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IFR Law Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is containment allowance either side of a DME arc?
A

a. 2.5 nm

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2
Q
  1. An MSA on an arc provides 1000ft terrain clearance and 2000ft clearance over mountainous areas, within how many miles of the arc?
A

a. 2.5 NM each side of the arc

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3
Q
  1. If unspecified the minimum sector altitudes on an approach chart allow clearance out until where?
A

25nm?

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4
Q
  1. Calculating distance on the arc. 56 degrees, 15 mile arc?
A

a. 56/(60/15)
=56/4
=14 nm on arc

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5
Q
  1. IFR separation in class D airspace?
A

a. IFR from IFR, IFR from SVFR

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6
Q
  1. High level airway, asked to hold which way do you hold and for how long?
A

a. Right hand
1.5 min outbound above 14 000ft
1 minute below 14000ft

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7
Q
  1. What’s the holding speed for an aircraft at FL180?
A

b. 240 kts

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8
Q
  1. Max holding speed at 22000’ in knots and Mach
A

a. 265kts or 280/M.80 turbulent

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9
Q
  1. How much plus/minus is MSA around a track?
A

a. 2.5 miles a side?

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10
Q

What is the definition of MDA

A

Non-precision approach where descent can only be made once you have established visual reference

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11
Q
  1. When can you descend below MDA? (Three points)
A
  1. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at normal rate of descent using normal manoeuvrers that will allow touchdown or occur withing the touchdown zone of the runway of intended p landing
  2. On a circling approach, maintain the aircraft withing the appropriate circling area, and
    The flight visibility is not less then the visibility prescribed for the instrument approach being used, and
  3. At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
    The approach lighting system, or
    The threshold markings, or
    The threshold lights, or
    The runway-end identification lights, or
    The visual slope indicator, or
    The touchdown zone or touch down markings, or
    The touchdown sone lights, or
    The runway markings, or
    The runway lights
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12
Q
  1. When can you go descend below circling minima?
A

a. When you can touchdown in the touchdown using normal rates of descent and manoeuvres. Must be able to maintain continuous visual reference to nay of the requires reference

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13
Q
  1. What to do in event of missed approach from circling?
A

b. Climb overhead field and execute missed approach for approach runway?

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14
Q
  1. How are GPS Satellites positions estimated?
A

a. Data stored in GPS receiver memory, Almanac Data?

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15
Q
  1. On what principle does a GPS operate?
A

a. Time difference
To determine your position, the GPS receiver compares the time a signal was transmitted by a satellite with the time it was received by the GPS receiver. The time difference tells the GPS receiver how far away that particular satellite is. If we add distance measurements from a few more satellites, we can triangulate our position

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16
Q
  1. What is GNSS
A

A global navigational satellite system

Is a satellite system based navigation system that provides location and time information.

The system typically consists of a minimum of 24 satellites that are constantly moving in 6 orbital paths (4 satellites per orbital plane) which complete a orbit around the earth in 12 hours.

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17
Q
  1. Name the 5 main modes of GPWS
A

a. Excessive rate of descent
Excessive terrain closure
Excessive altitude loss after take off
Aircraft too low without gear or flap (shallow flight path)
ILS deviation (1.3 dots below glide-slope)

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18
Q
  1. What are the inputs to GPWS
A

(Ground proximity warning system)
Radio Altimeter
ILS receiver
Barometric pressure sensing
Flap & gear position
Airspeed

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19
Q
  1. What is the operating envelope of GPWS
A

a. 2450ft AGL to 30ft AGL (radio altimeter)

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20
Q
  1. How does EGPWS (TAWS) operate
A

Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (Terrain Avoidance Warning System)

From a world surface database input & GPS it can calculate which terrain is conflicting with the aircraft and warn the pilots (forward looking)

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21
Q
  1. What is TAWS?
A

Terrain Awareness and Warning System

Provides increased vertical situational awareness by warning of terrain threats. It also displays terrain so crew can respond before TAWS needs to generate a warning.

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22
Q
  1. Explain how TCAS interrogates intruder aircraft
A

a. TCAS uses transponder signals from other aircraft to determine relative positions

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23
Q
  1. State the TCAS symbology, Surveillance target
A

Open white diamond (nearby)

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24
Q
  1. State the TCAS symbology, Proximity target

(Color/shape/distance)

A

Solid cyan (blue) diamond (within 1200 ft + 6 miles)

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25
Q

State the TCAS symbology, Traffic advisory

(color/shape/seconds)

A

Solid yellow circle , within 20 - 48sec’s

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26
Q

State the TCAS symbology, Resolution advisory
(Color/shape/seconds).

A

Solid red square, within 15 - 35 sec’s -avoidance action required.

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27
Q
  1. With TCAS when given a traffic advisory what would the pilots display indicate to him
A

a. A relative indication of a solid red square / the aircraft’s altitude / if it is climbing or descending (an arrow) and an aural “TRAFFIC TRAFFIC’

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28
Q
  1. When would TCAS NOT issue a RA (resoultionary advisory)?
A

a. When one aircraft is not transmitting altitude data (not in mode xxx) diff

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29
Q
  1. What is GPS
A

The Global Positioning System

Is a satellite-based radio navigation system which can provide users with position and time information of tremendous accuracy, anywhere on the earth, 24 hrs a day, and in all weather.

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30
Q
  1. How does GPS work
A

a. Position in space is determined by measuring dist from a group of satellites in space, much like a DME fix but in 3 dimensions not 2.

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31
Q
  1. To acquire accurate positions using GPS how many satellites are required
A

a. 4 minimum

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32
Q
  1. Differential GPS is
A

a. Using ground based receivers at a known location to calculate error in the satellite data they then send other receivers (aircraft) an error correction message. Which in turn correct themselves, computing a more ‘relative position between an aircraft receiver and a ground based receiver for them to track to.

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33
Q
  1. Multi-channel receivers are able to do what.
A

a. Assign and lock onto individual satellites per channel enabling them to track and compute the most accurate position using the best satellites. Reducing the GDOP effect

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34
Q
  1. GDOP is
A

a. Geometry dilution of precision – the angle of the satellites relative to the aircraft, larger angles provide better accuracy of position and distance

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35
Q
  1. What is ADS
A

a. ADS is Automatic dependant surveillance – the ability to track aircraft using GPS position information which is automatically fed to ATC via the aircraft avionics. This will assist in reduced separation, least fuel tracks,
ADS communication will also effectively relieve the need for voice communication

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36
Q
  1. Explain FANS
A

a. Future Air Navigation System – Implementation of satellite technology for improved communication and navigation tracking surveillance.

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37
Q
  1. Need to advise ATC when your ETA changes by ____ min?
A

a. 2

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38
Q
  1. An ETA for a certain waypoint must be updated if it is found to be in error by more than?
A

c. 2 minutes

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39
Q
  1. IFR Communication failure - General
A

a. Maintain terrain clearance throughout all procedure
Transponder 7600
Try alternate then secondary published ATS frequency
Check aircrafts communications equipment
Listen to ATIS if possible
Transmit blind
Turn on landing lights, beacon, and strobes.
Attempt communication using mobile phone
If destination is within a MBZ, proceed to alternate aerodrome, unless the risk diverting is greater than continuing

40
Q
  1. IFR Comms failure – IMC or uncertain of maintaining VMC
A

a. The pilot should proceed in accordance with the current flight plan as confirmed by the last acknowledged ATC clearance. ATC will assume that the aircraft will climb to the flight planned level, or last requested level by the pilot and acknowledged by ATC

41
Q
  1. IFR Comms failure on departure with level restriction
A

a. Maintain the last assigned level(s) to the point specified, then climb to maintain the level(s) in the current flight plan, or
If no points are specified, maintain the last assigned level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for five minutes, then climb to maintain the level(s) specified in flight plan.

42
Q
  1. IFR Comms failure on departure – radar vectors
A

a. Maintain the last assigned vector for two minutes, and climb to minimum safe altitude if necessary to maintain terrain clearance, and
Proceed in accordance with the route specified in the current flight plan.

43
Q
  1. IFR Comms failure on arrival
A

a. Track to the destination aid/fix, or if none specified by ATC, the selected aid/fix for the known or forecast RWY, and
b. If in receipt of an arrival clearance (STAR or equivalent clearance/procedure), track via the clearance, and
Commence descent to the initial approach altitude for the approach procedure in accordance with the last acknowledged ATC clearance and then the standard operating procedures (ie 3 degree profile) or flight plan.

44
Q
  1. IFR Comms failure at or within 25nm from destination
A

a. Arrive over the destination/selected ai/fix at last assigned level at or as near as possible to the expected approach time given by ATC, and commence approach, or
If too high, descend in the aid/fix holding pattern to a level convenient for approach, or
If on initial approach at the time of comms failure but not cleared the approach, continue via the procedure and maintain the last assigned level until established on final approach track, then commence approach or
If too high descend in holding pattern on final approach, if no holding pattern, carry out missed approach and position for another approach, if specified diversion allows

45
Q
  1. IFR Comms failure diversion
A

a. In unable to land following and approach, pilot should carry out missed approach.
A second approach may be attempted provided a landing can be accomplished within 30 minutes of the expected approach time or the ETA, whichever is the latter. If approach is unsuccessful, must divert to alternate aerodrome.
The pilot of an IFR aircraft that has comms failure while holding because of the closure of the destination aerodrome should hold until the divert time notified to ATC, and then depart for the alternate aerodrome.

46
Q
  1. When can you do a visual approach at night?
A

a. Runway lights in sight (sighting the REIL, aerodrome beacon or approach lights is insufficient)

47
Q
  1. What is visual approach
A

a. In controlled airspace, the pilot must request it
They must be able to maintain visual reference to terrain, and
The reported ceiling is not below the approved initial approach for the aircraft cleared
The pilot reports, at the initial approach level or at any time during the instrument approach procedure, that the met conditions will permit a visual approach that there is a reasonable assurance that the landing can be accomplished.
Aircraft operating under IFR commencing a visual approach or arrival remain IFR for the purpose of separation

48
Q
  1. What are the required met conditions for visual approach to be published on an ATIS?
A

a. Day only when the vis is at least 16km and the ceiling is at least 1000 ft above minimum radar vectoring altitude or the applicable instrument approach procedure commencement altitude,
b. By night only at Christchurch for runway 11 or29 with vis 16 km, and no cliud below 5000 ft

49
Q
  1. Can you do a visual departure/arrival at night?
A

a. Not departure at night
b. Yes arrival at nigh if you have the runway lights in site not just the approach lights.

50
Q
  1. Full scale deflections left and right on ILS (not exact wording)
A

a. 2.5

51
Q
  1. When will you not get a Resolution Advisory
A

a. When the intruder’s transponder doesn’t give out altitude information

52
Q
  1. Calculation of an advisory altitude percentage
A

a. States on the plate itself.

53
Q

Airspeeds on a SID, A, B, C. D

A

120, 165, 265, 290

54
Q

Holding speeds below 14 000ft, A, B (including turbulent)

A

A and B 170-230 (280*)

55
Q

All CAT holding speed between14 000ft-20 000ft?

A

240kts (Lessor of 280 or M0.8*)

56
Q

All CAT holding 20 000ft - 34 000ft

A

265kts (Lessor of 280 or M0.8*)

57
Q

CAT Speeds Initial Approach A, B, C, D

A

90-150 (110), 120-180(140), 160-240, 185-250

58
Q

CAT Speeds Final Approach, A, B, C, D

A

70-110, 85-130, 115-160, 130-185

59
Q

CAT Speeds Circling, A, B, C, D

A

100, 150, 180, 205

60
Q

CAT Speeds MAP A, B, C, D

A

110, 150, 250, 265

61
Q
  1. What does the runway centreline lighting (RCLL) changing from white to alternating red and white indicate?
A

a. 914m (red and white) until 300m to go (which is solid red)
White to a point 914m from runway end.
Alternate white & red between 914m & 300m.
Red between 300m & the runway end.

62
Q
  1. What is the first segment of the climb?
A

a. 35ft to gear retracted (+vs RoC)

63
Q
  1. What is the second segment of the climb?
A

a. End of first segment to 400ft or higher flap retracted, at V2 (2.4% climb gradient required)
Conditions:
i. Landing gear is retracted
ii. The flaps are still in the takeoff position
iii. The speed is V2
iv. The minimum gross climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 2.4%
v. The minimum net climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 1.6%; and
vi. Takeoff power is still set.

64
Q
  1. What is the Third segment of the climb?
A

a. End of second segment level acceleration to final climb speed (climb gradient capability of 1.2%)

65
Q
  1. What is the fourth segment of the climb?
A

a. End of the third segment to 1500ft. at ≥ 1.25 Vs (min. climb gradient 1.2%)

66
Q
  1. When does the net take off flight path finish?
A

a. Aircraft passes 1500 ft

67
Q
  1. Explain the use of an extended second segment climb.
A

a. Rather than retract flap in the 3rd segment the flaps are kept down, and on reaching the 5 min take off thrust time the power is set to MCT. After which the flaps are then retracted, this allows for improved climb gradient but is only to be used for obstacles within the 2nd & 3rd segment, the aircraft must be ‘clean’ by the 400 ft point if obstacle clearance is required in the final segment

68
Q
  1. Reduced thrust take off’s are dependent on
A

a. Field length
Take off flight path (obstacles)
Engine inop climb gradients
Aircraft Take off weight

69
Q
  1. What are the disadvantages of a reduced thrust take off
A

a. Longer climb time
Higher fuel burn

70
Q
  1. What conditions should reduced thrust take off not be used
A

a. Standing water (ice / slush / snow)
Mixed engine configuration
Any non standard take-off

71
Q
  1. What is the reduced screen height for a wet take-off
A

a. 15 ft

72
Q
  1. An A320 lines up behind a departing 767 from an intermediate position. How long until we can depart?
A

a. 3 mins

73
Q

Wake Turbulence separation during the cruise

A

A380-A380 = 4nm
A380-light = 8nm

74
Q

Wake turbulence separation aircraft arriving

A

A380-A380/heavy = 2 mins
A380-light = 4 mins

75
Q

Wake turbulence separation departing from same take off position

A

A380-A380/heavy = 2 mins
A380/heavy-med/light = 3 mins

76
Q

Wake turbulence separation departing from intermediate take off position

A

A380-A380/heavy = 3 mins
A380/heavy-med/light = 4 mins

77
Q
  1. In my 787 about to depart. Above take off minima but below landing minima. Requirements for departure alternate?
A

a. For a two engine aeroplane, within a maximum of one hour flying time, in still air at one engine inoperative cruising speed, of the aerodrome of departure

78
Q
  1. What is the ISA temperature at 36, 000 ft? (39 000ft)
A

a. Tropopause = -56.5 degrees Celsius, then constant temp above

79
Q
  1. If temp is ISA-18, what does altimeter do?
A

a. High (ISA temp) – low (Actual temp)– high (Altimeter reads high)- low (aircraft is actually lower)
Over read as true altitude is lower as its colder than ISA

80
Q
  1. You are at 4500 with local QNH set. Temp is ISA -10, what does your altimeter read?
A

a. High (ISA temp) – low (Actual temp)– high (Altimeter reads high)- low (aircraft is actually lower)
Over read as true altitude is lower as its colder than ISA

81
Q
  1. What does “ALS out” on the chart mean
A

a. Approach lighting system out, you add 50’ to minimal

82
Q
  1. Purpose of DME check heights?
A

a. It provides range and height checks when flying non-precision approaches procedures. DME is slant range, so its measuring the hypotenuse.

83
Q
  1. Lead radial for ILS
A

a. (2nm)

84
Q
  1. Purpose of 25nm MSA diagram
A

a. Minimum safe altitude which provides 1000ft clearance within 25 nm radius from the navigational facility.

85
Q
  1. IFR maps true or magnetic
A

a. Magnetic

86
Q
  1. Is there any buffer on the hold entry sectors?
A

a. 5 degrees

87
Q
  1. What’s terrain clearance on an arc?
A

a. 1000 ft withing 2.5nm of the arc.

88
Q
  1. Terrain clearance under IFR?
A

a. 1000 ft
b. 2000 ft mountainous terrain
c. 3000 ft

89
Q
  1. Hold briefing: how would you account for wind during offset entry?
A

a. You might have to track out further on the 150 if you were flying into a head wind during entry, or you could be too close to the overhead once you have turned around trying to intercept the inbound leg.

90
Q
  1. Tell me about take-off minima
A

a. Take off minima is published on the aerodrome chart.
If no minima are published, its 300ft ceiling, 1500m vis.

91
Q
  1. Tell me about reduced minima
A

a. 0ft ceiling and 800m vis (requirements in IFR law 91)
Both pilot need training
Runway must have centre marking or lights
RVR on the plate
Obstacles on the take off path are taking into account
Aircraft must have auto feather

92
Q
  1. Spacing of runway edge lights.
A

a. 200ft spacing

93
Q
  1. When centre lights change colour and why
A

a. Viewed from the landing threshold,
i. the runway centre lights are white until the last 3000 ft of the runway
ii. White lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2000 ft
iii. For the last 1000 ft of the runway, all centre lights are red.

94
Q
  1. Asked about the circling area Cat B and C
A

a. Cat-A = 1.68nm
Cat B = 1.68
Cat C = 4.2nm

95
Q
  1. AOB during SIDs, holds, MAP etc
A

a. The lessor of either a rate one turn or 25 degrees.

Tech Exam (8 decks)

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