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Instrument Rating > IFR Quick Review Sheets > Flashcards

IFR Quick Review Sheets Flashcards

Test of all information found on Pilotscafe.com IFR Quick Review Sheet.

1
Q

Minimum aeronautical experience requirements for an Airplane Instrument Rating

A
  • 50hrs XC PIC
    - Of which, 10hrs in Airplanes
  • 40hrs actual or simulated instrument time
    - Of which 15hrs with CFII
    - One XC Flight
    - 250nm
    - Along airways or directed by ATC routing
    - Instrument approach at EACH airport
    - 3 Different kinds of approaches using
    navigational systems
    - With a filed IFR flight plan
    - 3hrs in last 2 calendar months prior to practical
    exam
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2
Q

Personal documents required for flight

A
  1. 3
    - Pilot Certificate
    - Medical certificate
    - Authorized photo ID (Passport, DL, etc)
    - Restricted radiotelephone operator license (for outside US)
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3
Q

Aircraft documents required for flight

A

ARROW -
A - Airworthiness Certificate
R - Registration Certificate (valid dates)
R - Radio Station License (for outside US)
O - Operating Limitations & Aircraft Flight Manual
W - Weight and Balance Data
(21.5, 91.103, 91.9, 91.203, FCC form 605)

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4
Q

Aircraft maintenance required for IFR

A 
AVIATES
A - Annual Inspection (91.409)
V - VOR every 30 days (91.171)
I - 100hr Inspection (91.409)
A - Altimeter, every 24mo (91.413)
T - Transponder every 24mo (91.413)
E - ELT every 12mo (91.207)
S - Static System 24mo (91.413)
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5
Q

Preflight information required for IFR

A

WKRAFT

W - Weather reports and forecasts
K - Known traffic delays as advised by ATC
R - Runway length(s) of intended use
A - Alternatives available if flight cannot be completed
F - Fuel requirements
T - Takeoff and landing performance data

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6
Q

Preflight self-assessment

A

IM SAFE(R)

I - Illness
M- Medication
S - Stress
A - Alcohol
F - Fatigue
E - Emotion
R - Restroom
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7
Q

Risk Management and Personal Minimums Checklist

A 
PAVE
P - Pilot
A - Aircraft
V - enVironment
E -External Pressure
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8
Q

What time can be logged as instrument time?

A

A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft SOLELY BY REFERENCE TO INSTRUMENTS under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

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9
Q

Instrument PIC recency of experience requirements

A

6 HITS

In last 6 calendar months (actual or simulated or FTD/Simulator) in same AIRCRAFT CATEGORY:
6 - instrument approaches
H - Holding procedures and tasks
I - Intercept & 
T - Track courses through use of 
S - electronic navigation Systems
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10
Q

Instrument PIC recency using ATD

A

ATD = Approved PC based flight simulator

  • 3hrs instrument experience
  • Holding procedures & tasks
  • 6 instrument approaches
  • 2 unusual attitude recoveries in a descending Vne condition
  • 2 unusual attitude recoveries in an ascending stall speed configuration
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11
Q

What is required to be a safety pilot?

A

At least Private Pilot Certificate in same category and class as being flown.

Essentially, one person is VFR PIC, the other is control manipulator PIC.

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12
Q

6 HITS

A 
6 Instrument Approaches
H - Holding procedures & Tasks
I - Intercept &
T - Track courses through use of
S - electronic navigation Systems
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13
Q

PAVE

A

Pilot - General health, physical/mental/emotional state, proficiency, currency
Aircraft - Airworthiness, equipment, performance
enVironment - Weather hazards, terrain, airports/runways, TFRs, NOTAMS & other conditions
External Pressure - Meetings, people waiting at destination, “wasting” money, reservations

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14
Q

IM SAFE

A

Illness - are you sick, have you been sick recently
Medication - are you on or have you recently taken medication, or changed medication
Stress - Personal life events
Alcohol - 8hrs and
Fatigue - Rest & sustenance
Emotion - External pressures (get there/home itis)
(R)estroom - Have you gone recently?

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15
Q

WKRAFT

A

W - Weather Reports & Forecasts
K - Known traffic delays as advised by ATC
R - Runway length(s) of intended use
A - Alternatives available if flight cannot be completed
F - Fuel requirements
T - Takeoff and landing performance data

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16
Q

AVIATES

A 
Required Aircraft Inspection Items
A - Annual Inspection
V - VOR every 30 days
I - 100hr inspection
A - Altimeter every 24mo
T - Transponder every 24mo
E - ELT 12mo (60mins of use)
S - Static System every 24mo
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17
Q

ARROW

A 
A - Airworthiness Certificate
R - Registration Certificate
R - Radio Station License (for international)
O - Operating Limitations & AFM
W - Weight & Balance Data
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18
Q

When do you need an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC)?

A

After 12 consecutive months of not being IFR current.

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19
Q

Who can conduct an IPC?

A

CFII
DPE
or Approved Person

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20
Q

Can you complete an IPC in a simulator?

A
  • Certain IPC tasks (table in back of PTS/ACS) can be completed in an approved flight simulator or FTD.
  • Full IPC can only be done in certain full-motion simulators.
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21
Q

Requirements to carry passengers as PIC

A
  • 3 takeoffs & landings in last 90 days in same category, class & type.
  • Night: 1hr after sunset to 1hr before sunset, 3 takeoffs & landings to full stop in last 90 days.
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22
Q

Requirements to act as PIC

A

Flight review in last 24 cal. months.

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23
Q

Flight review exceptions

A
  • FAA proficiency award program
  • Earned new certificate
  • Student pilot currently training with current solo flight endorsement as req. by 61.87.
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24
Q

When is an IFR flight plan required to be filed?

A

For any flight in controlled airspace under IFR.

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25
Q

How do you file an IFR flight plan?

A
  • Flight Service Station
    • In Person
    • By Radio
    • Telephone
  • DUATS (online)
  • ATC
    • Radio
    • Phone
  • at least 30 min prior to est. departure time
  • Stays in system for 1.5hrs from proposed time of DEPARTURE.
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26
Q

How do you cancel an IFR flight plan?

A

AIM 5-1-14

  • Towered Airports - Automatically cancelled by ATC upon landing.
  • Non-towered Airports - You must contact ATC/FSS.
  • Can cancel through anytime not in IMC and outside of class A airspace.
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27
Q

Where do you find Preferred IFR routes?

A

Back of the Chart Supplement (A/FD)

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28
Q

When should Preferred IFR Routes be filed?

A

If a preferred route is published to your destination airport.

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29
Q

Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP)

A

AIM 5-2-8
- Only provides obstruction clearance
- May be flown without an ATC clearance unless a SID or other instructions are assigned (e.g. radar vectors)
- Graphic ODP denote “Obstacle” in chart title
- All new RANV ODPs are available in graphical form.
- Found in the front of Terminal Procedures, arranged alphabetically by city name.
Jeppesen charts show ODPs under the airport diagram (x0-9) page, or, at larger airports, on a separate chart.

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30
Q

Standard Instrument Departures (SID)

A

AIM 5-2-8
- Provide obstruction clearance
- Simplify ATC Clearances
- Helps reduce radio congestion and workload.
- Pilot NAV SIDs - Pilot navigates by charted routes with minimal radio instructions.
- Vector SIDS - Navigation is based on radar vectors. Routes are not printed on the chart.
Some SIDs depict non-standard radio failure procedures.
- File “NO SIDS” in the remarks of your flight plan if you choose not to use them.
- RNAV SIDs and all graphical RNAV ODPs require RANV 1 performance (+/- 1NM for 95% of the total flight time).

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31
Q

Standard Terminal Arrivals (STAR)

A

AIM 5-4-1

  • Serves as transition from en route structure to a point from which an approach can begin.
  • Transitions routes connect en route fixes to the basic STAR procedure
  • Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins
  • State “No STARs” in flight plan remarks to not use them.
  • RNAV STARs require RNAV 1 performance.
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32
Q

What rule can you use to determine if you need an alternate?

A

1-2-3 Rule

  • 1hr before to 1hr after ETA
  • 2000’ ceiling
  • 3sm visibility
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33
Q

1-2-3 Rule

A

Rule for filing an alternate

  • 1hr before to 1hr after ETA
  • 2000’ ceiling
  • 3sm visibility
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34
Q

Minimum weather conditions required at alternate.

A

6 & 2, 8 & 2

  • Precision approach: 6 & 2
    • 600’ ceiling & 2sm vis
  • Non-Precision aprch: 8 & 2
    • 800’ ceiling & 2sm vis
  • No instrument approach
    • ceiling and vis allow decent from MEA, approach and landing under basic VFR.
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35
Q

6 & 2 ; 8 & 2 Rules

A

Precision and non-precision weather requirements to file an airport as an alternate.

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36
Q

IFR Minimum Fuel Requirements

A 
FAR 91.167
Departure to Destination
\+
Destination to Alternate
\+ 
45 mins at normal cruise
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37
Q

IFR Cruising Altitudes

A
  • Based on Magnetic COURSE
  • 0-179 (E) = Odd thousands
  • 180-359 (W) = Even thousands
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38
Q

Basic IFR Departure Clearance Items

A 
CRAFT
C - Clearance
R - Route
A - Altitude
F - Frequency
T - Transponder Code
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39
Q

CRAFT

A

Basic IFR Departure Clearance Items

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40
Q

Clearance Void Time

A

CVT
The time at which your clearance is voide and after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 mins after CVT if you did not depart.

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41
Q

“Hold for release”

A

You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure

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42
Q

Release Time

A

The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR.

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43
Q

Expect Departure Clearance Time

A

EDCT
A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 mins from the EDCT.

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44
Q

Abbreviated departure clearance

A

“Cleared (…) AS FILED (…)”

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45
Q

Mandatory Reports under IFR

A

MARVELOUS VFR C500
M - Missed approach
A - Airspeed +/- 10kts or 5% change of filed TAS
R - Reaching a holding fix (report time and alt)
V - VFR on top
E* - ETA change +/- 3min (in non radar environment only)
L - Leaving a holding fix/point
O - Outer Marker
U - Unforecasted Weather
S - Safety of Flight
V - Vacating an altitude/FL
F* - Final approach fix (in non radar environment only)
R - Radio/Nav Failure
C* - Compulsory reporting points (in non radar environment only)
500 - Unable climb/descend 500fpm

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46
Q

MARVELOUS VFR C500

A

Mandatory reporting points
M - Missed approach
A - Airspeed +/- 10kts or 5% change of filed TAS
R - Reaching a holding fix (report time and alt)
V - VFR on top
E* - ETA change +/- 3min (in non radar environment only)
L - Leaving a holding fix/point
O - Outer Marker
U - Unforecasted Weather
S - Safety of Flight
V - Vacating an altitude/FL
F* - Final approach fix (in non radar environment only)
R - Radio/Nav Failure
C* - Compulsory reporting points (in non radar environment only)
500 - Unable climb/descend 500fpm

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47
Q

Position Report Items

A
  • Aircraft ID
  • Position
  • Time
  • Altitude/FL
  • Type of flight plan (except for comm w/ ARTCC/apch ctrl)
  • ETA
  • Name of next succeeding reporting point along route
  • Any pertinent remarks
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48
Q

IFR Takeoff Minimums

A 
- No T/O mins for Part 91 Ops.
Part 121, 125, 129, 135
- Prescribed T/O mins for specific runway, or, if none;
- 1-2 engines: 1sm vis
- More than 2 engines: 1/2SM vis
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49
Q

Holding Pattern Timing

A
  • Adjust the outbound leg inbound leg takes:
    • 1min (at or below 14,000’)
    • 1.5min (abv 14,000’)
  • DME/GPS holds - Fly outbound leg to specified distance from fix/waypoint
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50
Q

Max Holding Speeds

A 
AIM 5-3-7
-Standard
  0 - 6000' MSL - 200KIAS
  6001' - 14,000' MSL - 230KIAS
  \+ 14,000' MSL - 265KIAS
- Some approaches restrict to 175KIAS
- Airforce Fields - 310KIAS
- Navy Fields - 230KIAS
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51
Q

DA/H

A

Decision Altitude/Height

Missed Approach Height MSL for Precision Approach

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52
Q

MAA

A

Maximum Authorized Altitude

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53
Q

MCA

A

Minimum Crossing Altitude

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54
Q

MDA/H

A 
Minimum Descent Altitude/Height
Minimum height (MSL) allowed on Non-Precision Approach, after FAF, before MAP.
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55
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude

  • Assures Nav Coverage
  • 1000’ obst clearance (non mtn terrain)
  • 2000’ obst clearance (mtn terrain)
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56
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude

  • Within 22NM of NAV AID
  • Nav coverage
  • Obstacle clearance
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57
Q

MORA

A

Minimum Off-Route Altitude

  • 10nm off route CL
  • 10nm radius around ends of route
  • 1000’non mntn / 2000’ mntn
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58
Q

MRA

A

Minimum Reception Altitude

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59
Q

MVA

A

Minimum Vector Altitude

  • Terrain separation when vectored by ATC
  • MUST be under radar control
  • Often lower than MSA
  • 1000’ abv non mntn
  • 2000’ abv mntn
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60
Q

OROCA

A 
Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude
Assures:
- obstacle clearance within 4nm of course. 
- 1000' over non-mountainous terrain
- 2000' over mountainous terrain
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61
Q

1600’ RVR

A

1/4sm visibility

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62
Q

2400’ RVR

A

1/2sm visibility

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63
Q

3200’ RVR

A

5/8sm visibility

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64
Q

4000’ RVR

A

3/4sm visibility

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65
Q

4500’ RVR

A

7/8sm visibility

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66
Q

5000’ RVR

A

1sm visibility

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67
Q

6000’ RVR

A

1 1/4sm visibility

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68
Q

Lost Communications Altitude Procedure

A 
FAR 91.185
MEA (Highest of the following)
M - Minimum altitude prescribed for IFR
E - Expected (eg "expect 5000' after 10 minutes")
A - Last altitude Assigned by ATC
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69
Q

Lost Communications Route Procedure

A 
FAR 91.185
AVEF
A - Assigned route, if none:
V - Vectored (fly to the fix/route/airway last vectored to), if none:
E - Last Expected route by ATC, if none:
F - Filed route
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70
Q

If communications are lost, when can you leave the clearance limit if the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins?

A

Start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC, or ETA (if not EFC given).

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71
Q

If communications are lost, when can you leave the clearance limit if the clearance limit is NOT a fix from which an approach begins?

A

At EFC or clearance limit (if no EFC given), proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start the approach.

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72
Q

Do NOT fly a procedure turn when:

A 
FAR 91.175, AIM 5-4-9
SHARP-TT
S - Straight in approach
H - Holding in lieu of a procedure turn
A - Arc
R - Radar vectored to final app course
P - "No PT" depicted on chart
T - Timed approach
T - Teardrop course reversal
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73
Q

When can you descend below MDA/?

A

FAR 91.175 Must meet ALL conditions
1 - Aircraft continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers
2 - Flight visibility not less than that of the approach being used.
3 - Runway environment is distinctly visible and identifiable to pilot.

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74
Q

What can be used as visual references to identify the runway environment?

A 
FAR 91.175
1 - The approach light system, except you may descend below 100' above TDZ only if red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable.
2 - Threshold
3 - Threshold Markings
4 - Threshold lights
5 - Runway end Identifier Lights (REIL)
6 - Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)
7 - Touchdown zone or its markings
8 - Touchdown zone lights
9 - runway or runway markings
10 - Runway lights
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75
Q

CAT A Approach Speed and Distance

A

1.3Vso: <90kts

Circling Radius: 1.3NM

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76
Q

CAT B Approach Speed and Distance

A

1.3Vso: 91-120kts

Circling Radius: 1.5NM

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77
Q

CAT C Approach Speed and Distance

A

1.3Vso: 121-140kts

Circling Radius: 1.7NM

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78
Q

CAT D Approach Speed and Distance

A

1.3Vso: 141-165kts

Circling Radius: 2.3NM

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79
Q

CAT E Approach Speed and Distance

A

1.3Vso: >165kts

Circling Radius: 4.5NM

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80
Q

Instrument Approach Types

A
  • Precision: Lateral & Vertical Course Guidance
  • Non-Precision: Lateral Guidance Only
  • APV: Approach with Vertical Guidance - Has glide slope but does not meet ICAO precision approach standards
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81
Q

Examples of Precision Approaches

A
  • ILS - Instrument Landing System
  • MLS - Microwave Landing System
  • PAR - Precision Approach Radar
  • GLS - GNSS Landing System
  • TLS - Transponder Landing System
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82
Q

Examples of Non-Precision Approaches

A
  • VOR
  • NDB
  • RNAV/GNSS (LNAV minimums)
  • LOC
  • LDA - Localizer-type Directional Aid. Identical to a localizer but is not aligned with the runway.
  • SDF - Simplified Directional Facility. Width 6deg or 12deg. May be either aligned or not w/ runway.
  • ASR - Approach Surveillance Radar
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83
Q

Examples of APV Approaches

A
  • RNAV/GNSS (LNAV/VNAV, LPV, baro-VNAV minimums)

- LDA w/ a glide slope

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84
Q

Wen can you descend to next instrument approach segment?

A

AIM 5-4-7

When cleared for the approach AND established on a segment of a published approach or route.

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85
Q

Standard rate turn angle of bank calculation

A

TAS / 10 + 5
Example 120KTAS
120 / 10 = 12 + 5 = 17deg of bank

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86
Q

What is the Visual Descent Point (VDP)?

A

A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin provided adequate visual reference is established.

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87
Q

What if you do not have the equipment to identify the VDP?

A

Fly the approach as if no VDP is published.

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88
Q

What do you do if there is no published VDP?

A

Calculate it via
HAT/300 = NM
or
10% of HAT = seconds to subtract from time to MAP

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89
Q

Requirements for Contact Approach Clearance

A
  • Must be specifically requested by pilot (cannot be initiated by ATC)
  • Requires at least 1sm reported ground vis
  • Must stay clear of clouds
  • Available only at airports w/ approved IAPs
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90
Q

Requirements for Visual Approach Clearance

A
  • Can be initiated by ATC or Pilot
  • Requires at least 1000’ ceiling and 3sm vis (IFr under VMC)
  • Pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to follow in sight
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91
Q

Minimum Equipment Required for VFR Day Flight

A

FAR 91.205
A TOMATO FLAMES
A - Altimeter

T - Tach for each engine
O - Oil temp for each engine
M - Manifold pressure for each altitude engine
A - Airspeed Indicator
T - Temp for each liquid cooled engine
O - Oil Pressure gauge for each engine
F - Fuel qty for each tank
L - Landing gear position lights
A - Anti-collision lights
M - Magnetic direction indicator (compass)
E - ELT (if req by 91.207)
S - Safety belts / shoulder harnesses
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92
Q

Minimum Equipment Required for VFR Night Flight

A

FAR 91.205
A TOMATO FLAMES FLAPS
A - Altimeter

T - Tach for each engine
O - Oil temp for each engine
M - Manifold pressure for each altitude engine
A - Airspeed Indicator
T - Temp for each liquid cooled engine
O - Oil Pressure gauge for each engine

F - Fuel qty for each tank
L - Landing gear position lights
A - Anti-collision lights (all arcft after March 11, 1996)
M - Magnetic direction indicator (compass)
E - ELT (if req by 91.207)
S - Safety belts / shoulder harnesses

F - Fuses (spare set)
L - Landing Light (if for hire)
A - Anti-collision lights
P - Position Lights (nav lights)
S - Source of Power (battery)
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93
Q

Minimum Equipment required for IFR Day Flight

A

FAR 91.205
A TOMATO FLAMES GRAB CARD
A - Altimeter

T - Tach for each engine
O - Oil temp for each engine
M - Manifold pressure for each altitude engine
A - Airspeed Indicator
T - Temp for each liquid cooled engine
O - Oil Pressure gauge for each engine

F - Fuel qty for each tank
L - Landing gear position lights
A - Anti-collision lights (all arcft after March 11, 1996)
M - Magnetic direction indicator (compass)
E - ELT (if req by 91.207)
S - Safety belts / shoulder harnesses

G - Generator/Alternator
R - Radios (2 way & nav equip appropriate for ground facilities being used)
A - Altimeter (sensitive)
B - Ball (slip-skid indicator)

C - Clock (shows hrs:mins:seconds) installed as part of aircraft equipment
A - Attitude Indicator
R - Rate of turn indicator
D - Directional Gyro (Heading Indicator)

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94
Q

Minimum Equipment required for IFR Night Flight NJ

A

FAR 91.205
A TOMATO FLAMES FLAPS GRAB CARD
A - Altimeter

T - Tach for each engine
O - Oil temp for each engine
M - Manifold pressure for each altitude engine
A - Airspeed Indicator
T - Temp for each liquid cooled engine
O - Oil Pressure gauge for each engine

F - Fuel qty for each tank
L - Landing gear position lights
A - Anti-collision lights (all arcft after March 11, 1996)
M - Magnetic direction indicator (compass)
E - ELT (if req by 91.207)
S - Safety belts / shoulder harnesses

F - Fuses (spare set)
L - Landing Light (if for hire)
A - Anti-collision lights
P - Position Lights (nav lights)
S - Source of Power (battery)

G - Generator/Alternator
R - Radios (2 way & nav equip appropriate for ground facilities being used)
A - Altimeter (sensitive)
B - Ball (slip-skid indicator)

C - Clock (shows hrs:mins:seconds) installed as part of aircraft equipment
A - Attitude Indicator
R - Rate of turn indicator
D - Directional Gyro (Heading Indicator)

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95
Q

A TOMATO FLAMES

A

Equipment required for VFR Day Flight

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96
Q

A TOMATO FLAMES FLAPS

A

Equipment required for VFR Night Flight

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97
Q

A TOMATO FLAMES GRAB CARD

A

Equipment required for IFR Day Flight

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98
Q

A TOMATO FLAMES FLAPS GRAB CARD

A

Equipment required for IFR Night Flight

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99
Q

When can you operate with inoperative Instruments/Equipment with a MEL?

A

Follow the MEL’s provisions

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100
Q

When can you operate with inoperative instruments/equipment and there is no MEL?

A
  • Is the inop equipment required by:
    • 91.205 or other regulations for kind of operations?
    • Airworthiness Directive?
    • Equipment list or kind of operations equipment list?
    • VFR-day certification requirements?
      If NO to ALL of the above:
  • Equipment must be removed or
  • Deactivated and placarded “inactive”.
  • Pilot/mechanic determines safe to fly
    If YES to ANY of the above:
  • No flying without a special flight permit.
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101
Q

Terminal VOR Service Volume

A

1000’ - 12,000’

25NM radius

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102
Q

Low VOR Service Volume

A

1000’ - 18,000’

40NM radius

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103
Q

High VOR Service Volume

A

1000’-14,500’: 40nm
14,500’-18,000’: 100nm
18,000’-45,000’: 130nm
45,000’-60,000’: 100nm

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104
Q

VOR Basic Information

A
  • VOR: VHF Omni-directional Range
  • 108.0 - 117.95MHz excluding 108.10-111.95 w/ odd tenths
  • Full scale deflection: 10degrees
  • Standard service volumes do not apply to published routes
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105
Q

What are the ILS frequencies?

A

108.10-111.95MHz w/ odd tenths

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106
Q

Calculate Distance Off Course

A

200’ per dot per NM from VOR

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107
Q

Calculate Distance to Station

A

TAS x Mins for bearing change / deg of bearing change

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108
Q

Calculate Time to Station

A

Seconds for bearing change / Degrees of bearing change

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109
Q

VOR Limitations

A
  • Cone of Confusion
  • Reverse sensing when used incorrectly
  • Requires LOS to station
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110
Q

VOR Receiver Checks

A

FAR 91.171

  • VOT: 4deg
  • Repair Station: 4deg
  • Ground Checkpoint: 4deg
  • Dual VOR Crosscheck: 4deg
  • Airborne Checkpoint: 6deg
  • Above prominent ground landmark: 6deg - Selected radial at 20nm from VOR, flying at “reasonably low altitude”
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111
Q

VOR Check Signoff

A 
FAR 91.171
DEPS
D - Date
E - Error
P - Place
S - Signature
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112
Q

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) Basic Info

A
  • 962-1213 MHz (UHF)
  • Normally automatically tuned with a paired VHF (VOR/LOC) station.
  • Airborne DME emits “interrogation signal”
  • Ground DME facility receives and replies to interrogation signal.
  • Time passed is used to calculate slant range from aircraft to station.
  • Error negligible at 1NM/1000’
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113
Q

NDB

A
  • Non-Directional Beacon
  • 190-535 KHz (can receive and point towards commercial radio AM stations 550-1650KHz)
  • Low to medium frequency band
  • ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) in aircraft points towards NDB
  • Magnetic Bearing = Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing
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114
Q

NDB Service Volume Classes

A
  • Compass Locator: 15NM
  • Medium High (MH): 25NM
  • High (H): 50NM (may be less, as published in NOTAM or AF/D)
  • High High (HH): 75NM
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115
Q

ILS Components

A
  • Localizer (Lateral Guidance)
  • Glide Slop (Vertical Guidance)
  • Marker Beacons (Range guidance)
  • Approach Light System
116
Q

ILS Localizer Info

A
  • 108.1 to 111.95 MHz at odd tenths
  • 3-6 degrees wide
    • Width @ threshold is 700’. Usually 5degrees total width (2.5 either direction)
  • 35degrees to each side of CL for first 10nm.
  • 10 degrees 10 - 18nm from antenna & up to altitude of 4500’
117
Q

Glide Slope Info

A
  • 329.3 to 335 MHz (UHF)
    • Automatically tuned/paired w/ localizer frequency.
  • 1.4 degrees total deflection (0.7 either direction)
  • 10nm range
  • 2.5-3.5 degree slope (3 std)
  • Errors: False glide slope above normal glide slope
118
Q

Marker Beacon Info

A
  • Provides range info over specific points along the approach. Transmits @ 75 MHz
  • Outer Marker - 4-7 Miles out. Indicate position at which aircraft should intercept GS at appropriate altitude +/-50’. Blue. —
  • Middle Marker - ~3500’ from runway. Indicates approx point where GS meets DH/DA. Usually 200’ above TDZE. Amber. .-.-
  • Inner Marker - Between MM and runway threshold. Indicates point where glide slope meets DH on CAT II ILS. White. …
  • Back Course Marker - indicates FAF on selected back course approaches (not part of ILS approach). White. .. ..
119
Q

Outer Marker

A
  • 4-7 miles out
  • GS Intercept +/- 50’.
  • Blue light
  • ”- - -“
120
Q

Middle Marker

A
  • 3500’ from runway.
  • GS meets DA/DH (typ 200’ above TDZE)
  • Amber
  • ”. - . -“
121
Q

Inner Marker

A
  • Between MM & Runway Threshold
  • CAT II DH/DA
  • White
  • ” . . . “
122
Q

Back Course Marker

A
  • FAF on selected back course approaches
  • NOT PART OF ILS
  • White
  • ”.. ..”
123
Q

Compass Locator

A
  • Low-power NDB transmitter (@least 25 Watts & 15NM range)
  • Installed together w/ OM or MM on some ILS
124
Q

Approach Lighting System (ALS)

A
  • Helps transition between radio-guided flights into visual approach
  • Can help in estimating flight visibility if you know dims of the specific ALS configuration
125
Q

ILS CAT I Visibility & DH

A
  • 2400’ or 1800’

- 200’

126
Q

ILS CAT II Visibility & DH

A
  • 1200’

- 100’

127
Q

ILS CAT IIIa Visibility & DH

A
  • > 700’

- <100’ or no DH

128
Q

ILS CAT IIIb Visibility & DH

A
  • 150’ to 700’

- <50’ or no DH

129
Q

ILS CAT IIIc Visibility & DH

A
  • 0 vis

- No DH

130
Q

How to calculate Rateo fo descent for a 3degree glide slope

A
  • GS x 5 = VS to maintain
    • 120kts x 5 = 600FPM
  • 10 x GS / 2 = VS
    • 10 x 120Kts = 1200 / 2 = 600 FPM
131
Q

How to calculate distance to descend (3deg GS)

A
  • Altitude to lose / 300
    • 6000’/300 = 20nm
  • Altitude to lose / 100 / 3
    • 6000/100 = 60 / 3 = 20nm
132
Q

How to convert climb gradient from ft/nm to FPM

A

ft/nm x NM per minute

300ft/nm x (120kts/60min= 2nm/min) = 600fpm

133
Q

Area Navigation Info

A
  • RNAV

- Allows nav on any desired course and does not require flying to or from any ground facility.

134
Q

Types of RNAV

A
  • Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
    • GPS (USA)
    • Galileo (EU)
    • GLONASS (Russia)
  • VOR/DME RNAV
  • DME/DME RNAV (uses two DME signals to find position)
  • Inertial Reference Unit/System (IRU/IRS)
  • Long Range Navigation (LORAN)
135
Q

Required Navigation Performance

A

RNP

  • A statement of required navigation accuracy at a given airspace and of available aircraft capability
  • Aircraft Capability + level of service = access
  • En route - RNP 2.0 (2nm accuracy 95% of flight time)
  • Terminal & Departure - RNP 1.0 (1nm accuracy 95% of flight time)
  • Approach - RNP 0.3 (0.3nm accuracy 95% of time)
136
Q

RNAV/VNAV

A

Provides Vertical Navigation guidance.

137
Q

RNAV Q Routes

A
  • FL180 to FL450

- RNAV 1 unless charted otherwise

138
Q

RNAV T Routes

A
  • 1,200AGL to 18,00MSL

- RNAV 1 unless charted otherwise

139
Q

Magnetic Reference Bearing (MRB)

A

The published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV/GPS/GNSS route

140
Q

What is GPS?

A
  • A Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) operated by the USA
141
Q

What is GPS made of?

A
  • Constellation of a minimum of 24 satellites (with some spares), orbiting above the earth at 10,900NM. System is designed so that at least 5 satellites are in view at any given location on earth.
142
Q

How does GPS work?

A
  • Time lapse between transmission broadcast *as obtained from the atomic clocks on the satelite) to the time it was received by the aircraft receiver, is translated into distance (pseudo-range). Using one satellite, the aircraft could virtually be on any point on a sphere surrounding the satellite, with the calculated pseudo-range as the sphere’s radius.
  • GPS uses the intersection of spheres, from multiple satellites, to calculate the aircraft’s geological position. - - - Course and speed data re computed from aircraft position changes.
143
Q

Airborne GPS units use _______ courses for navigation.

A

Great-circle

144
Q

What does GPS GPS CDI deflection show, compared to VOR CDI?

A
  • GPS CDI deflection shows distance off course in NM

- VOR CDI deflection shows angular distance off course in degrees.

145
Q

How many satellites are required for 2d positioning?

A

At least 3

146
Q

How many satellites are required for 3d positioning?

A

At least 4

147
Q

What function of GPS receivers monitors the integrity of satellite signals?

A

RAIM

Random Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

148
Q

What is RAIM

A

Random Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

  • monitors the integrity of the satellite signals
  • Fault detection: requires a minimum of 5 satellites
    • Can be substituted with baro-aided RAIM, 4 satellites + altimeter input.
  • Fault Exclusion: 6 satellites or 5+baro-aid are used to eliminate corrupt satellite.
149
Q

What is RAIM Fault Detection?

A

Standard RAIM, using at elast 5 satellites (or 4 + baro-aid) to ensure signal integrity.

150
Q

What is RAIM Fault Exclusion?

A

RAIM that uses at least 6 satellites (or 5 + baro-aid) to ensure signal integrity, and include redundancy for a corrupt satellite/signal.

151
Q

What information is contained on the GPS receiver?

A

Navigational data including:

  • airports
  • navaids
  • routes
  • waypoints
  • instrument procedures
152
Q

What may an IFR-certified GPS used to substitute?

A
  • ADF
  • DME
  • NOT for NDB without a GPS overlay ( without a “or GPS” in title).
153
Q

What GPS related items should be checked before each flight?

A
  • GPS related NOTAMS
  • RAIM Prediction
  • WAAS
154
Q

What is Differential GPS (DGPS)?

A

Improves the accuracy of GPS by measuring errors received by reference stations at known geographical locations, and then broadcasting those errors to supported GPS receivers.

  • Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)
  • Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS)
155
Q

Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)

A
  • Errors are broadcast from known geographic location back to a satellite, and then to aircraft equipped with GPS WAAS receivers.
  • Covers a wide area.
  • Allows for APV approaches such as LPV and LNAV/VNAV
156
Q

Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS)

A
  • Errors are broadcast via VHF to LAAS-enabled GPS receivers.
  • More accurate than WAAS,
  • Covers a much smaller geographical area.
  • Allows for category 1 and above approaches if equipped.
157
Q

What are the different types of altitude?

A

T PADI

  • True
  • Pressure
  • Absolute
  • Density
  • Indicated
158
Q

Indicated Altitude

A

Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting (QNH).

159
Q

Pressure Altitude

A

Altitude above the standard 29.92Hg plane (QNE).

160
Q

Density Altitude

A

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. Used for performance calculations.

161
Q

True Altitude

A

Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL)

162
Q

Absolute Altitude

A

Height above airport elevation (QFE).

163
Q

Types of Speeds

A
  • Indicated (IAS)
  • Calibrated (CAS)
  • Equivalent (EAS)
  • True (TAS)
  • Mach number
  • Ground (GS)
164
Q

Indicated Airspeed (IAS)

A

Indicated on the airspeed indicator

165
Q

Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)

A

IAS corrected for instrument & position errors

166
Q

Equivalent Airspeed

A

CAS corrected for compressibility errors.

167
Q

True Airspeed (TAS)

A

Actual speed through the air. EAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure

168
Q

Mach Number

A

The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound

169
Q

Ground Speed

A

Actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions.

170
Q

What happens when the Static Port is blocked?

A
  • Airspeed Indicator: Decreases as altitude increases.
  • Altimeter: Stays at altitude where it was blocked
  • VSI: Stays at zero
171
Q

How do you correct a blocked static port?

A
  • Switch to alternate static source

- Break VSI window (allow VSI to vent somehow)

172
Q

How do the instruments change when using the alternate static port?

A
  • Static pressure is lower than from primary (external) port.
  • Airspeed Indicator: Indicates faster
  • Altimeter: Indicates higher
  • VSI: Momentarily shows climb, then is accurate.
173
Q

How do the instruments change if using the VSI as the static port?

A
  • Static pressure is lower
  • Airspeed Indicator: Indicates faster
  • Altimeter: Indicates higher
  • VSI: Indicates in reverse
174
Q

What happens when the Pitot is blocked?

A
  • Only the Airspeed indicator is affected
  • Ram air inlet blocked & drain hole open: Airspeed wil drop to zero
  • Both Ram air and drain hole clogged: The Airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable.
175
Q

What do you do if you suspect a pitot blockage?

A

Consider using pitot heat to melt ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube.

176
Q

Class A VFR Requirments

A

TRICK QUESTION!

IFR only in Class A

177
Q

Class B VFR Requirements

A
  • 3SM

- Clear of Clouds

178
Q

Class C VFR Requirements

A

3152

  • 3sm
  • 1000’ above
  • 500’ below
  • 2000’ horizontal
179
Q

Class D VFR Requirements

A

3152

  • 3sm
  • 1000’ above
  • 500’ below
  • 2000’ horizontal
180
Q

Class E VFR Requirements

A

Below 10,000’ MSL: 3152

Above 10,000’ MSL: 5111

181
Q

Class G VFR Requirements

A

DAY
<1200’AGL: 1SM, Clear of Clouds
>1200’AGL<10,000’MSL: 1152
>10,000’MSL: 5111

NIGHT
<1200’AGL: 3152 or 1sm CoC in traffic pattern
>1200’AGL<10,000’MSL: 3152
>10,000’MSL: 5111

182
Q

Airspace with 3152 Requirements

A
  • C
  • D
  • E Below 10,000’
  • G Night only, below 10,000’
183
Q

Airspace with 5111 Requirements

A
  • E Above 10,000’

- G Above 10,000’

184
Q

Requirements for Special VFR

A
  1. 157
    - ATC Clearance
    - Clear of Clouds
    - 1sm
    - IFR current if at night
185
Q

When can you depart SVFR?

A
  • Ground vis 1sm

- If no ground vis reported, 1nm flight vis

186
Q

What are the flight categories?

A
  • VFR (basic VFR) - Green
  • MVFR (Marginal VFR) - Blue
  • IFR - Red
  • LIFR (Low IFR) - Magenta
187
Q

Basic VFR Flight Category

A
  • Green
  • > 5sm vis
  • > 3000’ ceiling
188
Q

MVFR Flight Category

A
  • Blue
  • 3-5sm
  • 1000’-3000’ ceiling
189
Q

IFR Flight Category

A
  • Red
  • 1 to <3sm
  • 500’ to <1000’ ceiling
190
Q

LIFR Flight Category

A
  • Magenta
  • <1sm
  • <500’ ceiling
191
Q

What are the basic principles of gyroscopic instruments?

A
  • Rigidity in space

- Precession

192
Q

What are the typical gyroscopic instruments?

A
  • Attitude Indicator
  • Heading Indicator
  • Turn Indicator
193
Q

What gyroscopic principle does the Attitude Indicator use?

A

Rigidity in space

194
Q

What information is shown on the Attitude Indicator?

A
  • Bank

- Pitch

195
Q

What errors can be seen in the Attitude Indicator?

A
  • May have tumble limit
  • May pitch up with acceleration
  • May pitch down with deceleration
  • May show bank in opposite direction when rolling out of 180degree turn
196
Q

What is the maximum time before the AI shows corredct attitude?

A

5 mins after engine start

197
Q

What gyroscopic principle does the Heading Indicator use?

A

Rigidity in space

198
Q

What information is shown on the Heading Indicator?

A
  • Reflects CHANGES in heading only.

- Must be calibrated to known heading

199
Q

What errors can be seen in the Heading Indicator?

A
  • Incorrect heading due to lack of calibration/slave

- Gyroscopic precession can cause unslaved HI’s to accumulate heading errors.

200
Q

What is the typical power source for the Attitude Indicator?

A
  • Vacuum

- Electric becoming common as well

201
Q

What is the typical power source for the Heading indicator?

A
  • Vacuum
202
Q

What gyroscopic principle do Turn Indicators use?

A
  • Gyroscopic Precession
203
Q

Turn Coordinators show

A
  • Rate of turn

- Rate of Roll

204
Q

Turn and Slip Indicators show

A

Rate of turn only

205
Q

What is the typical power source for Turn Indicators?

A

Typically Electric

206
Q

What is AHRS?

A

Attitude Heading Reference Systems

207
Q

What do AHRS provide?

A

Provides more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional, separate gyro systems.

208
Q

How do AHRS work?

A
  • Older models use laser gyros and flux valves

- Newer models are solid state, making them cheaper and easier to maintain.

209
Q

What is ADC?

A

Air Data Computers

210
Q

What do ADC provide?

A
  • IAS
  • TAS
  • VS
  • Alt
211
Q

How do ADC work?

A

Receives input from pitot, static, and OAT systems and computes information into speed and altitude information.

212
Q

What is a Flight Director?

A
  • Computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist pilot in flying selected heading, course, or vertical speed.
213
Q

What is FMS?

A

Flight Management System

214
Q

What does the FMS do?

A
  • Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director throughout the flight.
  • Automatically monitors and selects most appropriate navigation source for accurate positioning (GPS, VOR/DME, INS, etc)
215
Q

What is EFIS?

A

Electronic Flight Instrument Systems

AKA Glass Cockpit

216
Q

What is PFD?

A

Primary Flight Display

  • Shows flight data such as attitude, altitude, airspeed, VSI, heading, and rate tapes.
  • Essentially your “6 pack” replacement
217
Q

What is MFD?

A

Multi-Function Display

  • Displays variety of info such as moving maps, aircraft systems status’, weather, and traffic.
  • May also be used as backup for other displays such as PFD or EICAS
218
Q

Magnetic Compass errors & limitations

A 
DVMONA
D - Deviation
V - Variation
M - Magnetic Dip
O - Oscillation
N - North/South Turning Errors (UNOS)
A - Acceleration Errors (ANDS)
219
Q

Magnetic Deviation

A

Errors on the compass caused by the aircraft.

220
Q

Magnetic Variation

A

Errors caused by distance from Prime Meridian

221
Q

Magnetic Dip

A

Magnetic error, more prominent closer to the poles, where compass tries to physically point down towards earth.

222
Q

Oscillation

A

??

223
Q

UNOS

A 
North/South Turning Errors
U - Undershoot
N - North
O - Overshoot
S - South
224
Q

ANDS

A 
Acceleration Errors (from E/W headings only)
A - Accelerate
N - North
D - Decelerate
S - South
225
Q

IFR Instrument Checklist (Stationary)

A

ASI - Airspeed Indicator - Reads 0, no flags, approx TAS set
TC - Turn Coordinator - Wings Level, ball centered
AI - Attitude Indicator - Wings & Nose level, +/-5degree bank within 5 mins engine start
HI - Heading Indicator - Set and matches mag compass
Altimeter - Barro set, +/- 75’ field elevation
VSI - Vertical Speed Indicator - 0, no flags
Mag Compass - Known Heading, balls wet
Marker Beacons - Tested
NAVs - Freq. set
Comms - Freqs set
GPS - Checked & Set
EFIS - Check PFD/MFD/EICAS for X’s, messages and removed symbols

226
Q

IFR Instrument Taxi Checklist

A

Mag Compass - Swings free, known headings
HI - Swings free, matches mag compass
AI - no flags, <10deg bank in taxi turn
TC - No Flag, ball in opposite direction of turn
Bank Indicator - No Flag, indicates same direction of turn

227
Q

En-Route Weather Information Sources

A
  • EFAS - En-route Flight Advisory Service (Flight Watch)
  • TWEB - Transcribed Weather Broadcast
  • HIWAS - Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory Service
  • DATALINK
  • ATIS
  • ASOS
  • AWOS
  • ATC
    • Center Weather advisories
    • SIGMETs
    • Convective SIGMETs
  • Onboard Radar
  • Onboard Lighting Detector
228
Q

EFAS

A

??DISCONTINUED??
En-Route Flight Advisory Service (Flight Watch)
- 122.0 MHz @ 5000’ to 17,500MSL
- Other freq available above 18,000’

229
Q

TWEB

A

Transcribed Weather Broadcast
ONLY AVAILABLE IN ALASKA
A recorded broadcast over selected L/MF and VOR facilities of weather information for the local area.

230
Q

HIWAS

A

Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service
Hazardous and urgent weather information broadcast over select VOR stations. Contains a summary of any
- AIRMETS
- SIGMENTs
- Convective SIGMETS
- Center Weather Advisories (CWAs)
- Urgent PIREPs.

231
Q

DATALINK

A

Displays textual and graphical weather information obtained via ground stations (such as FISDL) or satellites. You should pay attention to coverage gaps and the age of the information.

232
Q

ATIS

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

233
Q

ASOS

A

Automated Surface Observation System

234
Q

AWOS

A

Automated Weather Observation System

235
Q

CWAss

A

Center Weather Advisories are issued by ARTCC to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions. ARTCC will also broadcast on all of its frequencies except for the emergency frequency (121.5 MHz)

  • severe forecast alerts (AWW)
  • convective SIGMETs
  • SIGMETs
236
Q

Convective SIGMET (WST)

A
  • An inflight advisory of convective weather significant to all aircraft.
  • Issued HOURLY at 55min passed the hour
  • Valid 2hrs
    CONVECTIVE SIGMET ALWAYS IMPLIES SEVERE OR GREATER TURBULENCE, SEVERE ICING, OR LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR.
  • Severe Thunderstorms due to:
    • Surface winds greater or equal to 50kts
    • Hail at the surface greater than 3/4”dia
  • Tornadoes
  • Embedded thunderstorms
  • A line of thunderstorms at least 60 miles long affecting 40% of its length
  • Thunderstorms producing heavy or greater precipitation affecting more than 40% of an area of at least 3000sq miles
237
Q

SIGMET (WS)

A
  • A non-scheduled inflight advisory of convective weather significant to ALL aircraft.
  • Maximum forecast period of 4hrs
  • Advises of non-convective weather potentially hazardous to all types of aircraft.
    A SIGMET is issued for:
  • Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms
  • Severe or extreme turbulence or Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms.
  • Dust storms, sandstorms lowering surface visibility below 3 miles.
  • Volcanic ash
238
Q

AIRMET (WA)

A

An advisory of significant weather phenomena at lower intensities than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs. These weather conditions can affect all aircraft, but are potentially hazardous to aircraft with limited capability.

  • VALID for 6hrs
  • Tango - Moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30kts or greater, and/or non-convective LLWS.
  • Zulu - Moderate icing and provides freezing level heights
  • Sierra - IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations
  • Graphical AIRMETs (G) - found @ aviationweather.gov
239
Q

PIREP (UA)

A

Pilot Weather Report

240
Q

METAR

A

Aviation routine weather

  • Surface weather observations
  • Scheduled METARs released every hour
  • Non-scheduled METARs (SPECI) are issued when there are significant changes from previous METAR
241
Q

TAF

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

  • Weather FORECAST
  • 5sm radius around station
  • Issued 4 times daily
    • 0000, 0600, 1200, 1800
  • Cover 24-30hr period
  • TAF AMD - TAF Ameendments supersede previous TAF
242
Q

Aviation Area Forecast (FA)

A 
??Discontinued??
Aviation Area Forecast
- Weather across several states
- Issued 3x daily
   - 4x in Caribbean, Alaska, Hawaii
243
Q

Surface Analysis Chart

A
  • Issued every 3 hrs
  • Generated from surface station reports
  • Shows pressure systems
    • Isobars
    • Fronts
    • Airmass boundaries
  • Station Info
    • Wind/temp/dew pt/sky coverage/ precip
244
Q

Radar Summary Chart (SD)

A 
- Issued Hourly
Shows Precipitation:
   - Type
   - Intensity
   - Coverage
   - Movement
   - Echoes
   - Max Tops
245
Q

Winds & Temps Aloft Forecast (FB)

A
  • Issued 4x Daily
  • No winds within 1500’AGL
  • No temps within 2500’AGL
246
Q

Mid-level Significant Weather Chart

A
  • 4x/day for North Atlantic Region
  • 10,000’MSL - FL450
  • Cloud coverage & Type
  • Thunderstorms
  • jet streams
  • tropopause height
  • tropical cyclones
  • moderate & severe icing
  • moderate & severe turbulence
  • Volcanic ash & areas of released radioactive materials
247
Q

High-Level Significant Weather Chart

A
  • 4x/day
  • FL250 - FL630
  • Coverage bases and tops of thunderstorms and CB clouds
  • moderate & Severe turbulence
  • Jet Streams
  • Tropopause heights
  • tropical cyclones
  • severe squall lines
  • volcanic eruption sites
  • widespread sand/dust storms
248
Q

Convective Outlook (AC)

A
  • Available in both graphical & textual
  • 3-day forecast of convective activity
  • Day 1: 5x/day
  • Day 2: 2x/day
  • Day 3: 1x/day
  • Risk for severe thunderstorm
  • Slight (SLGT), moderate (MDT), high (HIGH)
249
Q

UUA

A

Urgent PIREP

250
Q

UUA

A

Urgent PIREP

251
Q

Conditions necessary for a thunderstorm

A
  • Sufficient water vapor (humidity)
  • An unstable temperature lapse rate
  • An initial uplifting fore (such as, front passage, mountains, heating from below, etc.)
252
Q

What are some hazards of thunderstorms?

A
  • Limited visibility
  • wind shear
  • strong updrafts & downdrafts
  • Icing
  • Hail
  • Heavy rain
  • severe turbulence
  • Lightning Strikes
  • tornadoes
253
Q

Life Cycle of a Thunderstorm

A
  • Cumulus
  • Mature
  • Dissipating
254
Q

Describe the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm

A
  • First part of the life cycle
  • 3-5 mile height
  • Lifting action of air begins
  • Growth rate may exceed 3000fpm
255
Q

Describe the mature stage of a thunderstorm

A
  • Second part of the life cycle
  • 5-10 mile height
  • Precipitation begins to fall from the base of the cloud
  • Updrafts may exceed 6000 fpm.
  • Downdrafts my exceed 2500fpm.
  • All thunderstorm hazards are at their greatest intensity during mature stage
256
Q

Describe the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm

A
  • Third and final part of the life cycle
  • 5-7 mile height
  • Strong downdrafts
  • Cell is dying rapidly
257
Q

What is fog?

A

A cloud that begins within 50’ of the surface.

258
Q

How is fog generally formed?

A

When the air temperature near the ground reaches it’s due point, or when the dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture to the air.

259
Q

What kinds of fog are there?

A
  • Radiation
  • Advenction
  • Ice
  • Upslope
  • Steam
260
Q

Radiation Fog

A
  • Calm, clear nights when the ground cools rapidly due to release of ground radiation.
261
Q

Advection Fog

A
  • Warm, moist air moves over a cold surface.

- Winds are required

262
Q

Ice fog

A

Forms when temperature is much below freezing, and water vapor turns directly into ice crystals.
- Common in arctic regions but also occurs in mid latitudes

263
Q

Upslope fog

A

Moist, stable air is forced up a terrain slope and cooled down to its dewpoint by adiabatic cooling.

264
Q

Steam Fog

A
  • Cold, dry air moves over warm water.

- Moisture is added to airmass

265
Q

Types of Structural Icing

A
  • Clear Ice
  • Rime Ice
  • Mixed Ice
266
Q

Clear Ice

A
  • Most dangerous type
  • Heavy, hard, and difficult to remove
  • Large, supercooled drops of water freeze slowly as a smooth sheet of solid ice
  • Temps -10 to 0c
267
Q

Rime Ice

A
  • Opaque, white, rough
  • Small supercooled water drops freezing quickly.
  • Temps
268
Q

Mixed Ice

A

Clear and Rime Ice forming simultaneously

269
Q

Instrument Ice

A

Structural ice forming over aircraft instruments and sensors, such as pitot and static.

270
Q

Induction Ice

A

Ice reducing the amount of air for the engine intake

271
Q

Types of Induction Ice

A
  • Intake Ice

- Carburetor Ice

272
Q

Intake Ice

A

Blocks the engine intake manifold

273
Q

Carburetor Ice

A
  • May form due to steep temp drop in carburetor venturi.

- OAT -7c to +21c and >80% humidity

274
Q

Frost

A

Ice crystals caused by sublimation when both temp and dew point are below freezing.

275
Q

What is Hypoxia?

A

Insufficient supply of oxygen to the body cells.

276
Q

Types of Hypoxia?

A
  • Hypoxic
  • Hypemic
  • Histotoxic
  • Stagnant
277
Q

Hypoxic hypoxia

A

Insufficient supply of O2 to the body as a whole.
- As altitude increases, O2 percentage remains same, but pressure decreases, becoming insufficient to pass through respiratory system’s membranes.

278
Q

Hypemic Hypoxia

A

Inability of blood to carry O2 molecules

  • Insufficient blood (from bleeding or donation, etc)
  • anemia
  • CO poisoning
279
Q

Histotoxic Hypoxia

A

Inability of the body cells to effectively use the 02 supplied by the blood
- Can be caused by alcohol or drug use

280
Q

Stagnant Hypoxia

A

Blood not flowing to a body tissue

  • Heart issues
  • excessive acceleration (Gs)
  • Shock
  • Constricted blood vessel
281
Q

Part 91 Oxygen Requirements

A

91.211
Unpressurized Cabins
- 12,500 to 14,000: Crew only after 30 mins
- 14,001 to 15,000: Crew for entire flight
- Over 15,000: All occupants

Pressurized Cabins

  • Above FL250: Each occupant must have additional 10mins of supplemental O2
  • Above FL350: One pilot at controls MUST wear O2 mask at all times.
  • -OR– Two pilots at controls have quick donning masks (must be below FL410)
  • If one pilot leaves, the one at controls MUST wear mask regardless.
282
Q

Hyperventilation

A

Excessive breathing removes CO2 from the body quicker than it can be produced.

  • Similar symptoms to hypoxia
  • Drowsiness, dizziness
283
Q

Decompression Sickness

A

Inert gases in the body (typically nitrogen) are rapidly released in body tissues and fluids as a result of going from high pressure to low pressure.

  • Form bubbles that can damage the body
  • Joint pain (bends)
284
Q

Scuba Waiting Period

A
  • 12hrs after diving if flight up to 8000’ cabin altitude.

- 24hrs for higher cabin altitudes

285
Q

Grid MORA

A

Grid Minimum Off-Route Altitude

  • Terrain separation w/in latitude/longitude lines.
  • 1000’ above terrain of <5001’
  • 2000’ Above terrain of >/=5000’
286
Q

What is considered mountainous area?

A

3000’ terrain change within 10nm area

Instrument Rating (1 decks)

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