IFR Flight Planning Flashcards

1
Q

Flights below FL290, fly East at what cruising altitudes?

A

Odd levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Flights below FL290, fly west at what cruising altitude?

A

Even Levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When experiencing a Coms failure under IFR in VMC conditions what is the procedure?

A

Continue VMC and land at the nearest possible aerodrome in the most efficient manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the procedure when experiences a Com failure while:

  • In IFR Flight
  • In IMC weather conditions
A
  • Maintain last assigned
    • speed
    • level
    • 20 min
  • Once failing to report at the next compulsory reporting point continue enroute
    • As per flight plan.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When in IFR in IMC conditions and under radar contact what is the procedure in the event of a communications failure?

A
  • Maintain last assigned speed and level or MFA
  • For 7 minuts
  • Set 7600
  • Proceed in accordance with filed flight plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

IFR in IMC under a radar climb and you have a coms failure what is the procedure?

A
  • Climb to and maintain assigned altitude
  • For 3 minutes
  • Continue in accordance with IFR flight plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the requirments of a flight plan?

A
  • If part of the flight is under ATC
  • If in IFR flight going though an advisory airspace
  • When required by ATC
  • Crossing International Borders
  • When in co-oridnation with military units
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the definition of the minimum decent altitude/height?

A

A specfied altitude or height in a non precision or circling approach below which descent may ot be made without visual reference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Conditional routes are catagorised as?

A
  • Cat 1 - Perminantly used
  • Cat 2 - Useable during designated times
  • Cat 3 - May not be planned but used by ATC when directed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are RNAV routes specified?

A

RNAV routes are specified by a number of waypoint designated by Lat and Long not VOR/NDB/DME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three RNAV routes?

A
  1. Fixed published routes useable by aircraft meeting RNP 5
  2. Contingency published routes that are useable by aircraft meeting RNP5 at specified times
  3. Random RNAV that allows aircraft to fgollow their own prefered routes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The minimum safe sector altitude is?

A

Published on instrument approach charts, giving the minimym altitude that provides a 1000ft vertical clearance from obstacle with 25nm of the Nav facility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 6 basics requirements of IFR Flight?

A
  1. Routing
  2. Altitude
  3. Flight Plan
  4. Clearence
  5. Two way Communication
  6. Position Reports
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Approach charts provide the necessary guidance information from what point?

A

The Initial approach fix (IAF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What information appears in the header sectino of an IFR Approach Chart? (7)

A
  • Airport Name
  • The Catagory of the approach procedure (where applicable)
  • The approach aid, -type, frequency, ident and runway survey
  • Airport Elevation
  • Minimym safe sector altitude along the lcoation of the centre line
  • Communication and information frequencies
  • Altitude information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does this area on an approach chart denote?

A

Holding pattern, altitude and designation

17
Q

What does A1, A2, A3 mean on the approach chart?

A
  • A1 - Distance to Threshold
    • Shape = Final Approach Fix
  • A2 - Missed Approach Point
    • The point efore which a missed approach should be initiated in order to preserve the required obstacle clearence
  • A3 - The Threshold Elevation
18
Q

The table below gives the details and facilitates what?

A
  • Decision Altitude in QNH/QFE
  • Runway Lighting
  • Circling Approach Alt/Height Minima
  • Rates of descent to maintain glide slope
19
Q

The HI Chart starts how many feet above the ceiling of a LO chart?

A

500ft Above the boundary

20
Q

Unless otherwise shown on the charts for standard instrument departure the route are give in which of the following?

  • True Course
  • Magnetic Course
  • True Track
  • Magnetic Track
A

Magnetic Course

21
Q

An Airway on a LO/HI Chart is marked 5000 2900a, and 3100T

  1. The notation 5000 means?
  2. The notation 2900a means?
  3. The notation 3100T means?
A
  1. MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude
  2. MORA (Minimum Off Route Altitude)
  3. MOCA (Minimum Obstacle Clearence Altitude)
22
Q

What does the * symbol mean when associated with an NDB?

A

Denotes that the NDB is part time opearation.

23
Q

What does the D symbol mean when co-located with a VOR?

A

The VOR is also a DME

24
Q

If there is no ATC exception what speed is enforced below FL 010?

A

250 KTS IAS

25
Q

What does MAA mean on a HI/LO Chart?

A

Maximum Authorised altitude