Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IFR Oral Review > IFR Oral > Flashcards

IFR Oral Flashcards

1
Q

Min. aeronautical experience required for an airplane instrument rating

A

Including one x-country flight of:

50 hours x-country PIC time.
“ Of which, 10 hours in airplanes.
- 40 hours actual or simulated instrument time
“ Of which 15 hours with CFII
- 250 NM
-Along airways or by directed ATC routing
An inst. App. At each airport
- 3 different kinds of approaches using nav. systems With a filed IFR flight plan
“ 3 hours in last 2 cal. Months prior to the practical test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Personal documents required for flight

A

Pilot certificate
-Medical certificate
- Authorized photo ID (passport, driver’s license, etc)
- Restricted radiotelephone operator license (for flights outside the U.S.)
(§61.3 and FCC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Aircraft documents required for flight:

A

ARROW

    • Airworthiness Certificate
      -Registration
  • Radio License ( out of country flight)
    -Operating handbook
  • Weight and Balance
  • up to date for all
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Aircraft maintenance inspections required for IFR:

A

-Annual 12 cal months
-VOR every 30 days
-100 hr inspection
- Altimeter (pito / static system) 24 cal months
-Transponder 24 cal months
- ELT 1/2 battery life / 1 hr use/ 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Preflight info required for IFR: (§91.103)

A

N - Notams
W- Weather
K- Known ATC delays
R- Runway Lengths
A- Alternate
F- Fuel requirments
T- take off and landing performance data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Preflight self-assessment:

A
  • Illness
    M- Medication
    S- Stress
    A- Alcohol (“8 hours bottle to throttle”; no more than .04% of alcohol in blood)
    F- Fatigue
    E- Emotion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Instrument PIC experience

A

6 actual or simulated
“6 HITS)
-6 instrument approaches in the last 6 months
- Holding procedure
-Intercepting &
-Tracking courses through navigational systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What counts as Instrument time

A

All time when the aircraft is being operated solely by ref to instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

using an ATD (basically an approved PC-based
flight simulator + hardware) in the last 2 calendar
months prior to the flight:

A

3 hours instrument experience.
- Holding procedures & tasks.
- 6 instrument approaches.
- 2 unusual attitude recoveries in a descending Vne
condition.
- 2 unusual attitude recoveries in an ascending stall
speed condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Not current looking back 6 months?

A

You can still log
the requirements (6 HITS) and get current with a safety
pilot (under simulated conditions), instructor or pilot
examiner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Looking back 12 cal. months not current?

A

need instrument proficiency check by CFII or examiner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

To carry passengers as PIC

A

3 take off and landings in the proceeding 90 days
-to full stop for night flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

IFR Flight Plan

A
  • required for all controlled airspace under IFR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How to file IFR flight plan

A

-FSS
- DUATS-
Radio/ phone w/ ATC
File at least 30 min before departure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IFR flight plan stored length

A

1.5 hours from purposed time of departure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IFR flight plan cancellation

A
  • towered airports automatically cancel upon landing
    -nontowered airports pilot must cancel w/ ATC OR FSS
  • Pilot can cancel anytime in VFR conditions and outside of Class A airspace
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Preferred IFR routes

A

Ex) Ont PAPA 9
-If a
preferred route is published to your
destination, you should file it in your flight
plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Obstacle Departure Procedures ODP

A
  • only provides obstacle clearance
    -doesn’t need ATC clearance unless other instructions are given IE radar vectors
  • ## must have graphic or textual ODP in plane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Standard Instrument Departures SID

A
  • provides obstacle clearance & helps reduce radio congestion
    -pilot NAV SID - pilot navigates by charted route w/ min radio instructions
    -Vectored SID - Nav based on radar vectors
  • can file NO SID on IFR flight plan if you don’t want to use it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Standard Terminal Arrival Route

A

-Serves as a transition from en route to a point from which an approach can begin
- usually named after the fix at which the basic procedure begins
-can deny STAR in flight plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When do you need an alternate

A

1 hr before and after ETA FORCASTED WEATHER IS LESS THAN
2000FT ceiling
3 miles vis
(1,2,3 rule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Weather minimums listed at an airport to be used as an alternate

A

Precision approach 2 miles vis & 600 ft ceiling

Non precision approach 2 miles vis & 800 ft ceiling

no instrument approach at alternate- ceiling and vis must allow for descent from MEA in VFR conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

IFR Min Altitudes

A

Minimum prescribed or if none
Mountainous areas : 200ft above highest obstacle within 4 NM course

Non Mountainous areas 1000 ft above highest obstacle within 4 NM of course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

IFR Cruising Altitudes

A

0-179 Odd thousand
180-359 Even thousand
Based on Magnetic Course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

IFR Departure Clearance Items

A

CRAFT

Clearance Limit
Route
Altitude
Frequency
Transponder code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Clearance Void Time

A

-cannot take off your takeoff void time
-must notify ATC within 30 mins if not off by your void time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mandatory reports under IFR

A

MARVELOUS VFR C 500
*required only in non radared environment

Missed approach

Airspeed +/- 10 kts/ 5% change from file TAS

Reaching a holding fix (report time and alt)

VFR on top

ETA change +/- 3 mins

Leaving a holding fix/ point

Outer Marker

Unforecasted Weather

Safety of flight

Vacating an Altitude / FL

Final Approach Fix

Radio/ Nav Failure

Compulsory Reporting Points

unable to descend/ climb 500/ fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

IFR takeoff minimums

A

no takeoff mins for part 91 operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Holding Pattern

A
  • adjust outbound leg so inbound leg is 1 min
    -at bewow 14,000 ft MSL - min per leg
    14,001 ft and above 1.5 mins

DME / GPS holds fly specified distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Max Holding Pattern Speeds

A

Up to 6000 ft MSL - 200 KT IAS
6001- 14,000 MSL 230 kt IAS
At or above 14,000 ft MSL 265 kt IAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

DA/H

A

Decision altitude or height
- cannot descend below unless
mandatory visual ref. are in sight
- cannot cruise at alt/ decision must be made for landing or missed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MAA

A

Max Authorized Alt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

MCA

A

Min Crossing Alt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

MDA

A

Min Descent Alt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

MEA

A

Min En Route Alt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MOCA

A

Min Obstruction Clearance Alt
- obstacle clearance clearance &nav coverage within 22 NM of NAVAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

MORA

A

Min Off Route Obstacle Clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MRA

A

Min Reception Altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MVA

A

Min Vectoring Altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

OROCA

A

Off Route Obstacle Clearance Alt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Lost Communications Altitude Procedure

A

M.E.A fly highest

M- min alt prescribed for IFR

E - expected (ex expect 5000 afte r10 mins)

A- Altitude -last assigned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Lost Comm Route to Fly procedure

A

AVE F

A- Assigned route
V- vectored (fly route/ airway last vectored to)
E - last expected route by ATC
f - Filed Route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When can you descend below MDA/ DA?

A

All three conditions must be met:

1 aircraft is in a continuous position from which a descent to land can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers

  1. flight visibility is not less than prescribed
  2. at least one visual ref is visible
    approach light system, threshold lighting, REIL, VASI, touchdown zone markings/ lighting, runway markings, runway lights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Visual Descent Point

A

A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straightin approach procedure from
which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin provided adequate
visual reference is established.
If not equipped to identify the VDP, fly the approach as if no VDP was published.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Aircraft approach Categories

A

1.3 VSO
Cat A -less than 90 knots
Cat B - 91-120 Kt
Cat C- 121-140 KT
Cat D 141-165 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When can you descend to next instrument approach
segment?

A

When cleared for the approach and established on a segment
of a published approach or route.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Contact approach

A

Must be specifically requested by the pilot.(It cannot be initiated by ATC)
- Requires at least 1SM reported ground visibility and the aircraft to remain clear of clouds.
-Available only at airports with approved instrument approach procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Visual approach

A

Initiated by either ATC or the pilot.
-Requires at least 1000’ ceiling and 3SM visibility. (IFR under VMC)
-Pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to follow in sight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Min equipment For VFR day flight

A

A-Altimeter
T- Tachometer for each engine.
O- Oil pressure gauge
M- Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine
A- Airspeed indicator
T- Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine
O- Oil Temp gauge for each engine
F- Fuel quantity gauge for each tank
L- Landing gear position lights (if retractable gear)
A- Anticolision lights
M- Magnetic compass
E- ELT, if required by §91.207
S- Safety belts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

For VFR night flight:

A

F.L.A.P.SF- Fuses (spare set)
L- Landing light (if for hire)
A- Anticolision light
P- Position lights (navigation lights)
S- Source of power (such as battery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

For IFR day: all VFR day equipment + G.R.A.B C.A.R.D
For IFR night: all VFR day + VFR night equipment +
G.R.A.B C.A.R.D

A

G- Generator/alternator
R- Radios (two way and navigational equipment
appropriate for the ground facilities to be used)
A- Altimeter(sensitive) adjustable for barometric pressure
B- Ball (slip-skid indicator)
C- Clock (shows hours minutes and seconds and installed
as part of aircraft equipment.)
A- Attitude indicator
R- Rate of turn indicator
D- Directional gyro (Heading indicator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

VOR Receiver checks

A

every 30 cal days
VOT +- 4
Airborne VOR check +- 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Rate of Descent for 3 degree glide slope

A

Ground speed x 10 =VSI ft/ min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Area Nav- RNAV

A

Allows nav on any desired course without the use of ground facilities
-gps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

GPS

A
  • needs at least 5 satellites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

RAIM

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitering
- function of GPS that monitors the intergrity of satellite signals
- requires 5 satellites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?

A

VOT
Ground Check
Airborne
Airway
Dual VOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?

A

Date, place, bearing error, and signature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where can you find the location of airborne, ground and VOT testing stations?

A

Chart supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pitot-Static Instruments

A

Airspeed Indicator, Vertical Speed Indicator, Altimeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Pitot source blocked + drain hole blocked ( how do the instruments respond?)

A

Indicated Airspeed - increase with altitude / decrease with loss of altitude

Altimeter- unaffected

VSI- unaffected

62
Q

Pitot Hole blocked/ drain hole open ( how will instruments react?)

A

Indicated Airspeed- will display zero

Altimeter unaffected

VSI - unaffected

63
Q

Static source blocked (how will instruments react?)

A

Airspeed indicator - airspeed will decrease w/ altitude gained and vice versa

Altimeter - doesn’t change w/ alt gain or loss

VSI- won’t show any changes

64
Q

Static & Pitot Blocked

A

everything will remain constant

65
Q

How do Gyroscopic instruments work?

A

-powered by an engine driven vacuum pump
-Rigidity in space & Precession

66
Q

What instruments are gyroscopic?

A
  • heading indicator
    -attitude indicator
  • suction gauge
  • turn coordinator (electronic gyro)
67
Q

Magnetic Compass Errors

A

UNOS - Undershoot North / Overshoot South

ANDS- Accelerate North / Deaccelerate South

68
Q

What is HSI

A

HORIZONTAL SITUATION INDICATOR
- combines the functions of the heading indicator and
the VOR receiver into one instrument display
-

69
Q

How many degrees of deviation does each dot represent? What angular deviation
from a VOR course is represented by half-scale deflection of the CDI?

A

Each dot represents 2° of deviation. Half scale deflection is 5° off course

70
Q

How do you determine the VOR station is operating properly?

A

Tune to frequency and identify morris code

71
Q

What does it mean if there is only a single coded identification every 30 seconds on a
VORTAC station?

A

VOR not working but DME is working

72
Q

What are the limitations of a VOR

A

-Line of sight only
-Cone of confusion” – During passage of a station the aircraft is directly above the VOR
and this causes large needle deflections and momentary loss of signal
-Pilot Error
 Failure to properly tune and identify
 Failure to check for accurate signal
 Reverse sensing

73
Q

What is slant-range distance? To minimize slant-range error, how far from the
facility should you be and at what altitude?

A

Altitude aircraft has a direct effect on slant range
error. This error will be minimized if the aircraft is at least 1 mile away from the station
for every 1000’ of altitude.

74
Q

What is WAAS?

A

Wide Area Augmentation System
Enhances the GPS integrity and availability by:
Incorporating wide-area ground reference stations to monitor the signal from the GPS
satellites.
The information is sent to a master station where the correction occurs
The corrected signal is a sent to a GEO (geostationary satellite) and is broadcast on the
same frequency as GPS to WAAS receivers.

75
Q

What are the requirements of using GPS for IFR?

A

GPS must be certified by TSO-C129 (RAIM) or TSO-C145 or 146 (WAAS)
The installation must be done in accordance with AC 20-138
If not, then the GPS can only be used to enhance situational awareness but ACTIVE
MONOTORING or an alternate navigation source is required.

76
Q

What are the benefits and limitations of RAIM capable GPS?

A

As long as RAIM is assured, no requirement to ACTIVELY MONITOR other navigational sources
Generally only provides lateral guidance

Alternate airport must have an IAP other than GPS and those ground based NAVAIDS
must be monitored
RAIM is not guaranteed – signal could be lost due to
1. Inadequate number of satellites in position at the airport
2. Satellite malfunction
3. Antenna location on the aircraft
4. Changes in pitch or bank angle

77
Q

How do we verify that we will have RAIM during the flight?

A

http://sapt.faa.gov/
FSS Briefers can provide RAIM predictions for a 3 hour period
Alternatively, go to AUX page 3 on the GNS 430 and use the RAIM prediction tool

78
Q

What are the benefits of WAAS capable GPS

A

More precise than RAIM
Provides lateral and vertical navigation without the temperature errors associated with
Baro-Vnav
No RAIM prediction necessary
An airport that only has a GPS approach may be selected as an alternate
*for flight planning purposes – only LNAV minimums can be considered

79
Q

What are the components of the ILS?

A

Visual: approach lighting system, VASI/PAPI, and precision approach runway
Range: marker beacons/compass locator and/or DME
Lateral and vertical guidance: localizer and glideslope

80
Q

What are the distances from the threshold of the outer, middle and inner markers?

A

Outer marker: 4-7 miles – usually at the glideslope intercept position
Middle marker: 3500’ – represents the decision altitude (200’ above TDZE)
Inner marker: Located between the MM and the landing threshold – represents the DH
for a CAT II ILS approach

81
Q

What are substitutes for an ILS outer marker?

A

Compass locators, DME, VOR, GPS, Precision Approach Radar (PAR), or Airport
Surveillance Radar (ASR)

82
Q

What is the course width of a localizer signal?

A

Localizer courses vary between 3° and 6° so that at the landing threshold the total width
is 700

83
Q

What is the usable range of the glide slope?

A

10 nm

84
Q

What is a Localizer Type Directional Aid (LDA)

A

like a localizer but not aligned with the runway

85
Q

What criteria determines that you will remain clear of obstacles when flying an ODP?

A
  1. Cross the departure end of the runway at or above 35’ AGL
  2. Make first turn no earlier than 400’ AGL (unless otherwise specified)
  3. Maintain climb gradient of at least 200fpnm (unless otherwise specified)
86
Q

What is the pilot’s responsibility concerning ODPs?

A
  1. Determine that an ODP has been published
  2. Determine whether or not to fly it even if not issued by ATC in a clearance. Pilots are
    encouraged to fly ODPs at night, in MVFR, and IFR conditions
  3. Determine aircraft performance is adequate for the procedure
  4. Be aware of low close-in obstacles
87
Q

How would you know if an ODP has published for an airport?

A

The T symbol in the notes section of an IAP means that the takeoff minimums are not standard.
Refer to the takeoff minimums section of the TPPs for the new criteria and ODPs. ODPs are
always textual and sometimes graphic. Graphic ODPs will have (OBSTACLE) printed on them

88
Q

How can you determine if your aircraft will be able to meet the required climb gradient?

A

Determine your aircraft’s rate of climb with the POH. Use the chart in the back of the TPPs to
convert it to climb gradient.
Alternatively: 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑙𝑖𝑚𝑏 =
𝑔𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑
60
x climb gradient

89
Q

What are low close-in obstacles?

A

Obstacles that are located within 1nm of the departure end of the runway that penetrate the 40:1
OCS. Avoidance can be assured by early liftoff or visually. The obstacle location and their
heights are contained in the notes section of the takeoff minimums in the TPPs.

90
Q

What does VCOA mean? When would this option be published?

A

A visual climb over airport allows the pilot to climb while circling to get to a safe altitude. It is
developed if there are obstacles beyond 3sm from the airport that require a climb gradient of
more than 200fpnm. It must be conducted in VMC

91
Q

Why are SIDs published?

A

While SIDs still provide obstacle clearance, they are designed to
1. Reduce ATC and pilot workload
2. Minimize communications
3. Increase airspace capacity
4. Simplify clearances
5. Comply with noise abatement procedures
SIDs must be issued in a clearance by ATC and are always printed graphically in the TPPs.

92
Q

What are the dimensions of victor airways?

A

(4nm from each side of the centerline

93
Q

When navigating from VOR to VOR, when do you change frequencies to maintain
course guidance?

A

At that point depicted on the airway as the changeover point
In the absence of a changeover point, the halfway point on the airway
Whenever there is a bend in an airway

94
Q

What is a minimum altitude for IFR flight?

A

In mountainous areas, 2000’ above the highest obstacle within 4nm
In non-mountainous areas, 1000’ above the highest obstacle within 4nm

95
Q

In what direction should turns be made in a standard holding pattern?

A

to the right

96
Q

What are the standard weather requirements to file an airport as alternate?

A

Precision approach – 2 miles visibility and 600’ ceiling
Nonprecision approach – 2 miles visibility and 800’ ceiling

97
Q

How would you know if an airport has other than standard alternate minimums?

A

When you see this symbol, triangle around an A- go to the alternate minimums section of the TPPs
to see what the weather requirements are to file this airport as an alternate

98
Q

What airports cannot be filed as alternates?

A

A in triangle with NA means that alternate minimums are not authorized due to either an unmonitored
facility, absence of weather reporting, or inadequate navigation coverage

99
Q

Can an airport that only has a GPS be filed as an alternate?

A

Only if the aircraft is equipped with WAAS capable GPS certified under TSO-C145 or
TSO-146

100
Q

What are TEC routes?

A

Tower En route Control is a service that allows pilots to travel between airports in select
metropolitan areas without leaving approach control airspace. It is designed to expedite
air traffic and reduces ATC and pilot communications. You can find these routes in the
Tower En route Control section of the Chart Supplement

101
Q

What are preferred IFR routes?

A

Established between busier airports to increase system efficiency and capacity and help
pilots plan their route of flight. See the preferred IFR routes section of the Chart
Supplements for more details.

102
Q

How are the transitions routes differentiated from the arrival route?

A

The heavy black lines represent the arrival. The thinner lines are the transitions

103
Q

What are the different segments of an instrument approach?

A

Initial – Begins at the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) and aligns the aircraft with the
intermediate or final approach segment and also allow a descent in the process. The
section can include, DME arcs, holding patterns, or course reversals.

Intermediate – Begins at the Intermediate Fix (IF) and is designed to position the aircraft
for the final descent. It is normally aligned within 30° of the final approach course.
Final – Begins at the Final Approach Fix (FAF) and brings the aircraft down to the
appropriate minimum for a landing.
Missed – Begins at the Missed Approach Point (MAP) and ends at a designated fix.
During a precision approach or APV this occurs at the DA. On a nonprecision approach,
it is a designated fix, waypoint, NAVAID, or it may occur after a specific amount of time
has elapsed.

104
Q

When is a procedure turn not authorized?

A
  1. When No-PT is printed
  2. When there is a hold in lieu of a PT
  3. When cleared straight in
  4. Timed approaches from a fix (AIM 5-4-10) (IFH 10-18)
  5. Radar vector
105
Q

precision approaches?

A

provides both lateral and vertical guidance

106
Q

Non precisions approaches

A

only lateral guidance

107
Q

APV

A

– Approaches with Vertical Guidance provide course and glidepath information but
do not conform to the ICAO Annex 10 standards so they cannot rightfully be called
precision approaches although LPV minimums are often identical to that of an ILS.

108
Q

Radar approaches

A

An ATC controller monitors the progress
with radar

109
Q

When are circling only minimums published?

A
  1. When the final approach course alignment with the runway exceeds 30°
  2. Descent gradient is greater than 400fpnm
  3. The runway is not clearly defined
110
Q

How are speeds determined for the aircraft approach categories?

A

Cat A - 0-90 kts
Cat B - 91-120
CAT C- 121-141
Cat D- 141-165
Cat E- 166 + KTS

111
Q

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

A

15C or 59F – 29.92” Hg or 1013.2 mb

112
Q

Discuss isobars. What does it mean when the isobars are close together?

A

sobars connect equal lines of pressure. Closely spaced isobars means that there is a
strong pressure gradient and winds will be strong.

113
Q

How do surface winds flow in relationship to isobars? Why? Winds aloft?

A

At the surface winds flow at an angle to the isobars because of surface friction.
Aloft, winds from more or less parallel because of the Coriolis force.

114
Q

What type of clouds, visibility and precipitation would you expect from stable air?
Unstable air?

A

Stable air: stratiform clouds, poor visibility, smooth air, steady or continuous
precipitation
Unstable: Cumuliform clouds or clouds with vertical development, good visibility,
turbulence, and showery precipitation

115
Q

What are the general characteristics of low/high pressure areas

A

Low – Cyclone – counterclockwise and rising air
High – Anti Cyclone – clockwise and descending air

116
Q

What is a ridge? Trough?

A

Ridge – extended area of high pressure – descending air
Trough – extended area of low pressure – rising air

117
Q

What must be present in order for a thunderstorm to form?

A

Unstable atmosphere (pg.52) – an unstable atmosphere can be noted by the ambient lapse
rate
Sufficient Moisture – the temperature/dew point spread can be used to determine how
moist the air is.
Lifting Action – Some of these lifting actions may include heating from below (rising
warm air called thermals), orographic lifting (wind pushing a moist unstable air mass
upslope), or frontal lifting (a fast moving cold front displacing warm, moist, and unstable
warmer air for example).

118
Q

What are the stages of a thunderstorm?

A

Cumulus – the building stage of a thunderstorm characterized by updrafts only.
Mature – Updrafts and downdrafts both occur at this point. Violent turbulence can be
experienced (start of rainfall)
Dissipating – At this point the cloud is only giving off downdrafts and the thunderstorm
is dissipating.

119
Q

What is wind shear? Why is it an operational hazard?

A

Rapid change in wind direction or velocity – it can cause dramatic changes in indicated
airspeed and causes severe turbulence within the shear zone

120
Q

Types of fog?

A

Advection: moist warm air moves over colder land or water
Radiation: forms on clear nights with little or no wind and only over land
Upslope: moist unstable air is cooled as wind pushes it up a slope
Precipitation Induced: warm rain falls through cool air. Evaporation from the rain
saturates the cool air and fog forms.

121
Q

How does icing affect aircraft performance?

A

Increases drag and weight
Decreases lift & thrust

122
Q

types of icing?

A

Induction Icing
Instrument
Structural
Rime
Clear
Mixed

123
Q

Instrument Icing?

A

Icing of the pitot tube or static ports can cause the instruments to give
inaccurate readings or to fail completely

123
Q

Induction icing?

A

This includes any icing that impedes that process of air entering the
intake manifold to be mixed with fuel

123
Q

Structural icing?

A

– Ice that forms on the surface of the aircraft. Since airfoils create lift by
decreasing the pressure and thus the temperature of the air around them, icing on the
propeller, horizontal and vertical tail surfaces, and wings can form at ambient
temperatures that are above the freezing level

124
Q

Types of structural icing?

A

Rime Ice – Small rain drops found in stratified clouds or drizzle freeze upon impact with
the airfoil. Air that is trapped between the droplets give the ice a white or opaque
appearance. It builds up typically at the leading edge only and has an irregular shape.
This makes it more easily recognizable to the pilot and easier to remove by deicing
equipment.
Clear Ice – Large super-cooled water droplets found in either heavy rain or in cumuliform
clouds strike the airfoil but do not freeze immediately. Instead they slide backwards
across the surface as they freeze. Clear ice is smooth and glossy making it very difficult
to see from the cockpit. Because it adheres to the surface beyond the leading edge it can
be difficult to remove.
Mixed Ice – Occurs when drops very in size

125
Q

What types of weather briefings can you get from a Flight Service Station briefer?

A

Standard – Should be requested when planning a flight and no previous weather
information has been gathered
Abbreviated – Used to supplement mass disseminated data or to update a previous
briefing
Outlook – Request when proposed departure time is 6 or more hours away

126
Q

What is EFAS (Flight Watch)?

A

Enroute Flight Advisory Service – provides up to date weather advisories for pilots while
enroute

127
Q

On what frequency can you contact EFAS?

A

122.0

128
Q

What is a METAR? Types, issue, and valid times? (

A

Aviation Routine Weather Report
Routine or special
Issued hourly
Valid for the hour

129
Q

What is a TAF? Issue, valid times, area of coverage?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
3 types: Routine (TAF) Amended (TAF AMD) or Corrected (TAF COR)
Issued 4 times a day (every 6 hours)
Valid for 24-30 hours
Forecast for area within 5sm of airport

130
Q

Does a TAF report cloud ceilings in MSL or AGL?

A

MSL

131
Q

Describe FROM, BECMG, TEMPO, PROB, on a TAF?

A

FROM – Rapid change occurring within 1 hour
BECMG – Gradual change to take place over the course of 1 hour
TEMPO – Between the predicted period, this weather will only occur for less than an
hour
PROB – number placed afterwards is the probability of the weather forecasted to occur

132
Q

Area Forecast? Issue, valid times? What are the four sections of an Area Forecast?

A
  • 4X Daily
    Synopsis: Valid for 18 hours – contains a short description of weather affecting the area
    during the valid period. This includes location and movement of pressure system.
    VFR clouds and weather: Valid for 12 hours – gives a general description of clouds and
    weather that are significant to VFR operations.
    Outlook: Valid for 6 hours –describes the prevailing condition
133
Q

Winds and Temperatures aloft Forecast?

A

Issued twice a day every 12 hours and provide wind and temperature information for
specific areas within the U.S

134
Q

How are temperatures above 24,000 identified?

A

Always negative

135
Q

What does 710556 mean on a Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast if the
forecast level is 30,000 feet?

A

Winds are from 210 at 105 kts and temperature is –56 C

136
Q

Winds will not be forecast within how many feet of station elevation on an FD?

A

1500’

137
Q

Discuss the Surface Analysis Chart? Issued? Valid? Information?

A

Issued 8 times daily and valid for 3 hours
Shows position of pressure systems, fronts, local weather, wind speed and directions, and
visual obstructions

138
Q

Discuss the Weather Depiction Chart? Issued? Valid? Information?

A

Graphical depiction of METAR information
Issued 8 times daily and valid for 8 hours
It is a flight planning tool to see overall surface conditions across the U.S.

139
Q

Discuss the Significant Weather Prognostic Chart? Issued? Valid? Info?

A

Forecast of aviation weather hazards such as icing, freezing levels, and turbulence
Issued 4 times a day there is a 12 hour forecast and a 24 hour forecas

140
Q

Discuss the Radar Summary Chart? Issued? Valid? Info?

A

Issued 35 minutes past every hour and valid for 1 hour.
Displays areas of precipitation and indicates the height of the radar echo tops in hundreds
of feet MSL. Movement of cells is indicated by an arrow that points in the direction of
the movement with the speed in knots beside it. This chart does not show clouds or fog,
only precipitatio

141
Q

What are the body systems that are used to ascertain our orientation and movement
in space?

A

Vestibular, Somatosensory, visual

142
Q

What is hypoxia and what are the different types?

A

Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body. It is occurs at 4 different levels

143
Q

Lung: Hypoxic Hypoxia

A

Oxygen is not available at adequate pressure for the lungs to absorb. This occurs when
we climb higher in altitude and the air becomes less dense.

144
Q

Blood: Hypemic

A

This is the inability of the red blood cells to carry oxygen to the other cells. The most
common cause in aviation is carbon monoxide poisoning especially with small piston
aircraft. Cabin heat is provided by ducting engine heat from the exhaust manifold into the
cockpit. If there is any kind of leak in this system, exhaust fumes containing carbon
monoxide will enter the cockpit as well. Carbon dioxide molecules bond to the
hemoglobin in red blood cells 200x faster than oxygen molecules, leaving no more room
for the blood cells to carry the oxygen. Smoking cigarettes will also induce hypemic
hypoxia because you are inhaling carbon monoxide. Other causes of this type of hypoxia
include anemia (a sickness caused by lowered hemoglobin) or donating blood.

145
Q

Cell: Histotoxic

A

This is the cells’ (other than blood cells) inability to use the available oxygen. Using
drugs or alcohol can cause this. When using even over-the-counter medicine, consult an
AME to see if it is okay for use in flight.

146
Q

Transport: Stagnant

A

Inability of oxygen to reach cells because of poor circulation (pulled too many G’s)

147
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoxia?

A

Poor judgement, memory, alertness, visual acuity and coordination. Sensation of euphoria
or sometimes even belligerence can occur (a macho attitude). Other symptoms include,
dizziness, headache, drowsiness and cyanosis (blue coloration of lips and fingernails).

148
Q

What are the in-flight illusions? ICEFLAGS

A

Inversion – Abrubt change in altitude creates the illusion of tumbling backwards
Coriolis – Rapid head movement causes the illusion of accelerating or turning
Elevator – An updraft causes the pilot to think that aircraft is in a climb. Pilot reacts by
forcing the nose down inducing a dive.
False Horizon – Sloping cloud formations or obscured horizons confuse the pilot into
misaligning with the horizon.
Leans – Abrubt recovery from a roll can mislead pilot into thinking aircraft is in a turn in
the opposite direction.
Autokinesis – At night, stationary lights may appear to be in motion. Pilot may lose
control of aircraft trying to align it with “moving” light.
Graveyard Spiral – In a prolonged constant rate turn, sensation of the turn is not felt. In
recovery to straight and level, the pilot may sense a turn in the opposite direction and pull
back on the yoke, only tightening the spiral.
Somatogravic – Rapid acceleration causes the illusion of the being in a nose up attitude.
Rapid deceleration will have the opposite effect.

149
Q

What is the definition of ADM?

A

A systematic approach to risk assessment and stress management. The two defining elements of
ADM are hazard and risk

IFR Oral Review (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions