IFR Flashcards

0
Q

Alternate weather minima requirements: two precision approaches

A

400-1 or 200-1/2 above the lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Alternate weather minima requirements: Alternate aerodrome without a TAF requires?

A

A serviceable GFA

  • no clouds lower than 1000’ above the lowest usable HAT/HAA
  • no CBs
  • vis no less than 3 miles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Alternate weather minima requirements: One usable precision approach

A

600-2 or 300-1 above the lowest useable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Alternate weather minima requirements: Non-precision available only

A

800-2 or 300-1 above the lowest usable HAT/HAA and visibility usable, whichever is greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Alternate weather minima requirements: no IFR approach available?

A

Forecast weather must be no lower than 500’ above a minimum IFR altitude that will permit a VFR approach and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Departure clearance will meet obstacle clearance requirements and ar based on the premise that on departure the aircraft will?

A
  • cross at least 35’ above the departure end of the runway
  • Climb on runway heading to 400’ AAE before turning
  • maintain a climb gradient of at least 200’ per NM throughout the climb to a minimum latitude for enroute operations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

GPS RAIM alert limits - approach mode

A

Goes into approach mode 2 nm back from FAWP

RAIM sensitivity is 0.3 nm either side of centreline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

GPS RAIM alert limits - terminal mode

A

Terminal mode is activated 30 nm back from the aerodrome

RAIM sensitivity is 1.0 nm either side of centreline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

GPS RAIM alert limits - en route mode

A

En route mode is activated 30 nm from airport

RAIM sensitivity is 2.0 nm either side of centreline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

GPS CDI/Track bar sensitivity - approach mode

A

Goes into approach mode 2nm back from FAWP

sensitivity is 0.3 nm either side of centreline (full deflection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

GPS CDI/Track bar sensitivity - terminal mode

A

Terminal mode is activated 30 nm back from aerodrome

Sensitivity is 1.0 nm either side of centreline (full scale deflection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

GPS CDI/Track bar sensitivity - en route mode

A

En route mode activated 30 nm from airport

CDI sensitivity is 5.0 nm (full scale deflection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Contact approach - pilot must have?

A
  • pilot requested
  • Clear of clouds
  • min 1 NM vis
  • have reasonable expectations of continuing Wx conditions (non-deteriorating)
  • maintain min 1000’ above highest obstacle within 5 NM of aircraft until landing
  • IFR is not cancelled
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Contact approach - the aerodrome must have?

A
  • be reporting min 1 SM of vis
  • have an approved instrument approach
  • traffic conditions that will permit the approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Visual approach

A
  • can be initiated by pilot or ATC
  • ceiling must be MRVA plus 500’ (min radar vector alt)
  • vis 3 SM or greater
  • pilot must have airport or traffic in sight to maintain visual separation
  • Wx is at least VFR as no missed approach will be issued
  • pilots responsibility for wake turbulence separation, noise abatements and any other restrictions
  • in the event of a missed approach, climb runway heading and listen for instructions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Windshear - into an increasing Windshear

A

Increasing performance Windshear

  • increasing headwind produced more lift AC becomes high on glide path. POWER REDUCTION required to re-establish on GP
  • Once re-established, POWER INCREASE to maintain GP
  • ground speed is reduced; sink rate reduced
16
Q

Windshear - into a decreasing windshear

A

Decreasing performance Windshear

  • decreased headwind produced less lift and AC becomes low on glide path. POWER INCREASE is required to re-establish on GP
  • Once re-established, POWER DECREASE required to maintain GP
  • ground speed is increased; sink rate increased
17
Q

Headwind on inbound leg - greater than one min in

A

Reduce outbound leg by 3/4 of the error

18
Q

Tailwind on inbound leg - less than one min inbound

A

Decrease outbound leg by 4/3 of error

19
Q

Inbound RMI intercepts

A

Course - head - cut

20
Q

Outbound RMI intercepts

A

Tail - course - cut

21
Q

Circling MDA gives _____ for clearance

A

300’

22
Q
Circling - Radius protection from threshold  
A
B
C
D
E
A
A - 1.3 (nm)
B - 1.5 
C - 1.7
D - 2.3
E - 4.5
23
Q
Speed category 
A
B
C
D
E
A
A. Up to 90 (KTS)
B. 91-120
C. 121-140
D. 141-165
E. Over 165
24
Q

VFR requirements - controlled

A

Clear of clouds vertical - 500’
Horizontal - 1 mile
AGL - 500’
Visibility - 3 miles

25
Q

Special VFR requirements

A

Visibility - 1 mile
Clear of clouds
Ground in sight

26
Q

Ceiling and visibility requirements - IFR

A

Ceiling - 1000’ and below

Visibility 1-3 sm

27
Q

Ceiling and visibility requirements - MVFR

A

Ceiling 1000’ - 3000’

Visibility 3-5 sm

28
Q

Ceiling and visibility requirements - VFR

A

Ceiling +3000’

Visibility +5 sm