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boeing 737-800 > IFOD > Flashcards

IFOD Flashcards

mel/cdl ops specs performance weight and balance

1
Q

What does the MEL stand for?

A

Minimum equipment list

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2
Q

What is the MEL used for?

A

The MEL lists inoperative aircraft systems. It is used to determine whether or not a flight is legal to depart with a particular component inoperative. The MEL provides this information to the pilots and flight dispatcher. The MEL is referred to only on the ground, not while in flight.

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3
Q

What CDL stand for?

A

Configuration Deviation List

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4
Q

What is the CDL used for?

A

The CDL lists components on the outside of the aircraft that are physically missing from the aircraft. When a part is removed, the configuration of the aircraft is changed. Sometimes there are takeoff and landing weight penalties associated with CDL items.

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5
Q

If an item is inoperative, and it cannot be found in the MEL, what course of action should be taken?

A

If the item cannot be found in the MEL, then the item must be fixed.

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6
Q

If an airplane is already out of the gate, sitting at the end of the runway, and the captain calls on the radio to advise that an electrical generator just went inoperative, what must be checked to see if the flight is still legal to depart?

A

The MEL

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7
Q

Is the MEL used on the ground, in-flight, or both?

A

The MEL is referred to only on the ground . For issues in flight refer to the operating manual, and the emergency checklist.

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8
Q

What does the AFM stand for?

A

Airplane Flight Manual

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9
Q

What is Ops Specs?

A

Operation Specification

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10
Q

What is the difference between the AFM and the ops specs?

A

The AFM is a manual for the aircraft written by the manufacturers. The Operation Specification is a company written manual that provides information about the company’s geographic and operating preferences.

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11
Q

What is an adequate airport?

A

An airport is considered adequate when it satisfies the aircraft performance requirements applicable at the expected landing weight, availability of the airport, over flight and landing authorizations, capability of ground operations assistance, and availability of NAVAIDs, and airport category for rescue and firefighting.

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12
Q

What is a suitable airport?

A

A suitable airport is an airport confirmed to be adequate, but also has the dispatch weather requirements in term of ceiling and visibility. In addition, crosswind forecast should be acceptable for the same period.

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13
Q

What is the maximum structural takeoff weight for the B737?

A

174,200

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14
Q

Is it possible to always takeoff at 174,200 lbs?

A

No

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15
Q

What are some of the factors that may have an effect on the maximum allowable takeoff weight?
hint: RAFTCAME

A 
Runway length and slope 
Airport Elevation
Flap setting
Temperature
Contaminated runway (snow,slush,ice, etc)
Air conditioning packs off 
MEL/CDL items 
Engine anti ice on
wind/ weather
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16
Q

What document does one refer to when considering maximum allowable takeoff weight for each flight?

A

The airport runway analysis will determine the maximum allowable takeoff weight for each flight

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17
Q

What is the standard flap setting for takeoff with the B737?

A

15 degrees of flap

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18
Q

What other flap setting are available for takeoff with the B737?

A

5 and 25 degrees of flap

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19
Q

What effect does snow, ice, or slush on a runway have on takeoff performance?

A

Decreases performance. Contaminated runways call for large takeoff weight penalties.

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20
Q

Are air conditioning packs normally on or off for takeoff?

A

Normally on, however, they can be turned off in order to achieve a higher maximum allowable take off weight.

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21
Q

If the air temperature increases, what effect does it have on takeoff weight?

A

The higher the temperature, the more of a penalty there is to the maximum takeoff weight.

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22
Q

Define the center of gravity?

A

The point at which all of the weight of an object is considered to be concentrated (the point at which the airplane would balance perfectly on the head of a pin.)

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23
Q

What does the MAC stand for and what is it?

A

Mac stands for Mean Aerodynamic Chord. It is the chord of an imaginary rectangular wing that has the same aerodynamic characteristics as the actual wing.

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24
Q

What is the STAB trim setting for?

A

The STAB trim is used to adjust the stabilizer for the correct airplane nose up setting for take off.

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25
Q

What does SEL/CAL stand for and what is it?

A

SELCAL stands for Selective Calling, and it is a means of communication between pilots and flight dispatchers. Each aircraft when it is built is assigned its own SELCAL code. To communicate with the aircraft, a flight dispatcher calls a ground based communication operator who can establish contact with the aircraft. The operator sets the SELCAL system on board the aircraft which alerts a bing bong bing bong chime with a blue light.

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26
Q

What does the FAR 121.00 say about communications?

A

It states that the pilot in command and flight dispatcher must be able to communicate with each other at all times, regardless of where on the flight currently is. Both are responsible for the safety of flight according to regulations, and as a result must always be able to communicate with each other.

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27
Q

Who is SFO ARINC?

A

SFO ARINC is the company that provides contract communications capability to the U.S. airlines. The flight dispatcher simply places a telephone call to SFO ARINC, who provides a phone patch with a given flight.

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28
Q

What is an ACARS?

A

ACARS (Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems). A text messaging system between pilots and dispatchers.

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29
Q

How many ARINC. Relay stations are there in the U.S. ?

A

TWO. SFO and NYC

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30
Q

What government agency is responsible for the United States Air Traffic systems?

A

The F.A.A.

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31
Q

What is class A airspace and where is it located?

A

Class A airspace is found FL180 to FL600. In order to fly class A airspace, a flight must be on a IFR flight plan.

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32
Q

What is class B airspace and what is the requirements to fly there?

A

Class B airspace is located around the nations’ busiest airports which have Terminal Radar Approach Control facilities and generally goes from the surface to 10,000 feet. In order to fly class B airspace, you must have two-way radio communication, a transponder with Mode C (or S), ATC clearance, and a private pilots license.

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33
Q

What is class C airspace and what are the requirements to fly there?

A

Class C is found around medium busy airports in the United States (ABQ,MSY,PDX) that have Terminal Radar Approach control facilities (TRACONS) and goes from the surface to 4000 feet. The requirements to fly class C airspace are two way radio communication, and a transponder with mode C.

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34
Q

What is class D airspace and what are the requirements to fly there?

A

Class D airspace is found around smaller American airports which have operating air traffic control tower. It goes from the surface to 2500 feet above the airport The only requirement to fly class D airspace is two- radio communication.

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35
Q

What is Class E airspace?

A

Class E airspace is another controlled airspace, which is not otherwise, classified as Class A,B,C, or D airspace.

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36
Q

What is class G airspace?

A

Uncontrolled airspace

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37
Q

Define and give an example of a prohibited area.

A

A prohibited area is airspace in which flight is absolutely forbidden. It is possible to sometimes fly over it. Examples would be the White House, the Pentagon, and the US capital building.

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38
Q

What is a restricted area?

A

A restricted area is airspace where the United States military performs war games, dog fight training, etc. Sometimes it is possible to get permission from the controlling agency for that area to plan a flight through. It depends on whether the area is active or not. Specific information on a restricted area can be found on the side panel of the High Altitude IFR En-Route charts.

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39
Q

What is a Warning Area?

A

A warning Area is found off shore in international waters. It is similar to a restricted because occasionally the United States military performs training in these areas. The F.A.A. has no control of these areas since they are not in international waters. If a Warning Area is NOTAM’d “hot” or “active”, do not plan a flight through it. If you do, ATC will automatically re-route the flight around it.

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40
Q

What does A.R.T.C.C. stand for and what is its function?

A

A.R.T.C.C. stands for Air Route Traffic Control Center. There are 20 domestic centers in the United States. A.R.T.C.C. use A.R.S.R. (Air Route Surveillance Radar) to track enroute aircraft. A.R.S.R. is a long range radar, capable of picking up aircraft 150-200nm from the radar site. (There are 24 controlled by the US, 20 contiguous plus Hawaii, Alaska, Puerto Rico, and Guam)

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41
Q

What does T.R.A.C.O.N, stand for and what is its function?

A

T.R.A.C.O.N. stands for Terminal Radar Approach Control facility. The nations busiest airports ORD,DFW have tracons (sometimes called radar rooms), which are staffed by air traffic controllers. The controllers use ASR to track departing and arriving aircraft. They use the radar to identify, then to sequence and separate them from other aircraft in the terminal area.

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42
Q

What is a Transponder with Mode C?

A

A transponder is a “black box”” found in the cockpit of an aircraft which helps to identify the aircraft to air traffic controllers. If an aircraft is equipped with a transponder, the flight will appear on the controllers radar screen as an alpha-numeric data block. The block contains specific info about a flight such as flt #, route of flight, alt, and ground speed. It helps to positively identify the aircraft . Mode C (and mode S) is the altitude reporting capability of the transponder, and some older transponders like mode A don’t have alt reporting capability.

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43
Q

What is an A.D.I.Z.?

A

A.D.I.Z. stands for Air defense Identification Zone and it is located around the boarder of the United States. The U.S. military positively identifies all aircraft crossing the boarder. All aircraft that penetrate the A.D.I.Z. must be on and I.F.R or D.V.F.R. flight plan, and cross within 5 mins of the original flight plan E.T.A. and within 10 miles of their flight plan estimate over land and 20 miles over water.

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44
Q

Where are the Jet Routes and Q Routes found?

A

Jet Routes are high altitude IFR Routes and they are located at FL180-FL450

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45
Q

Where are Victor airways found?

A

Victor airways are low altitude IFR routes and they are found from 1200 feet AGL- 17999 feet

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46
Q

What is a DP?

A

DP stands for Departure Procedure

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47
Q

What is a S.T.A.R?

A

S.T.A.R. stands for Standard Terminal Arrival Route and it is a published arrival procedure

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48
Q

What does A.T.I.S. stand for and it its function?

A

A.T.I.S. stands for Automated Terminal Information Service. Most ATC towers have A.T.I.S. available to pilots, A.T.I.S. is a looped tape recording which contains information about the airport, such as the actual hourly weather sequence, active runways, active instrument approaches in use, and any other important information about the airport. Pilots tune into the A.T.I.S. frequency to obtain the latest airport information.

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49
Q

What does the term VFR mean?

A

VFR stands for Visual Flight Rules. If a pilot is flying VFR, it means that they are solely responsible for maintaining their own traffic separation from other aircraft. The ATC controllers are not held responsible, as they control IFR flights. In order to takeoff or land at an airport under VFR, the ceiling must be not less then 1000 feet with visibility not less then 3 statue miles. If weather is below mins making the field IFR conditions, pilot needs to be instrument rated to takeoff or request special VFR clearance.

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50
Q

What is an IFR clearance?

A

An IFR clearance is specific instructions from ATC as to the exact route of flight that is to be flown, the altitude, transponder code, and departure instructions for a flight. The clearance is read to the flight crew and verified prior to departure. Once the pilots accept the IFR clearance, they are expected to adhere to it , with absolutely no deviation during the flight, unless the clearance is amended by an ATC controller. Before departing on a IFR flight, the pilot or flight dispatcher must file an IFR flight plan with an ARTCC at least 30 mins prior to departure.

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51
Q

What are the four main transponder codes? Emergency, hijack, radio failure and VFR

A

7700-emergency, 7500 hijack, 7600 radio failure, and 1200-VFR flight

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52
Q

What is clearance delivery?

A

Clearance delivery is the position in the ATC control tower which reads the IFR clearance to the pilots when requested to do so.

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53
Q

What is the function of ground control?

A

Ground control is a position in the ATC tower which controls and separates all aircraft which are taxiing around an airport.

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54
Q

What is primary and secondary radar?

A

ATC controllers use both primary and secondary radar to identify aircraft. The primary radar paints an aircraft blimp on a controller’s radar scope. The secondary radar actually interrogates an aircraft’s transponder, and shows the aircraft as an Alpha-numeric data block on the controller’s radar screen

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55
Q

What are the two types of NOTAMs?

A

D- Distant: items relating to safety, closed runways, ILS out of service, VOR out of service, etc.
FDC- Flight Data Center: Changes to publications, approach plates, charts, etc

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56
Q

What are a TFR?

A

A TFR (Temporary Flight Restrictions) is an Area of special security interest. A “Superbowl” will usually create a TFR. Washington DC and Cap David a regular TFR’s, and are noted as such on VFR charts. You would check NOTAMs for an TFR.

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57
Q

If DFW airport would temporary close down several runways, what type of NOTAM would be issued?

A

This would be issued in a NOTAM D

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58
Q

What is ATCSCC?

A

Air Traffic Control Systems Command Center located in Hendon, VA is the primary coordination point for all air traffic issues.

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59
Q

Who issues ground stops?

A

ATC

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60
Q

What color are Precision Approach runway edge lights?

A

All White, until the last 2000 feet remaining, the amber (yellow).

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61
Q

What does S.F.L. stand for and what are they?

A

S.F.L. stands for Sequenced Flashing Lights (sometimes called Rabbit Lights) and they are part of the approach light system.

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62
Q

What does R.C.L.S. stand for and what are they?

A

R.C.L.S. stands for Runway Centerline Light System. They are centerline lights that are all white until the last 3000 feet or remaining runway. Then they are 2000 feet alternating red/white, and the last 1000 feet of remaining runway the lights are all red.

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63
Q

What does T.D.Z.L. stand for and what are they?

A

T.D.Z.L. stands for Touchdown Zone Lights. They are very bright rows of lights that are recessed in the runway in the touchdown zone (first 3000 feet of the approach end of the runway)

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64
Q

What does R.E.I.L. stand for and what are they?

A

R.E.I.L. stands for Runway Edge Identifier Lights. They are two flashing strobe lights, one located on each side of the runway threshold at the approach end of the runway.

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65
Q

What color are taxiway light?

A

Blue

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66
Q

How are runways numbered?

A

Runways are numbered as they relate to magnetic North. Examples, 35C- 350 heading.

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67
Q

What are V.A.S.I. lights?

A

V.A.S.I. stands for Visual Approach Slope Indicator lights. They are used by pilots flying a visual approach to determine whether or not the aircraft is on the glideslope.

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68
Q

What color are airport rotating beacons?

A

Civil airport = green/white

military = green/white/white(dual flash of white)

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69
Q

What color are runway threshold lights?

A

Green

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70
Q

What does P.C.L. stand for?

A

Pilot Controlled Lighting

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71
Q

What does ARFF stand for?

A

Airport Rescue and Fire Fighting

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72
Q

What does the lightning Bolt represent on an approach plate?

A

Final approach fix (FAF) for a precision approach and the glideslope intercept point.

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73
Q

What does the X (Maltese Cross) represent on an approach plate?

A

The final approach fix (FAF) for a non precision approach.

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74
Q

How are the approach categories (A,B,C,D, and E) determined?

A

They are determined by an aircraft’s approach speed.

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75
Q

What category is the B737?

A

Approach category C

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76
Q

What approach category is the B737 on a circling approach?

A

Approach category D

77
Q

Where is the T.C.H. (Threshold Crossing Height) located on an approach plate?

A

In the profile view below the degrees of glideslope.

78
Q

What are the four components of an ILS approach?

A

Glideslope: vertical guidance
Localizer: Course Guidance, left or right of centerline
Approach Lights: gives pilot visual cues
Marker beacons: Range information

79
Q

How do pilots execute a missed approach?

A

By following the missed approach instructions on the approach plate.

80
Q

Are obstacles on the approach plate referred to in AGL or MSL?

A

MSL Mean Seal Level

81
Q

What type of approach uses an MDA (Minimum Descent Altitude)?

A

Any non-precision uses a MDA

82
Q

On an ILS approach, if the glideslope is lost, what kind of approach is available?

A

A localizer approach (non precision)

83
Q

Name the three ILS categories:

A 
DH        RVR
Cat 1       200ft       2400ft 
Cat 2 R   150ft        1400ft (cat restrictions)
Cat 2      100ft        1200ft
Cat 3A       0ft          700ft
Cat 3B       0ft           150ft  
Cat 3C       0ft              0ft *
(*not authorized in US)
84
Q

What requirements must be met by a pilot in order to remove Category II restrictions?

A

When a pilot make 3 Category II approaches to a 150- foot decision height within the previous 6 months the restriction is removed.

85
Q

What special requirements must be met in order to fly a category II or category III approach?

A

The aircraft must be specially equipped for ILS category II/III landings, the aircrew must be specially trained for ILS category II/III landings, and the airport must be equipped for ILS Category II/III landings.

86
Q

On the lower right hand corner of an approach plate, there are some numbers- knots/minutes/seconds. What is it there for?

A

It is used for non-precision approach only, an it is used to determine the time from the FAF (Final Approach Fix) to the MAP (Missed Approach Point).

87
Q

What does a black triangle with the letter “A” inside represent on an approach plate?

A

Non-standard alternate minimums apply for that airport.

88
Q

What are standard alternate weather minimums?

A

600-2 for precision approach

800-2 for non-precision approach

89
Q

What does an upside down triangle with the letter “T” inside represent on an approach plate?

A

Non-standard takeoff minimums apply to that airport

90
Q

What are standard takeoff visibility minimums?

A

In a 2-engine jet, 1 statue mile of visibility
In a 3-engine jet, 1/2 statue mile visibility.
The standard climb rate requirements is 200 feet per nautical mile traveled.

91
Q

If an approach plate says “Radar required” what does that mean?

A

It means that in order to fly this approach, ATC’s radar must be working. It has absolutely nothing to do with weather radar.

92
Q

If a pilot is flying a non- precision approach, will there be a decision height (DH) or a minimum descent altitude (MDA)?

A

MDA. Only a precision approach uses a DH.

93
Q

What type of approach uses a HAA (height above airport) instead of HAT (Height Above Touchdown)?

A

A circling approach uses HAA.

94
Q

If an airport is below landing minimums , when a flight is coming in to land, what options are available to pilots?

A

Hold as long as possible until actual visibility comes up to published minimums, or divert to the alternate to refuel.

95
Q

If an airport is reporting a ceiling below landing minimums but the visibility above landing minimums, can the pilot fly the approach and try to land?

A

An airline flight can try to fly the approach as long as the visibility is reported above minimums. It cannot land unless both the visibility and the ceiling is above the landing minimums as described in the approach plates.

96
Q

Can you dispatch a flight if the destination report is reporting and/or forecasting weather below published landing minimums.

A

No

97
Q

What are the standard minimums for listing an Airport as an Alternate?

A

800-2 non precision

600-2 precision

98
Q

What is the differences between 600-2 and 800-2?

A

600-2 all precision approaches and 800-2 for all non-precision approaches.

99
Q

Where are the jet routes found?

A

FL180-FL450 (High IFR Chart)

100
Q

What does the MOCA stand for and what is it?

A

MOCA stands for Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude. It guarantees obstacle clearance (2000 feet in mountainous terrain and 1000 feet non-mountainous terrain) along the segment.

101
Q

What does the MEA stand for and what is it?

A

MEA stands for Minimum Enroute Altitude. It guarantees obstacle clearance by giving you MOCA and also guarantees NAVAID reception along the segment between two VORS.

102
Q

What does MAA stand for and what is it?

A

MAA stands for Maximum Authorized Altitude. It prevents a flight from picking up two ground based navigation facilities (Class I) with the same identical frequency.

103
Q

Can the 737-800 fly above the MAA?

A

Yes. RNAV makes this possible.

104
Q

If a pilot wants to fly off a published jet route, what is the maximum allowable distance between two VORTACs?

A

260nm

105
Q

What information does a VORTAC give a pilot?

A

Course azimuth (location of the aircraft with regard to the VORTAC) and DME (distance from the VORTAC).

106
Q

What is the limitation of a VOR or VORTAC?

A

It is limited to line of sight.

107
Q

What are the service volume ranges for a VOR, DME, or TACAN?

A

T- Terminal 25nm
L- Low Altitude 40nm
H- High Altitude 130nm

108
Q

What type of navigational equipment is required for oceanic travel?

A

INS (Inertial Navigation System) or GPS (Global Positioning System)

109
Q

What does INS stand for an what is it?

A

INS stands for Inertial Navigation System. It is an aircraft based, self-contained navigation system which uses gyroscopes and accelerometers. Once it is programmed by the pilots, the INS system knows exactly where it is on the planet. It gives the pilot their exact position in terms of longitude and latitude.

110
Q

What does GPS stand for and what is it?

A

GPS stands for Global positioning System. It is a system developed by the U.S. military that consists of 24 satellites in geosynchronous orbit around the earth. It gives the pilot their exact position in terms on long/lat, ground speed, and altitude. GPS is the newest navigation system and it is revolutionizing the airline industry.

111
Q

What does LORAN stand for an what is it?

A

LORAN stands for Long Range Navigation. It is an older system that was originally developed and used by ships at sea. It is a low-frequency system consisting of ground based transmitter stations. Aircraft with LORAN receivers can triangulate their exact position in terms on Long/Lat.

112
Q

What are NAT tracks?

A

North Atlantic Tracks- Over the North Atlantic there are no permanent published jet routes. Twice per day ATC builds new track across the North Atlantic. They do this in order to take advantage of the prevailing jet stream wind. ATC publishes the routes, and then sends them to every airline dispatch office and airport operations office. Flight dispatchers plan their European flights using NAT tracks.

113
Q

How many magnetic radials does a VOR emit?

A

360

114
Q

What does DME stand for and what is it?

A

DME stands for Distance Measuring equipment. It tells the pilot how far away they are from a VOR.

115
Q

What does TACAN stand for and what is it?

A

TACAN stands for Tactical Air Navigation. It is a military version of a VOR that uses UHF frequencies.

116
Q

Where can F.A.A. preferred routes be found?

A

In the Airport Facility Directory (AFD)

117
Q

How often do approach plates, IFR charts, and other publications come out?

A

Every 56 days (8 weeks)

118
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

VOR stands for Very High Frequency Omni directional Range

119
Q

What does NDB stand for and what is it?

A

NDB stands for Non-Directional Beacon. They are older medium to low frequency NAVAIDS. Since they can be medium or low frequency, they are unreliable in or near thunderstorms.

120
Q

What does FMS stand for and what is it ?

A

FMS stand for Flight Management System.
It is a computerized system that provides the pilot with:
navigation, performance information and weight and balance.

121
Q

What do INS and IRU stand for and what is it?

A

Inertial Navigation system and Inertial Reference Unit are self-contained navigation systems that provide the airplane with attitude and navigational information. The IRU provides the airplane with pitch, roll and heading information, and the INS combine the component of an IRU with an internal navigational computer.

122
Q

Relationship between EFIS, FMS and RNAV

A

EFIS displays the information (the monitors), FMS is the brain (the computer) and the RNAV goes out to the NAVAIDs instruments in the airplane and gets the position and navigational information and provides it to the FMS.

123
Q

What is RVSM?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum is a reduction in the vertical separation for aircraft flying between FL290 and FL410. RVSM allows for 1000 feet of vertical separation with special equipment installed on the aircraft. This equipment is as follows: 2 independent altitude measurement systems, one altitude holding system (autopilot),one altitude alerting system, and one transponder with altitude reporting (mode C).

124
Q

What is Class I and Class II navigation?

A

Class I navigation that relies on ground based navigational aids (VORs, VORTACs, NDBs). Class II navigation is any navigation that uses an internal or satellite based navigational aids (GPS,WAAS,INS,IRU)

125
Q

Who can declare an emergency?

A

The pilot in command, the flight dispatcher, and air traffic controller.

126
Q

What is the visibility required in order for take off?

A

For 2 engine jet -1 statue mile

for 3 engine jet 1/2 statue mile

127
Q

When must a takeoff alternate be planned and listed on the Dispatch Flight Release?

A

Whenever the actual visibility at the departure airport is below the landing minimums (found on the approach plate) for the departure airport

128
Q

If a takeoff alternate is needed, what does FAR 121 say about the requirement for it?

hint: 2 engine requirement, 3 or more engine requirement and standard alternate weather mins

A

If taking off in a 2-engine jet, the takeoff alternate must be within 1 hour in still air with one engine inoperative. If taking off in a 3 or more engine jet, the takeoff alternate must be within 2 hours in still air with one engine inoperative. Standard alternate weather minimums are 600-2 for precision approach and 8-2 for non-precision approach.

129
Q

If a flight departs, loses an engine, and then cannot return to the departure airport because the weather has gone below minimums, then proceeds to its takeoff alternate, what weather minimums apply at the takeoff alternate?

A

Approach plate minimums. (Remember once you proceed to an alternate, it is no longer your alternate, it is now your destination, so approach plate minimums apply.

130
Q

When is a destination alternate required?

Hint: 1,2,3 rule

A

The 1,2,3 rule. If weather forecasted at the destination is, from one hour before to one hour after the estimated time of arrival (ETA), forecast to be less than 2000 foot ceiling, and/or less than 3 statue miles of visibility, an alternate is required.

131
Q

Is there a limit to how far away a destination alternate can be or how many alternates you can have?

A

no, there is no limit. The only limit is having enough fuel to get to it (them).

132
Q

If a flight is over it destination and diverts to its destination alternate, what weather minimums apply?

A

Approach plate minimums. (It is no longer an alternate, it is now the destination.)

133
Q

A flight is planned in a smaller (or older, 2 engine jet) from KORD-KSFO. As a result, the flight will cross the Rocky Mountains. What must be considered before this flight can be dispatched?

A

The possibility of needing a drift-down alternate needs to be considered. It is dependent on the route of flight, and the weight of the aircraft at takeoff. If a flight is not heavy and loses an engine over the mountains, it will easily be able to maintain altitude and clear them (by 2000 feet). However if it is heavy at takeoff, when it loses one of it two engines, it will not be able to clear the mountains. In the case of the latter, a drift down alternate must be planned, or in some cases (if a flight is crossing multiple mountain ranges.

134
Q

What is operational control?

A

Operation Control is the legal authority to initiate, conduct, and terminate a flight.

135
Q

Who has operational control?

A

The certificate holder (airline)

136
Q

What does the certificate holder do with it?

A

They delegate it to the pilot in command and the flight dispatcher who share joint responsibility for a flight.

137
Q

How many hours of cockpit familiarization time per year must a flight dispatcher have?

A

5 hours per year

138
Q

Name all of the items found on a Dispatch Flight Release

A

Type of operation (IFR or VFR)
Aircraft tail number
Flight number
Airport (Departure, Takeoff alternate, intermediate, destination, destination alternate)
Minimum fuel supply
Weather briefing packets must be attached
signature of pilot in command and flight diapatcher

139
Q

What is domestic fuel supply?

A

Enough fuel to fly from the destination airport to the destination, then to the most distant alternate, and then 45 minutes of reserve fuel.

140
Q

What does FAR 121 say about communications?

A

It states that the pilot in command and the flight dispatcher must be able to contact each other at all times, regardless of where in the world a flight may be.

141
Q

Who do United States airlines use to comply with the above regulations? What about most of Europe and North Africa?

A

SFO ARINC in the US and Stockholm Radio for EU.

142
Q

What What does NTSB Part 830 deal with?

A

Accidents, incidents, and injures.

143
Q

Give an example of an injury

A

Broken arm or leg, torn tendon

144
Q

The pilot in command and the flight dispatcher are jointly responsible for what?

A

Safety of flight, pre-flight planning, delay and dispatch release

145
Q

What does FAR Part 121 say about the flight dispatcher being familiar with weather?

A

It states that the flight dispatcher must be thoroughly familiar with weather that exists and forecast weather conditions at airports along the route of flight, prior to dispatching any flight.

146
Q

Any airline authority to operate a particular aircraft, fly between two cities, fly ILS Category II approaches can all be found in what?

A

An airline’s operations specification

147
Q

What does FAR Part 121 say about landing limitations?

A

When planning a flight, the aircraft must be able to stop within 60% of the available runway (under dry conditions) at the destination. If the runway is Wet, the aircraft must be able to stop within 115% of the dry runway requirement. For an alternate airport, the aircraft must be able stop within 75% of the available runway (Wet or Dry).

148
Q

Define a domestic air carrier and give an example

A

A domestic air carrier is an airline that operates aircraft that have more than 30 seats, or a payload capacity of more than 7,500 lbs on a scheduled basis inside the 48 contiguous United States.

149
Q

Define a flag air carrier and give an example

A

A flag air carrier is an airline which operates aircraft that have more than 30 seats, or a payload capacity of more than 7,500 lbs, on a scheduled basis, to international destinations as well as domestic ones.

150
Q

If a flight pushes back from the gate, then returns with a problem, does the dispatcher have to re-release the flight?

A

not typically, since the flight did not leave the ground.

151
Q

A flight takes off from KMIA, then air-interrupts (Returns) back to the KMIA. Does the dispatcher have to re-dispatch/re-release the flight?

A

Yes, because the airplane landed at an airport not listed as its destination in the original dispatch release.

152
Q

A flight is planned from KMIA-KDFW-KLAX. The flight has been planned with an intermediate stop. The flight departs KMIA and lands successfully in KDFW. What is the maximum time that the flight can remain on the ground at KDFW (the intermediate airport) before it must be re-dispatched /re-released?

A

1 hour for a domestic carrier, 6 hours for a flag carrier

153
Q

What is a high minimums captain?

A

A pilot in command who has less than 100 hours in the aircraft type they are flying. They must add 100 feet to a published decision height or minimum descent altitude and add 1/2 statue mile (2400 RVR) to the required visibility.

154
Q

What are the landing minimums for a H.M.C at an Alternate destination?

A

In not event may the landing be less than 300 and 1SM

155
Q

If an approach plate gave landing minimums of 300/1 for a particular runway and the weather was reported 250/ 1 1/2 could the pilot shoot the approach?

A

Yes, because visibility is controlling. If the visibility exists at an airport the plane may line up for its FAF. If the visibility is not there then plane may not line up. This rule has nothing to do about landing the plane, but deals with allowing the aircraft to attempt an approach.

156
Q

What are the general characteristics of an approaching cold front?

A

Fast moving, thunderstorms, tornados, turbulence, low-level wind shear, gusty surface winds, wind shift, temperature drop, fast improvement, and in the winter time ice pellets, snow and en-route clear icing conditions.

157
Q

What are the general characteristics of an approaching warm front?

A

Slow moving, low ceilings, poor visibility, stratus clouds, smooth air, fog, rain, drizzle, slow improvement, and in the winter time, freezing rain sleet, ice pellets and rime icing.

158
Q

What is a TROF?

A

A TROF is an elongated area of low pressure (generally poor weather).

159
Q

What does ISA stand for?

A

ISA stands for International Standard Atmosphere. It is 15c at sea level, with a 2 degree drop in temperature per 1000 feet of altitude.

160
Q

What does RVR stand for and what is it?

A

RVR stands for Runway Visual Range. Devices called transmissometers on the runway measure the actual visibility in terms of feet. They are pointed at each other, and they measure the amount of light that one displays to the other

161
Q

What is an Isobar?

A

An isobar is a line of equal pressure on a weather chart

162
Q

What is an Isotach?

A

An isotach is a line of equal wind speed on a weather chart.

163
Q

What is an isotherm?

A

An Isotherm is a line of equal temperature on a weather chart.

164
Q

If isobars are closely spaced together (tight pressure gradient) on a Surface Analysis chart, what kind of conditions can be expected at the surface?

A

Gusty surface winds

165
Q

What is the primary cause of weather on Earth?

A

Heat from the Sun

166
Q

What is the Coriolis effect?

A

A deflection force resulting from the Earth’s rotation; it acts to the right of the wind in the Northern hemisphere and to the left of the Southern hemisphere.

167
Q

Explain how the air turns in both High and Low pressure system.

A

High = Clockwise

Low - Counter clockwise

168
Q

In which part of the atmosphere does the majority of the weather on Earth occur?

A

In the Troposphere

169
Q

What happens at the troposphere and above?

A

There is little or no change in the temperature with altitude.

170
Q

Why is the Earth’s atmosphere thicker at the equator than at its poles?

A

This is due to the amount of solar radiation received from the sun. The equator receives more sunlight than the poles, so it heats up more, expands, while the poles do not.

171
Q

What is the jet stream?

A

A continuous stream of winds with a speed of 50 knots or greater.

172
Q

Where is the jet stream found?

A

Gaps in the Tropopause

173
Q

What is a front?

A

The boundary between two different air masses

174
Q

Define the terms trough and ridge

A

A Trough is an elongated area of low pressure, while a Ridge is an elongated area of high pressure.

175
Q

What can a pilot expect when flying through a front in the Northern Hemisphere?

A

In the Northern Hemisphere, there will be a decrease in air pressure and a wind shift from the west.

176
Q

Define the terms “stationary” and occluded fronts.

A

A Stationary front is a font with little or no movement, while an Occluded front is when cold air overtakes warm air and forces the warm air between the two aloft.

177
Q

Define the term Dryline.

A

A dryline is when air masses of virtually the same temperature but with different moisture contents form a front.

178
Q

Define the terms “cold front” and “warm front”.

A

A cold front is when colder air replaces warmer air and a warm front is a when warmer air replaces colder air.

179
Q

Explain air stability

A

Stability is a state in the atmosphere in which the vertical distribution of temperature is such that a parcel of air will resist displacement from its initial level.

180
Q

What happens when air rises?

A

It expands due to the decrease in air pressure

181
Q

When can clouds be expected to form?

A

When moist air is forced upwards and it reaches an altitude where the dew point lapse rate and dry adiabatic rate meet, cloud bases will form

182
Q

What is a temperature inversion?

A

An increase in temperature with height instead of a decrease.

183
Q

What are the three types of fog and what are their general characteristics?

A

Radiation is fog that occurs when there is a surface based temperature inversion. Advection fog forms when warm, moist air flows over a colder surface (like water). Upslope fog forms when moist, stable air is gradually moved over higher ground by the wind.

184
Q

Generally, how thick must a cloud be in order to produce precipitation?

A

At least 4000 feet thick (Rule of Thumb)

185
Q

What are the three stages of a thunderstorm and what are the characteristics of each stage?

A

Cumulus, characterized predominantly by updrafts. Mature, characterized by both updrafts and downdrafts. Dissipating, characterized predominantly by downdrafts.

186
Q

What are the two types of thunderstorms and what are the characteristics for each?

A

An air mass thunderstorms is associated with local surface heating. A steady state thunderstorm are associated with weather systems.

187
Q

Define the term Squall line

A

A non-frontal instability line that often forms ahead of a fast-moving cold front.

188
Q

What kind of clouds characterizes a thunderstorm?

A

Cumulus clouds

189
Q

Define the term “embedded thunderstorms”

A

A thunderstorm that has penetrated overlying bands of stratiform clouds and is obscured by them.

boeing 737-800 (2 decks)

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