IFR Checkride Flashcards
Pass Checkride
1
Q
GPS constellation
A
31 satellites
Orbiting Earth at 12,000 miles
2 orbits every 24 hours
Transmit signal to GPS receiver
2
Q
How many satellites does it take for GPS antenna position
A
A minimum of four satellites
3
Q
Approved IFR GPS
A
Panel mounted
Approved insulation by the FAA
Found in the flight manual supplement
4
Q
Handheld GPS
A
Aid in situational awareness
Not approved by the FAA for IFR
5
Q
How can a pilot determine if global position system installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches
A
Flight manual supplement
6
Q
How can handheld GPS systems be used?
A
To aid in situational awareness
7
Q
What are the primary benefits of satellite-based area navigation (RNAV)
A
Provides optimal routing and altitudes
8
Q
Before using any procedure or waypoint retrieved from an airborne navigation database
A
The pilot should verify the validity of the database during pre-fight and inflate
9
Q
One way to verify the currency of your airborne navigation database is to
A
Check your way points to make sure they seem correct and are in the right order
10
Q
Are handheld GPS systems authorized for IFR navigation?
A
No
11
Q
What does WAAS stand for?
A
Wide area augmentation system
Higher accuracy and reliability
Augmented by ground stations
Certified under
TSO(TECHNICAL CERTIFIED ORDER) C145 or C146
Considered stand-alone unit
Do not need legacy navigation equipment in your aircraft to receive ground-based nav-aid that would normally be used for navigation.
No VOR, DME, and no ADF.
12
Q
How does a WAAS system work
A
GPS satellite send signal to reference station on ground,
that signal is then compared to the actual reference station location,
it is corrected and sent to the master station,
to the uplink station
to the Geo satellite
to the airplanes WAAS receiver
13
Q
What does LPV stand for
A
Localizer performance with vertical guidance
14
Q
Accuracy of RNAV - 1
A
1 nautical mile accuracy 95% of the time
15
Q
Accuracy of RNAV - 2
A
2 nautical miles accuracy 95% of time
16
Q
Non - WAAS GPS are certified under what TSO
A
C129 or c196
It’s also considered not a standalone unit
Must have avionics for ground-based navigation facilities, must also be functional.
17
Q
during IFR enroute and terminal operations using an approved non WAAS GPS system for navigation ground-based navigational facilities.
A
Must be operational along the entire route
18
Q
During IFR operation using an approved non WAAS GPS system for navigation
A
The aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route
19
Q
As part of your GPS PreFlight planning our RAIM prediction should be verified, this means that
A
RAIM is predicted to be available for your entire route of flight including the GPS approaches at your destination
20
Q
During IFR enroute operations using an approved TSO - c129 or TSO - c196 GPS system for navigation.
A
The aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route
21
Q
What is the definition of a technically advanced aircraft
A
An airplane is having a GPS navigation system with a moving map display and an autopilot
22
Q
The lighter workloads associate with glass digital flight instrumentation
A
May lead to complacency by the flight crew
23
Q
Automation in aircraft has proven
A
To present new hazards and its limitations
24
Q
When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits
A
Risk is increased
25
the advancements of avionics in light general aviation airplanes has enhance situational awareness for properly trained pilots. However, there is concerned that this technology could lead to
Complacency
26
if the electronic flight instrument system (EFIS) is fails in Flight which instrument would you use for pitch and Bank information
Standby attitude indicator
27
If the electronic flight instrument system fails in Flight how will you monitor your altitude
Standby altimeter
28
An aircraft which is equipped with an electronic flight display EFD can
Offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task
29
Which types of airspace are depicted on the in route low-altitude chart
Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes in special use airspace
30
Restricted areas depicted on a low-level IFR chart
Outer boundary shown with blue fence post like lines
| Inside boundary shown within, solid blue lines
31
Which charts depict MTRs above 1500 feet
IFR low altitude enroute charts
32
MOAs are established to
Separate certain military activities from IFR traffic
33
Which aeronautical chart depicts military training routes above 1500 ft
IFR low-altitude enroute charts
34
Victor airways
Identified by a v and numbers
Based on VOR
Up to but not including 18000 MSL
May be flown using RNAV
35
T - Routes
May be flown with various types of RNAV
Base normally 1200 AGL
Up to but not including 18000 MSL
36
Jet routes
Identified by the letter J
| 18,000 feet MSL to FL450
37
Q - Routes
High altitude
| may be flown by various types of RNAV
38
What is MEA on a chart
It's the minimum enroute altitude
39
MAA
Maximum authorized altitude
40
A blue number on a airway with a g at the end?
Lowest enroute altitude when flying with an approved FAA GPS.
41
The altitude that provides acceptable navigational signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle clearance requirements, is the minimum
Enroute altitude
42
The number on a chart below the MEA with a "*" in front of it is the?
Minimum obstruction clearance altitude also known as MOCA
Lowest altitude on airway segments
Guarantees obstruction clearance 1000 feet non mountainous
And 2000 feet in mountainous terrain
only applies if you're in the airway in assures VOR signal within 22 nautical miles
Example: *14800
43
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is
2000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous area, 1000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
44
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off airways IFR flight over non mountainous terrain?
1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nautical miles of course.
45
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an IFR off airways flight over mountainous terrain
2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nautical miles of course
46
Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, AND MEA non mountainous area
1000 foot obstacle clearance
47
In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below the altitude of
2000 feet above the highest obstacle
48
ATC May assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and within
22 nautical miles of a VOR
49
Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is a shirt for a distance from the VOR only
22 nautical miles
50
in the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of
4 nautical miles from the course flown
51
What is the minimum altitude that is prescribed for the off airways IFR flight over mountainous terrain
2000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles of the course
52
A flag over a airport, VOR or fix with a cross in the middle of the flag means
There is a minimum crossing altitude or known as a MCA
The lowest altitude to cross a fix in a direction
You must climb to the MCA prior to crossing the fix
53
If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?
The MEA at which the fix is approached
54
MRA in low IFR stands for?
Minimum reception altitude
It's the minimum altitude to receive an off airway radio signal to identify an interception
MRAs do not apply to you if you have a approved GPS for navigation.
55
Reception of from an off-air way radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
MRA or minimum reception altitude is defined as a lowest altitude at which an intersection fix can be determined from an off air way radio facility if the fix can be determined at the MEA there will be no MRA
56
reception of signals from a radio facility located off the airway being flown may be inadequate at the designated mea to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
Minimum reception altitude, MRA, is the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined using an off airway radio facility
57
which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
The class e airspace extending upwards from 700 feet or more over the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace
58
Class g airspace is that airspace where
ATC does not control air traffic
59
what are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overline controlled airspace
60
ARTCC stands for?
Air route Traffic control center
There are many in the US
They are depicted in a IFR chart with a solid blue back and forth square line known as a changeover point COP
61
FIS - B stands for?
Flight information service - broadcast
You can receive METARS TAFS PIREPS and NOTAMS
Graphic displays of
AIRMETS SIGMETS convective SIGMETS NEXRAD
62
for operations of established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contentious US H class vortac facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no further apart then
200 nautical miles
63
for IFR operation of established airways below 18,000 feet VOR navigational AIDS used to describe the route of flight should be no more than
80 nautical miles apart
64
What are the two types of departure procedures (DPs)?
Obstacle departure procedures (ODPs)
| Standard instrument departures (SIDs)
65
A white "T" inside a black upside down triangle
It could mean takeoff minimums are non-standard
| It could also mean that there are specific departure procedures published for that specific airport
66
ODP s
Come and textual and graphic form
Obstacle clearance
Least restrictive route
May be flown even if not assigned by ATC
Should be flown unless ATC assigns different procedure or radar vectors
67
Standard instrument departure (SIDs)
```
Graphic with text description
Obstacle clearance
Reduces workload for pilots and ATC
Reduces radiofrequency congestion
ATC clearance required
Simplifies clearance
To accept a SID you must
Meet climb requirements
Have the charted procedure
If you don't meet the requirements you need to enter no SID in the remarks section of the flight plan.
```
68
What action is recommended if it probably does not wish to use a standard instrument departure procedure
Enter no SID in the remarks section of the IFR Flight plan
69
During a tick off into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?
When advised by the tower
70
Standard climb gradient
200 feet per nautical mile
71
200 ft per nautical mile at 90 knots is how much feets per minute?
ROC = (GS ÷ 60) x climb gradient ft/NM
ROC = (90 ÷60) x 200 ft/NM
ROC = (1.5) x 200 ft/NM
ROC = 300fpm
To climb a standard climb rate you need to climb 300 feet per minute.
You may also use a climb / descent table published by the FAA.
72
A particular DP requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per nautical mile to 8000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?
Minimum climb rate of 210 ft per nautical mile at a ground speed of 140 knots
Feet per min = (GS x feet per NM) ÷ 60
Feet per min = (140 x 210) ÷ 60
Feet per min = 490
73
When ATC design instrument procedures, unless otherwise stated or declared, ATC uses the standard IFR climb gradient of
200 feet per nautical mile
74
When proceeding on a climb be a standard instrument departure, the top altitude is
The highest altitude you climb to on the SID
75
How to Diverse Departure
Maintain runway heading
Cross departure end of runway - 35 feet
Climb gradient of at least 200 feet per nautical mile
First turn no lower than 400 ft above DER
shortest direction to first fix
76
Why are stars established
They're established to simplify clearance delivery procedures
77
What is a star
It stands for:
| standard terminal arrival
78
Under which condition does ATC issue a star?
When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot request no star on the flight plan
79
When flying a conventional star ATC was specifically issue altitude
Assignments and crossing restrictions
80
Descend via the star means:
Comply with lateral flight path
Comply with charted speech restrictions
Comply with published altitude restrictions
Descend to bottom altitude
81
"cleared"
Is not a "descend via" clearance
Clear for the route and speed
Descend is a secret clearance
82
Bottom altitude
Lowest altitude published / authorized
Not the MEA
Not any altitude on an approach
83
ATC will not issue a "Descend Via" with what type of altitudes?
Stars with only expect altitudes
84
Sky conditions and visibility absent from ATIS means?
Ceiling more than 5,000 feet and
| Visibility more than 5 statue miles
85
what obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the minimum sector altitudes depicted on the IAP charts
1000 feet within 25 nautical mile radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage
86
Initial approach fix
IAF label appears in the plan view, and this is where you start your instrument approach.
87
How can and I AFB identified on a standard instrument approach procedure (SIAP) chart?
All fixes that are labeled IAF
88
When you are being radar vectored in for an approach when can you start descending?
You can start descending to lower altitude went on a segment of a:
published route or
instrument approach procedure
If cleared for approach while ON AIRWAY can descend to minimum IFR altitude
89
When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than?
200 knots, the maximum airspeed in a procedure turn is 200 knots (indicated airspeed) AIM 5 - 4 - 9
90
What does the absence of the procedure turn Barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
A procedure turn is not authorized
| A procedure turn is not authorized unless the approach chart (NOS) indicates on the plan view a procedure turn Barb.
91
"NoPT to...... "
Means?
NoPT no procedure to
92
Localizer sensitivity
5 degrees total
2 1/2 degrees each side
4 times more sensitive than a VOR
93
Tracking inbound on localizer
Drift correction established before the final approach fix
| heading corrections no greater than 2 degrees inside the final approach fix
94
In operative outer / middle marker substitute
Compass locator
Precision radar
IFR - approved GPS
95
Compass locator identifier
2 letters
Outer marker - first two letters of localizer identifier
middle marker - last two letters of localizer identifier
96
Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group
Middle compass locator
The middle compass locator transmits the last two letters of the localizer identification group. The outer compass locator transmits the first two letters of the localizer identification group.
97
Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two-letter coded signal
Compass locator
98
Glide slope interception point
Indicated by a lightning bolt
| Final approach fix for precision approach
99
Standard Glide slope of 3 degrees =
Rate of descent = 5 x ground speed
| Example: 5 x 90GS = 450fpm
100
Glide slope and localizer are centered
AirSpeed too fast: initially reduced power only
| AirSpeed too slow: initially increase power only
101
The precision final approach fix intercept altitude for the ILS Glide slope is indicated by?
The lightning bolt symbol
102
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° Glide slope at a constant true airspeed
When ground speed is increased rate of descent must be increased
103
The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS Glide slope must be decreased if:
The ground speed is decreased
104
Turn remain on the ILS Glide path, the rate of descent must be increased if:
The ground speed is increased
105
The rate of descent on the Glide slope is dependent upon
Ground speed
106
The glideslope and localized are centered but the airspeed is too fast what should be adjusted initially?
Power only
| Initially adjust power only to reduce your speed followed as necessary by an increase in pitch
107
How do you figure out your approach category
VSO x 1.3 = approach category
Example:
VSO = 72 knots
72 x 1.3 = 93.6
108
Aircraft approach categories are based on
1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight
109
During an instrument precision approach training obstacles clearance depends on adherence to
Minimum altitude shown on the IAP
110
Approximately what height is the Glide slope centerline at the MM of the typical ILS
200 ft, the glideslope usually crosses the middle marker at approximately 200 feet above the touchdown zone, AIM 1 - 1 - 9
111
The maximum holding speed from MHA to 6000 feet is
200 knots
112
The maximum holding speed from 6001 to 14000 feet is
230 knots
113
The maximum holding speed from 6001 to 14000 feet when restricted?
210 knots
114
One characteristic that a properly functioning dryer depends upon for operation is the
Resistance to the function of the spinning wheel or disk
115
When on the proper glidepath of a 2 bar VASI the pilot will see the near bar as
White and the far bar as red
116
On the runup pad, you received the following clearance from ground control:
"Clear to the Dallas Love airport as filed - maintain 6000 - squawk 0704 just before departure - departure control will be 124.9"
An abbreviated clearance such as this will always contain the:
Destination airport in route
| A clearance is always issued with destination airport and route.
117
When are speed is decreasing a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?
Decrease the angle of bank and / or increase the angle of attack
118
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the
Airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.
119
As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate
1 or more miles for each 1000 feet of altitude above the facility
120
what should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a West heading in the northern hemisphere
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth
121
What cas must be used to maintain a 158KTAS at a flight plant altitude of 8000 feet (Temp 0°)
140 KCAS
use the given temperature the cruise altitude 8000 and the TAS of 158 to determine the CAS. use a flight computer to determine 140 KCAS
122
The layers of the atmosphere, beginning at the Earth's surface, are:
Troposphere, stratosphere, and mesosphere
123
LDA
Localizer type directional aid
| Normal localizer with an accuracy 5°
124
What information is contained in the notices to airman publication
Current NOTAMs D and FDC NOTAMs
