

83
Q

When can ATC clear you for a visual approach BY DAY?

A
  1. Aircraft is within 30nm
  2. The pilot can continue flight to the airport w/ reference to ground or water
  3. Visibility is not <5000m
84
Q

When can ATC clear you for a visual approach BY NIGHT?

A
  1. Aircraft is within 30nm
  2. The pilot can continue flight to the airport w/ reference to ground or water
  3. Visibility is not <5000m
  4. If being vectored, the flight has been assigned an MVA and given HDG or tracking instructions to intercept final or to position the aircraft into the circling area
85
Q

If cleared a visual approach BY DAY, what distance from the airport must you maintain TRK/HDG to?

A

5nm

86
Q

If cleared a visual approach BY NIGHT, what distance from the airport must you maintain TRK/HDG to?

A

The circling area from the category of operation

87
Q

What distance from the threshold must you be established on final by during a straight-in approach?

A

3nm

88
Q

When can you cancel SARWATCH?

A
  1. Changing to the CTAF
  2. In the CCT Area
  3. After LDG
89
Q

When must you change your level after receiving that instruction from ATC?

A

ASAP and no later than 1 minute

90
Q

What does “STANDARD RATE” mean in regards to rates of climbs or descents?

A

Not <500ft/min until the last 1000ft which should be made at 500ft/min

91
Q

What must be considered when calculating the heights of a pilot-calculated LSALT?

A
  1. Obstacle >360ft above Terrain: +1000ft above highest obstacle
  2. Obstacle <360ft above Terrain: +1360ft above highest terrain
  3. Obstacle and Terrain <500ft: LSALT not <1500ft
92
Q

If not identified, when must you report your position to ATC?

A

Every 30min or 200nm (whichever is the least)

93
Q

On receipt of HDG instructions, what must the pilot do?

A

Immediately commence a Rate 1 turn

94
Q

If an aircraft is vectored onto final, what is the maximum degree of intercept that the pilot can expect?

A

45°

95
Q

Code for Class A, C & D Airspace or Class E IFR?

A

3000

96
Q

Code for Class G IFR?

A

2000

97
Q

Code for Class E and G VFR?

A

1200

98
Q

When can you select the Transponder to ON/ALT on departure?

A

On entering the RWY

99
Q

When must you select the Transponder to STBY/OFF on arrival?

A

ASAP after LDG

100
Q

What do you squawk in the following…
1. Hijacking
2. Radio Failure
3. Emergency

A
  1. 7500
  2. 7600
  3. 7700
101
Q

Visual Meteorological Conditions Class C

A

5000M
8KM
1500M HOR
1000FT VER

102
Q

Visual Meteorological Conditions Class D

A

5000M
8KM
600M HOR
1000FT ABOVE
500FT BELOW

103
Q

Approved sources of actual QNH are?

A

ATC and ATIS except when the aerodrome
forecast QNH is provided, AWIS and Bureau of Meteorology accredited
meteorological observers. An actual aerodrome QNH obtained from an approved
source is valid for a period of 15 minutes from the time of receipt.

104
Q

Circling area (NM & Obstacle clearance)?

A

A 1.68 300
B 2.66 300
C 4.20 400
D 5.28 400
E 6.94 500

105
Q

Flight tolerances for ILS app?

A

a. To ensure obstacle clearance, both LOC/GLS final approach course and
glideslope should be maintained within half scale deflection (or equivalent
on expanded scale).
b. If, at any time during the approach after the FAP, the LOC/GLS final
approach course or glideslope indicates full scale deflection a missed
approach should be commenced.

106
Q

Privilege of IFR Rating

A

Authorised to pilot an aircraft…
1. Under IFR
2. At night under VFR

107
Q

When are you authorised to conduct a circling approach?

A
  1. If you pass the flight test within the previous 12 months, and the flight test included a circling approach
  2. If your most recent IPC included a circling approach
  3. If you are operating in a check and training system which includes circling approaches
108
Q

How many approaches within 90 days must you do to keep your IR?

A

3 approaches either in a plane or an approved simulator

109
Q

How many 2D approaches within 90 days must you do to keep your IR?

A

1 approach either in a plane or an approved simulator

110
Q

How many 3D approaches within 90 days must you do to keep your IR?

A

1 approach either in a plane or an approved simulator

111
Q

How many Azimuth approaches within 90 days must you do to keep your IR?

A

1 approach either in a plane or an approved simulator

112
Q

How many CDI approaches within 90 days must you do to keep your IR?

A

1 approach either in a plane or an approved simulator

113
Q

How long is your IR valid for after passing your Flight Test/IPC?

A

12 months after the month in which the holder passes the flight test.

  • If the holder successfully completes an instrument proficiency check for the
    relevant aircraft within 3 months before the validity of the existing check expires,
    then the instrument proficiency check is valid to the end of the 12th month after
    the validity of the existing check.
114
Q

What are the minimum equipment requirements for IFR flight 2 pilots?

A

Approved GNSS

Automatic pilot system

(a) 2 x indicated airspeed;

The equipment must be capable of being connected to:

(a) an alternate source of static pressure that is selectable by a pilot; or

(b) a balanced pair of flush static ports.

  1. The equipment for measuring and displaying indicated airspeed must include a means of preventing malfunction due to condensation or icing.
  2. If more than 1 unit of indicated airspeed equipment is fitted, at least 1 of the units must include a means of preventing malfunction due to condensation or icing.
  3. The equipment must operate independently of other sources of indicated information.

(b) 2 x pressure altitude;

  1. The equipment must be capable of being connected to:

(a) an alternate source of static pressure that is selectable by a pilot; or

(b) a balanced pair of flush static ports.

(c) magnetic heading;

(d) time;

(e) 2 x slip (4,5);

(f) 2 x attitude;

  1. The equipment must have a primary power supply and an alternate power supply.
  2. The equipment must operate independently of other sources of turn and slip information.

(g) standby attitude;

(a) have a source of power independent of the electrical generating system; and

(b) operate independently of other sources of attitude information; and

(c) continue to operate without any action by a flight crew member for a period of 30 minutes following the failure of the electrical power-generating system.

(h) 2 x vertical speed;

  1. The equipment must be capable of being connected to:

(a) an alternate source of static pressure that is selectable by a pilot; or

(b) a balanced pair of flush static ports.

  1. The equipment must:

(a) be an instantaneous vertical speed indicator (IVSI); or

(i) stabilised heading;

The equipment must have a primary power supply and an alternate power supply.

(j) outside air temperature

Altitude alerting system and assigned altitude indicator — IFR flights (operating in CTA)

The altitude alerting equipment must:

(a) include an assigned altitude indicator; and

(b) alert the flight crew members if the aircraft approaches a preselected altitude; and

(c) alert the flight crew members, including by an aural or visual warning, if the aircraft deviates from a preselected altitude.

115
Q

What is the standard direction of a holding pattern?

A

Right, unless AIP chart depicts.

116
Q

The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft under the IFR in a single-pilot operation only if?

A

If the holder has conducted a flight or simulated flight under the IFR in a single-pilot operation within the previous 6 months.
The flight or simulated flight must:
(a) have a duration of at least one hour; and
(b) include at least one instrument approach or simulated instrument approach.

117
Q

Draw a right and left hand holding pattern.

A
118
Q

Explain a sector 1 entry for a holding pattern.

A

Parallel entry.

Turn onto the outbound track heading for the hold timing or DME limit if earlier. Turn onto the holding side to the fix and commence the hold.

119
Q

Explain a sector 2 entry for a holding pattern.

A

Sector entry.

On reaching the fix, turn 30 degrees to the reciprocal inbound track on the holding side.
For the appropriate time from the holding fix or DME limit, the aircraft is turned in the direction of the holding pattern inbound leg. Once over the holding fix, commence hold.

120
Q

Explain a sector 3 entry for a holding pattern.

A

Direct entry.

On reaching the holding fix, turn to follow the holding pattern.

121
Q

IFR cruising levels

A
122
Q

In each class of airspace, what are the separation provisions?

A

CLASS C:
IFR separated from IFR, special VFR and VFR
VFR is separated from IFR and receives traffic info on VFR, special VFR.
Special VFR flights are separated from special VFR then less than VMC.

CLASS D:
IFR is separated from IFR, special VFR and receives traffic info on VFR
VFR receives traffic info on all other flights.
Special VFR flights are separated from special VFR then less than VMC.

123
Q

CAVOK is used for what conditions?

A

10km vis or more
No cloud below 5000 of the highest 25nm MSA, whichever is higher. no CB
No wx of significance to aviation

124
Q

How do you calculate rate one turn?

A

TAS/10 + 7

125
Q

Actions for comm failure in Class G VFR?

A

Remain VMC
Broadcast intentions with ‘transmitting blind’
Remain in Class G and land at the most suitable airfield

126
Q

Actions for comm failure in CTA or IFR?

A

Squawk 7600
Listen out on ATIS
Transmit intentions and make normal position reports ‘transmitting blind’

And

If VMC, stay VMC and land at the most suitable airfield.

If IMC…

No clearance limit has been received and acknowledged, proceed in accordance with the latest ATC clearance and climb to the planned level.

If clearance limit with level or route restriction:
- maintain last assigned level for 3 min and/or
- hold at the nominated location for 3 min then
- proceed with the latest ATC route clearance

If receiving ATS surveillance service:
- climb to MSA/LSALT
- if being vectored, maintain for 2 min, then
- proceed with the latest ATC route clearance

If holding:
- fly one more hold, then proceed with the latest ATC route clearance

IFR Theory (3 decks)

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