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Aviation Instrument > IFR > Flashcards

IFR Flashcards

1
Q

Tomato flames

A 
Tachometer 
Oil pressure gauge
Magnetic compass 
Air speed indicator 
Temperature gauge 
Oil temperature gauge
Fuel gauge 
Landing gear position lights
Altimeter 
Manifold pressure gauge 
ELT
Seat belts
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2
Q

VFR NIGHT equipment required.

A 
Fuses
Landing light
Anti collision lights
Position lights
Source of electrical power
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3
Q

INSTRUMENT - REQUIRED DEVICES

A

VFR DAY AND NIGHT PLUS

Generator/Alternator 
Radio
Altimeter
Ball
Clock with second hand
Attitude indicator
Rate of turn indicator
Directional gyro
DME above 24,000'
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4
Q

What are standard alternate minimums?

A

Precision approach: 600’ and 2 miles visibility at ETA.
Non precision approach: 800’ and 2 miles visibility at ETA.
Visual approach: descent from MEA and approach and Landing done in VFR conditions.
Non standard: front pages of NOS, on airport diagrams

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5
Q

When must we file an alternate?

A

Always, except when within 1 hour before ETA to 1 hour after ETA, the weather is forecast to be 2000’ and 3 miles visibility.
If your airport of intended landing has only a GPS approach, you must file an alternate.

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6
Q

Recency experience requirements to act as PIC.

A 
Conduct 6 instrument approaches, intercept and track navigational courses, and perform holding procedures. 
6 months more before IPC is required. 
Safety pilot must be rated in the same category and class of aircraft with current medical. 
Passenger currency is the same 90 day rule. You may be instrument current but not to carry passengers. 
Night currency: 3 take offs and landings to a full stop, 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise in same category, class and type.
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7
Q

To act as pilot in command of civil aircraft under IFR.

A

Pilot must have a current medical certificate and current instrument rating.

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8
Q

Logging instrument time.

A

Only for time when operating solely by instruments under actual or simulated.
An instructor may log time in actual instrument conditions.
Log location and type of approach and safety pilot.
A flight simulator may be used to log instrument time provided a authorized instructor is present.

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9
Q

Required documents.

A 
Airworthiness certificate
Registration 
Radio license
Operating limitations (placards, POH)
Weight and balance
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10
Q

Aircraft Airworthiness

A

Annual inspection
VOR checks every 30 days
100 hour inspections (for hire only)
AD’s (one time and re occurring)
Transponder (24 months)
ELT (12 months, 1/2 shelf life of battery, 1 cum hour of use)
Static system (groups pitot system and altimeter)(24 months)

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11
Q

VOR equipment checks for IFR flight:

A
  • VOT: +/-4. Published in A/FD, tune to 108.0MHZ, 180 TO/360 FROM
  • Ground checkpoint: +/-4, specific point on airport listed in A/FD.
  • Airborne checkpoint: +/-6, located over easily identifiable terrain or features on the ground, listed in A/FD
  • VOR/VOR: +/-4, dual check in the air.
  • VOR radial on airway centerline over identifiable ground point: +/-6.
  • Radiated test signal by A & P only.
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12
Q

COMPASS ERRORS

A 
Variation (true vs magnetic)
Deviation (magnetic interference)
Magnetic dip (pulls towards earth)
Oscillation (turbulence, combination)
Northerly turning errors (UNOS)
Acceleration errors (ANDS)
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13
Q

ACCELERATION ERRORS

A

Accelerate
North
Decelerate
South

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14
Q

NORTH TURNING ERRORS

A

Undershoot
North
Overshoot
South

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15
Q

LOST PROCEDURES

A 
Climb
Call/Communicate
Confess
Comply
Conserve
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16
Q

GO AROUND / MISSED APPROACH

A 
Cram
Climb
Clean
Cool
Call
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17
Q

5 T’s: HOLDING

A 
Turn
Time
Twist
Throttle 
Talk
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18
Q

MUST KNOW FOR FLIGHT 91.103

A 
Notams
Weather
Known traffic delays
Runway lengths
Alternates if needed
Fuel requirements (include alternate)
Takeoff / landing distances
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19
Q

3 ERRORS OF INSTRUMENT SCAN

A

Fixation
Omission
Emphasis

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20
Q

TRANSPONDER CODES

A 
1200 -VFR
7500 - HIJACK
7600 - LOST COMM.
7700 - EMERGENCY 
7777 - MILITARY INT.
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21
Q

FUNDAMENTAL SKILLS OF INST. FLYING

A
  • Instrument cross check
  • Instrument interpretation
  • Aircraft control
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22
Q

MODE C TRANSPONDER REQUIREMENTS 91.215

A
  • Class A,B, and C airspace
  • Within 30 NM of class B
  • Above the ceiling within the lateral boundaries of class B or class C up to 10,000’ MSL.
  • All airspace at and above 10,000’ MSL, excluding that airspace below 2,500 AGL.
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23
Q

DECIDE MODEL

A 
Detect
Estimate
Choose
Identify
Do
Evaluate
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24
Q

I’M SAFE CHECKLIST

A 
Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol 
Fatigue
Emotion/Eating
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25
Q

WHAT ARE THE 3 DEFINITIONS OF NIGHT, AND WHAT ARE THEY USED FOR?

A
  • Sunset (91.209) Beacons go on (plane and airport)
  • Evening civil twilight: Generally 30 minutes after sunset (30 minutes before sunrise) this is used for logging night flight.
  • 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise (61.57b) This time is what we use for night currency.
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26
Q

INSTRUMENT DEPARTURES:

A

DP’s Departure Procedures: Either in front of NOS plates or right behind specific approach plates. Provides take off min’s and transition from airport to en route. Must have a textual description as a minimum in order to accept a Departure Procedure. If you don’t want a DP, write NO DP in remarks section on flight plan.

  • If not given a DP, expect vectors from ATC until you are on course.
  • Because we are part 91, takeoff minimums do not apply to us.
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27
Q

IFR CLEARANCE

A 
C- Clearance limit
R- Route of flight
A- Altitude 
F- Frequency for departure 
T- Transponder code
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28
Q

CLEARANCE VOID TIME

A

Used by ATC when at an uncontrolled field. Somehow we need to get a release/clearance to depart, and if there is no tower, then we must:

  • find a frequency that will work on the ground to talk to ATC.
  • call from a cell phone and get a clearance void time.
  • PURPOSE: to advise an aircraft that the departure clearance is automatically cancelled if takeoff is not made prior to a specified time. The pilot must obtain a new clearance or cancel his/her IFR flight plan if not off by the specified time.
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29
Q

CLIMB GRADIENT

A
  • Some instrument departures will have a minimum climb gradient you must be able to achieve in order to execute the departure successfully
  • This number is generally given in a foot/Nautical mile quantity
  • We need to make this number tangible to us, so we change it to FPM on our VSI.
  • To calculate: (Ground speed / 60 X Foot/NM requirement
    EX: 100 KIAS / 60 = 1.6 X 300 Foot/NM=500fpm
  • So in this example, if we cannot obtain a 500’ / minute climb on departure, we cannot execute this departure procedure.
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30
Q

INSTRUMENT ALTITUDES

A
  • 0-179 = odd thousands
  • 180-359 = even thousands
  • ONE: ODD NORTH EAST
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31
Q

MEA:

A
  • MEA: Minimum En-route Altitude is the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that guarantees adequate navigational signal reception and obstruction clearance of 1,000’ in non mountainous and 2,000’ in mountainous terrain.
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32
Q

VFR day instrument and equipment required. Acronym

A

Tomato flames

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33
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude. Ensures reliable navigation only within 22 NM of facility and obstacle clearance.

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34
Q

MAA

A

Maximum Authorized Altitude. Max usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment for which adequate reception of navigation aid signals are assured.

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35
Q

MRA

A

Minimum Reception Altitude. Lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.

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36
Q

MCA

A

Minimum Crossing Altitude. The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude.

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37
Q

OROCA (NOS):

A

Off Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude. Provides obstacle clearance of 1,000 and 2,000’ but may not provide signal coverage from ground based Nav aids, ATC radar, or communications.

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38
Q

MSA:

A

Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude. Found on approach plates and provides 1000’ terrain clearance within 22NM of the airport, used for emergency purposes.

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39
Q

STANDARD LOST COMMUNICATIONS PROCEDURES-91.185
ALTITUDE- to fly
ROUTE- to fly

A

If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
IF IFR (91.185c(1&2))
ALTITUDE-fly the highest of these in this order:
M-Minimum Enroute Altitude
E-Expected altitude
A-Assigned

ROUTE- fly in order of:
A-Assigned 
V-Vectored
E-Expected 
F-Filed
40
Q

OXYGEN REQUIREMENTS 91.211

A
  • Cabin pressure altitudes of 12,500’ up to and including 14,000’ MSL, required minimum flight crew provided and use 02 for that portion of flight greater than 30 minutes.
  • Cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000’ minimum flight crew provided and use 02 entire flight.
  • Cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000’
41
Q

WHAT REPORTS MUST ALWAYS BE MADE TO ATC?

A

M-Missed Approach
A-Altitude Changes VFR on top
T-True Airspeed change +- 10 knots or 5%
H-Holding: time and altitude when entering or leaving the holding fix.
C-Cannot maintain a 500fpm climb/descent.
A-Altitude and time when at holding fix or CLEARANCE LIMIT
L-Leaving an assigned altitude
L-Lost comm. Nav, equipment
S-Safety of flight, including in-forecasted weather.

42
Q

REPORTS MADE WHEN NOT IN RADAR CONTACT

A
  • Compulsory reporting points
  • Inbound at Final Approach Fix (FAF) or Outer Marker(OM)
  • ETA error of 3 minutes or more
43
Q

POSITION REPORTS SHOULD INCLUDE:

A 
I-ID
P-Position 
T-Time & Type of flight plan
A-Altitude 
N-Name of next fix
E-ETA at that fix
S-Supplemental Information
44
Q

HOLDING

A

Method of delaying airborne aircraft to help maintain separation and provide a smooth flow of traffic. A holding pattern is a predetermined maneuver designed to keep an aircraft within a specified airspace.

45
Q

INFORMATION NEEDED FOR NON PUBLISHED HOLDING PATTERN

A 
D-Direction of hold in relation to fix. 
F-Fix
R-Radial of hold
A-Altitude 
T-Turns (left or right)
E-Expect further clearance time
46
Q

INFORMATION NEEDED FOR PUBLISHED HOLD.

A

D-Direction of hold in relation to fix
F-Fix
E-Expect further clearance time

47
Q

WHAT ARE THE MAXIMUM HOLDING AIRSPEEDS?

A
  • Up to 6000’ = 200 KIAS
  • 6001’-14000’ = 230 KIAS
  • 14001’ - above = 265 KIAS
48
Q

STAR

A

Standard terminal arrival route Simplifies clearances, provides guidance from en-route to approach to destination.

  • Must have at least a textual or graphic depiction in order to perform.
  • If you don’t want a STAR write “NO STAR” in remarks section of flight plan.
49
Q

SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT APPROACH.

A
  • INITIAL: aligns aircraft with approach course, begins at IAF.
  • INTERMEDIATE: Designed primarily to position your aircraft for the final descent to the airport.
  • FINAL: navigate from this point to DH or MDA. Gear down before landing checklist within 2 miles of this point (or 1/2 dot ILS)
  • MISSED: Begins at MAP (missed approach point) by: DH, time, Middle Marker, DME, Runway (GPS)
50
Q

DETERMINING APPROACH CATEGORY

A
  • Approach category’s are determined off of aircrafts approach speed. If none is published, 1.3 Vso
  • If you are ever between two categories or on the border between them always use higher category.
  • Timed missed approaches however are based off of ground speed, not approach speed which is indicated.
51
Q

Precision approach

A
  • Includes both course guidance with a localizer and altitude guidance with a glide slope, as well as DME.
  • DH= Decision height (proceed to land or go missed). This is the missed approach point in an ILS approach.
52
Q

LOCALIZER

A
  • located opposite the approach end of the runway.
  • transmits 108.0-111.95MHz
  • transmits signal 18NM from antenna up to an altitude of 4500’ above antenna site.
  • full scale deflection = 2.5* (4 times more sensitive than a VOR)
  • width of signal = 3-6
53
Q

GLIDE SLOPE

A
  • Located 750’- 1250’ down runway.
  • Displaced 400’- 600’ from centerline.
  • Width of signal = 1.4*
54
Q

OUTER MARKER

A
  • Located between 4-7 miles from airport
  • Indicates an aircraft at appropriate altitude on localizer course will intercept glide path.
  • Identified by first 2 letters of the airport identifier.
55
Q

MIDDLE MARKER

A
  • Located about 3500’ from threshold on centerline generally where aircraft is at DH.
  • Identified by second 2 letters of the airport identifier.
56
Q

PARALLEL APPROCHES

A

Conducted if centerline are at least 2500’ apart, aircraft separated by 1.5 miles diagonally.

57
Q

NON PRECISION APPROACH

A
  • Will provide course guidance, but no glide slope or altitude guidance.
  • MDA = Minimum Descent Altitude. This is the altitude which we can only descend from if requirements of 91.175 are met. This is not the missed approach point like DH is on a precision approach, but the altitude at which the missed approach will be located.
58
Q

LOCALIZER APPROACH

A

Provides course guidance, audibly identified by a three letter designator. Localizer course width normally is 5, 2.5 on each side of centerline for full deflection.
Located opposite the approach end of the runway.
Transmits signal 18 NM from antenna up to an altitude of 4500’ above antenna site. Transmits 108.1-111.95MHz.

59
Q

LOCALIZER BACK COURSE

A

No glide slope for back course.
When flying with an HSI, there is no difference in how we set up our instruments and fly the approach.
If flying with a VOR we can receive reverse sensing. To counter this, set your needle to the inbound course of the localizer front course, and fly the tail of the needle. This will be normal sensing.

60
Q

LOCALIZER TYPE DIRECTIONAL AID (LDA)

A

Comparable utility and accuracy of a localizer, but not part of an ILS. (Some have a glide slope)
Course width is between 3-6
Not aligned with the runway, but straight in minimums may be published where the angle between the runway centerline and LDA course does not exceed 30*
Identifier is 3 letters preceded by an I. EX: I-ABC

61
Q

SIMPLIFIED DIRECTIONAL FACILITY (SDF)

A

Provides course guidance similar to an ILS, however is less precise and may or may not be aligned with the runway.
Course width is fixed at either 6* or 12*
Identified by three letters w/o an I preceding it. EX: ABC
Usable off course indications limited to 35* either side of course centerline. If you are more than 35* from course centerline, disregard any instrument indications until within limitations of 35*.

62
Q

VOR APPROACH

A

Full scale deflection = 10* each side of centerline, 20* total.
Step down fixes defined using DME or radials.

63
Q

GPS APPROACH

A

Put the GPS in GPS mode (out of VLOC)
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) must be maintained throughout the approach in order to continue, by final approach fix the GPS must sequence into approach mode (APR) Sensitivity of the GPS = 5 miles en-route, 1 mile terminal, and .3 miles in approach mode. Can only file to an airport where the only approach is a GPS approach if you have filed for an alternate airport that has something other than GPS.
CONSTELLATION
- 25 satellites, minimum 5 needed for RAIM
- 4 satellites needed for 3D positioning

64
Q

CIRCLING APPROACH

A

If approach course is not aligned within 30* of the runway, only circling minimums will be published. Will also be published on standard straight in approaches in the case that a circling approach is needed. Circling minimums provides 300’ AGL obstacle clearance in circling area. These are MINIMUMS, so if weather allows a higher altitude to be flown that more closely approximates TPA, fly it, it will create a more realistic approach and landing. Circling approach protected area is based off your approach category. If you lose sight of the runway at any time, immediately begin a climbing turn toward the airport to intercept the missed approach procedure.

65
Q

PAR/ASR

A

PAR: precision approach radar- controller provides both azimuth ant elevation navigation guidance.
ASR: Airport Surveillance Radar- provides azimuth guidance only

66
Q

CONTACT VS.VISUAL

A

CONTACT - cannot be initiated by ATC, but can be requested by the pilot to expedite arrival instead of the published procedure if the following is met:
- The airport has a standard or special instrument approach procedure
- Reported ground visibility is at least 1 mile.
- You can remain clear of clouds with 1 mile flight visibility.
VISUAL - can be initiated by ATC or
- ATC must ensure that you have the airport or preceding aircraft in sight.
Once you announce aircraft in sight, you are responsible for aircraft separation.
- Is authorized when ceiling is reported to expected to be at least 1000’ AGL and 3 miles visibility, and you remain clear of clouds at all times.

67
Q

TO DESEND OUT OF DH OR MDA, THE FOLLOWING MUST BE MET:

A
  • The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers.
  • The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used.
  • At least one of the following 12 visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
  • the threshold
  • the threshold markings
  • the threshold lights
  • the runway end identifier lights
  • Visual approach slope indicator
  • the touchdown zone
  • the touchdown zone markings
  • the touchdown zone lights
  • the runway
  • the runway markings
  • Runway lights
  • Approach lighting system, EXCEPT:
    Can only descend to 100’ above TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
68
Q

Clearance Limit (91.185c(3)):

A

The fix, point, or location to which an aircraft is cleared when issued an air traffic clearance. Only leave a clearance limit when:

  • if clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins (IAF), commence descent and or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect further clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended estimated time en route.
  • if clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the EFC time if one has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descend and approach as close as possible the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended estimated time enroute.
69
Q

When is a procedure turn not required? AIM 5-4-9

A
  • When there is a “NoPT” remark at the IAP.
  • Otherwise directed by ATC.
  • Radar vectored to final.
  • Timed approaches from a holding fix.
  • Holding or Teardrop depicted in lieu of PT.
70
Q

How can we identify a missed approach point?

A
  • Time from the final approach fix.
  • DME
  • Cross radial
  • DH
  • Circling when you lose sight of the runway.
71
Q

What is a VDP, and how is it calculated?

A
  • A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced, provided the runway environment is clearly visible to the pilot.
  • Essentially, it is the decision making point whether we can make a normal safe approach and landing, or if the field is still not in sight, we execute a missed approach because we could not use normal maneuvers to a safe landing.
  • Calculation: HAT (MDA-TDZE)/300
    EX: 900/300=3NM. At a DME of 3NM, this is our VDP point.
72
Q

What is the 3-1 rule, and how is it calculated?

A
  • The 3-1 rule is a tool used for descent planning when you are at altitude.
  • It is calculated by multiplying how many feet you want to lose (minus the zeros), and multiplying that by 3.
    EX: Cruise flight at 10,000 and a TPA of 1200.
  • Need to lose 8800 feet (drop the zero’s): so 88 x 3 = approximately 26 miles
  • So, from 26 miles from your destination begin a descent at a rate that you calculate.
  • Airspeed/2 = FPM (add a zero to the calculated number)
    EX: 140 KIAS/2=700 FPM
73
Q

RVR

A

Runway visual range

74
Q

RVV

A

Runway visibility value

75
Q

Class A weather minimum

A

N/A

76
Q

Class B weather minimum

A

3 Statute Miles

Clear of clouds

77
Q

Class C weather minimum

A

3 Statute miles

1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal (152)

78
Q

Class D weather minimum

A

3 Statute miles

1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal (152)

79
Q

Class E weather minimum

Less than 10,000’MSL

A

3 Statute miles

1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal (152)

80
Q

IFR regency of experience

A 
66HIT
Within the past 6 months 
Must have at least 6 instrument approaches. 
Holding
Intercepting radials 
Tracking of radials
81
Q

Mandatory reports to ATC

A 
DRUMS
Deviations from clearance 
Requested to report 
Unforecast weather 
Malfunctions
Safety of flight
82
Q

Lost communication- ROUTE

A

Assigned
Vectored
Expected
Filed

83
Q

Compass errors

A 
VDMONA
Variation
Deviation
Magnetic dip
Oscillation
Northerly turning errors 
Acceleration error
84
Q

Supplemental oxygen requirements

A

12,500-14,000 oxygen needed for greater than 30 minutes
>14,000 Required flight crew must use for entire flight.
>15,000 Occupants must be supplied with oxygen.

85
Q

Airport beacons

A

White/Green -lighted land airport
White/Yellow - lighted water airport
White/White/Green- lighted military airport

86
Q

Hypoxia

A

Hypoxic Hypoxia -inadequate supply of oxygen
Hypemic hypoxia- inability of the blood to carry oxygen (smoking at high altitude)
Stagnant hypoxia- inadequate circulation of oxygen (heart problems)
Histotoxic hypoxia- inability of the cells to effectively use oxygen (alcohol)

87
Q

3-P model

A

Perceive, Process, Perform

88
Q

PAVE

A

Pilot, Aircraft, enViroment, External Pressures

89
Q

DECIDE

A

Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate

90
Q

Five hazardous attitudes

A

Anti authority, impulsivity, invulnerability, macho, resignation

91
Q

CFIT

A

Controlled flight into terrain

92
Q

Doc’s to fly

A

Pilot certificate, medical certificate, drivers license.

93
Q

Four fundamental risk elements

A

Pilot, aircraft, environment, type of operation.

94
Q

Must know for flight 91.103

A 
NWKRAFT
Notams
Weather
Known traffic delays 
Runway Lengths
Alternates if needed
Fuel requirements 
Takeoff/Landing Distances
95
Q

Required preflight checklist for cross country flight.

A 
R - runway lengths
A - alternate if needed
W - weight and balance
F - fuel required 
A - ATC delays
T - takeoff and landing data

Aviation Instrument (2 decks)

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