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IDR Flashcards

1
Q

small, nonenveloped DNA virus that infects the stratum basale of the epithelium, replicating in keratinocytes

A

human papilloma virus

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2
Q

what 3 bacteria produce IgA protease

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria species

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3
Q

M protein is associated with molecular mimicry. It is produced by __

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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4
Q

petechiae, purpura, and intractable epistaxis alongside prolonged international normalized ratio (INR) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and thrombocytopenia are evident of ______

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

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5
Q

Migratory polyarthritis and elevated C-reactive protein level describe _____

A

rheumatic fever

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6
Q

Migratory polyarthritis and elevated C-reactive protein level describe rheumatic fever. It may follow ___ infection

A

strep. pyrogenes

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7
Q

Petechial rash and bilateral hemorrhage into the adrenal gland are consistent with a diagnosis of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome caused by ___

A

neisseria meningiditis

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8
Q

CSF with linear, positive sense, single-stranded RNA virus that causes seizures
Mississippi River Valley region

A

western equine encephalitis

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9
Q

β-hemolytic, gram-positive coccus, bacitracin resistant

A

strep. agalactiae

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10
Q

what is the agar used for B. pertussis, the bacterial infection that leads to whooping cough

A

Bordet-Gengou or Reagan Lowe

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11
Q

Thayer Martin agar is used for what bacteria

A

Neisseria

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12
Q

MacConkey agar is a bile salt-containing agar that is optimized to grow members of what bacteria

A

Enterobacteriaceae

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13
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a progressive form of brain inflammation caused by what virus

A

measles

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14
Q

what is an example of complementation

A

HepB providing the envelope protein for HepD

(When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in a nonfunctional protein, the nonmutated virus “complements” the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses)

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15
Q

woman presents with pain, swelling, and morning stiffness in her hands with a positive test for cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody, all typical of ___

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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16
Q

HLA-A3 is associated with _____

A

hemochromatosis

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17
Q

HLA-B8 is associated with __, __, and __

A

Addison disease
myasthenia gravis
Graves disease

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18
Q

HLD-DR5 is associated with __ and __

A

pernicious anemia
Hashimoto thyroiditis.

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19
Q

HLA-DR4 is associated with _____

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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20
Q

Thin, white, vaginal discharge with fishy odor

A

bacterial vaginosis

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21
Q

Frothy, yellow-green, foul-smelling discharge

A

Trichomonas vaginitis

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22
Q

Thick, white, “cottage-cheese” discharge

A

Candida vulvovaginitis

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23
Q

water diarrhea in kids is most likely caused by __
water diarrhea outbreak in confided areas is most likely caused by __

A

daycare/kids= rotavirus
confided= norovirus

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24
Q

Herpesvirus linear or circular DNA

A

linear

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25
Q

monoarticular arthritis (1 joint involvement) is most likely caused by ___
oligoarticular arthritis (>1 joint involvement) is most likely caused by __

A

1 joint= gonorrhea
>1 joint= chlamydia

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26
Q

chest pain that improves on leaning forward and worsens with inspiration, recent viral upper respiratory tract infection

A

coxsackie B (devils grip)

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27
Q

In bacterial causes of meningitis, CSF analysis shows an ___ (high or low) opening pressure, __ (high or low) protein, ___ (increased of decreased) glucose concentration, and a significant ___ (increase or decrease) in WBC count (pleocytosis) in the CSF with a predominance of neutrophils.

A

high
high
decreased
increase

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28
Q

bacterial meningitis CSF lab values
__ opening pressure
__ WBC count
__ protein
__ glucose

A

high opening pressure
high WBC count
high protein
low glucose

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29
Q

what are the 3 causes of meningitis in babies

A

strep agalactiae
E. coli
listeria monocytogenes

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30
Q

cookout
intestinal issues–>muscle involvement
periorbital edema+chemosis (eye irritation)
high eosinophils
high liver enzymes

A

trichinella spiralis

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31
Q

how can you differentiate chlamydia vs gonorrhea infection in neonates

A

gonorrhea infection usually appears 2-5 days after birth
chlamydia can take up to 2 weeks

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32
Q

in neonates, chlamydia infection can lead to __

A

pneumonia

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33
Q

gram + cocci in clusters

A

staph aureus

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34
Q

which bacteria has protein A which binds to the Fc portion of an antibody, blocking opsonization

A

staph aureus

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35
Q

what bacteria can cause both a UTI and endocarditis

A

enterococci

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36
Q

catheter
costovertebral angle tenderness
negative nitrates
bacteria in urine

what bacteria is this?

A

enterococcus

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37
Q

nitrate += gram __

A

negative

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38
Q

haemophilus influenzae vaccine (HiB) is against __

A

anti-capsular protein conjugated against polyribosylribitol phosphate capsule

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39
Q

mumps will cause an increase in what enzyme, why

A

amylase due to salivary gland involvement

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40
Q

Plasmodium ____ causes a 24-hour cyclic fever
Plasmodium ____ causes a 72-hour cyclic fever.
Plasmodium ____ infection causes a 48-hour cyclic fever.

A

falciparum
malariae
ovale/vivax

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41
Q

___ is consistent with a patient’s eosinophilia, constitutional symptoms, worsening abdominal pain, mild fever, and dry cough. The imaging findings of lesions, involving the liver and lung, support this diagnosis

A

Visceral larva migrans

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42
Q

lytic bone lesions
“flower cells/hypersegmented nuclei”
mainly in Carribean and S. Japan

A

human T cell leukemia virus (HTLV-1)

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43
Q

Gomori methenamine silver stain can be used to stain sputum for _____

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

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44
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for ____

A

Mycobacteria

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45
Q

India ink is used to negatively stain ___

A

Cryptococcus

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46
Q

Giemsa stain is used to visualize ___

A

Chlamydia

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47
Q

Leigonella pneumophila are rod-shaped bacteria that Gram stain poorly, ___ stain is used

A

silver

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48
Q

sickle cell with osteomyelitis

A

staph aureus

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49
Q

with an eosinophil response to worms/parasites, what is the main defensive mechanism

A

release of major basic proteins

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50
Q

cavitary lung mass and her history of tuberculosis
acute angle branching

A

aspergillus

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51
Q

Great Lakes
bone lesions

A

blastomyces

52
Q

Li-Fraumeni syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by the early onset of __, __, __, and __

A

sarcomas
leukemias
cancers of breast
cancers of adrenal glands

53
Q

Li-Fraumeni syndrome is caused by loss-of-function mutations of the ___ tumor suppressor gene, which results in uncontrolled cell division that eventually leads to malignancy at a younger age

54
Q

no thymus
no B or T cells
recurrent opportunistic infections

A

SCIDs due to deficiency in adenosine deaminase

55
Q

what are the 4 NADH oxidase genes

A

gp91(phox)
p22(phox)
p47(phox)
p67 (phox)

56
Q

___ syndrome presents with retained primary teeth, scoliosis, recurrent skin infections, and eczema.

57
Q

Hyper IgE syndrome is caused by a mutation in the __ or __ gene that leads to dysregulation of the Th17 cells that eliminate extracellular bacterial and fungal pathogens

A

STAT3
DOCK8

58
Q

Infection-related ___ can present with proteinuria, hematuria, and hypertension 1 to 3 weeks after streptococcal pharyngitis

A

glomerulonephritis

59
Q

Histologically, infection-related glomerulonephritis is characterized by enlarged hypercellular glomeruli, with __________

A

dense subepithelial humps on the basement membrane

60
Q

what is the triad of symptoms for ataxia telangiectasia

A

low IgA
telangiectasia (spider veins)
cerebral defects (ataxia)

61
Q

hypercalcemia
lytic bone lesions and pain
increased risk of infection

A

multiple myeloma

62
Q

what accounts for increase in protein level as seen with multiple myeloma

A

increased IgG

63
Q

Job syndrome (hyper IgE) present with __, __, and __

A

history of recurrent staphylococcal abscesses
retained primary teeth
hypereosinophilia

64
Q

pale irises
cellulitis
photophobia
bruising

A

Chediak Higashi syndrome

PLAIN:
Progressive neurodegeneration
Lymphohistiocytosis
Albinism(partial)
Recurrent pyogenic Infections
Peripheral Neuropathy

65
Q

The alpha toxin produced by Clostridium perfringens is a lecithinase that ____

A

degrades cell membrane phospholipids

66
Q
A

Recombination is the exchange of genetic material between two chromosomes of similar or related viral strains that have coinfected a host cell. The exchange occurs through crossing over of genes between two regions of homologous base sequences, which results in progeny with genetic material from two parental viral strains. This process increases genetic diversity in viral progeny

67
Q
A

Complementation occurs when two viruses coinfect a host cell. One virus (virion A) produces a functional protein while the other (virion B) has a mutation in its genome that results in the production of a nonfunctional protein. Through complementation, the functional protein produced by virus A is used in both progeny A and B viruses. No genetic information is exchanged

Ex: HepB and HepD

68
Q
A

Phenotypic mixing occurs with coinfection of a cell with two related viruses (virus A and virus B). The genome of virus A is partially or completely coated by the surface proteins of virus B, resulting in the formation of a pseudovirion (viral hybrid), comprising the genome of virus B and the surface proteins of virus A. The new protein coat determines the infectivity of the hybrid virus. Because no genetic information is exchanged, future generations lose their infectivity and return to their previous state (future virions will have the coat from virus B)

69
Q
A

Viral reassortment is the exchange of genetic material between segments of two (or more) viruses of the same strain that have coinfected the same cell. Progeny has the new assortment of genetic material. This process only occurs in viruses with segmented genomes (e.g., influenza virus, rotavirus) and can cause antigenic shift, which significantly increases the pandemic potential of a virus

70
Q

rash associated with herpes simplex infections and with characteristic of target lesions (macules with a dusky center surrounded by a lighter ring)

A

erythema multiforme

71
Q

mucicarmine and india ink are used to stain what organism

A

cryptococcus yeast

72
Q

intracellular gram-negative diplococci

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

73
Q

What drug is used to treat N. gonorrhea

A

ceftriaxone

74
Q

immunosuppressed
ground-glass opacities on chest CT scan
nonproductive cough, dyspnea on exertion, fever

A

pneumocystis jirovecii

76
Q

ground-glass opacities
large cells with intranuclear inclusions with clear halos

77
Q

pertussis toxin of B. pertussis has what effect

A

impairs inhibition of adenylate cyclase activity. The resultant accumulation of cAMP

78
Q

what agar do you use to culture legionella

A

charcoal yeast extract

79
Q

genital area itching
sexually active
pubic hair

A

phthirus pubis

80
Q

white lesions on palate and tongue that can be easily scrapped off

A

oral thrush= c. albicans

81
Q

main drug to use for CMV retinitis

A

valgancyclovir

82
Q

cystine-tellurite agar or Löffler medium are used to culture what bacteria

A

corynebacterium diptheriae

83
Q

how do -navir drugs act

A

protease inhibitor

84
Q

painful, multiple, small, grouped vesicles on an erythematous base on the shaft of the penis

85
Q

Chlamydophila psittaci is the organism that causes psittacosis, a rare zoonotic disease that causes atypical pneumonia and is transmitted via feces and dander of infected

86
Q

fever and malasie weeks after a sore throat

A

rheumatic fever- s. pyrogenes
M protein- inhibits opsonization and C3 activation

87
Q

esophagus involvement
S3 plexus

A

T. cruzi
destruction of myenteric plexus

88
Q

young
pressure creates a blister
no oral abnormalities

A

s. aureus scalded skin syndrome
exotoxin-desmoglein-1

89
Q

2 main adverse effects of valgncyclovir

A

pancytopenia
myelosuppression

90
Q

what is the main virulence factor of neisseria gonorrhea that allows for reinfection

A

variation in pili protein

91
Q

traveler’s diarrhea is caused by __

92
Q

the virulence factors of ETEC, the cause of traveler’s diarrhea are __ which increases __ and ___ which increases ___

A

increases cGMP
increases cAMP

93
Q

Kaposi sarcoma is also known as __

94
Q

what is seen histologically in someone with HHV8 (kaposi sarcoma)

A

spindle shaped cells with lymphocytic infiltration

95
Q

gram positive rod with narrow zone of beta hemolysis

96
Q

what bacteria has a poly-glutamate capsule

A

B. anthracis

97
Q

how are flaviviruses transmitted

A

direct body secretions

ebola and marburg are filoviruses

98
Q

rash starts on wrists and ankles then spreads to trunk
outdoors

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
dermacantor
rickettsia rickettsii

99
Q

isoniazid inhibits what

A

mycolic acid synthesis

100
Q

isoniazid has what adverse affect

A

liver damage

101
Q

croup is caused by narrowing of what part of the airway

A

subglottic larynx

102
Q

schistocytes are seen on peripheral blood smear with what infection

A

E. coli (hemolytic uremic syndrome)

103
Q

gp120 of HIV is used for ___

A

attachment of HIV to host CD4+

104
Q

what is the most common cause of septic arthritis in sexually active young adults

A

n. gonorrhea

105
Q

K1 capsule is a virulence factor of what bacteria

106
Q

e. coli use what virulence factor to cause UTI

A

P fimbriae

107
Q

budding yeast cells with pseudohyphae at 20–25°C

A

C.albicans

108
Q

liver transplant= risk for __
lung transplant= risk for __

A

liver= candida
lung= aspergillus

109
Q

retinal hemorrhage
heart issue

A

strep sanguinis

110
Q

2 main virulence factors of B. anthracis

A

edema factor–>increases cAMP
lethal factor–>inactivates MAPK

111
Q

osteomyelitis in someone with sickle cell most likely has what bacterial infection

112
Q

Acute bacterial prostatitis presents with dysuria, urgency, frequency

113
Q

Vulvovaginal candidiasis is generally associated with what pH range

A

a normal vaginal pH range (3.8 to 4.5)

114
Q

neonate with bacterial meningitis. what can you test to differentiate the cause

A

lactose fermentation

115
Q

painful, perianal lesions

116
Q

what is the main virulence factor of p. aeruginosa

A

exotoxin A ribosylates ADP and inhibits EF2

117
Q

what media is used for legionella

A

buffered charcoal yeast extract

118
Q

HSV can cause hepes labalis or __

A

keratinoconjunctivitis

119
Q

does viral or bacterial meningitis show normal glucose levels

120
Q

gardinella vaginalis presents with

A

grey/white vaginal discharge
fishy odor

121
Q

what is the morphologic characteristic of gardinella vaginalis

A

gram variable pleomorphic rod

122
Q

___ is a parasitic infection that presents with chronic rash, cough, and eosinophilia

A

Strongyloidiasis

123
Q

Councilman bodies are found in liver biopsy of someone infected with ___

A

yellow fever

124
Q

RUQ pain
liver mass
eosinophilia

A

echinococcus granulosus

125
Q

flaviviruses use __ dependent __ polymerase

126
Q

africa
skin discoloration

A

sand fly- Leishmania

127
Q

RSV main virulence mechanism

A

Fusion protein

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