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idk Flashcards

1
Q

which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable

A

VS

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2
Q

14 CFR part 1 defines VF as

A

design flap speed

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3
Q

14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as

A

maximum landing gear extended speed

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4
Q

14 CFR part 1 defines Vy as

A

speed for best rate of climb

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5
Q

if an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers

A

limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved)

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6
Q

what is true with respect to operating limitations of a restricted category airplane

A

No person may operate a restricted category airplane carrying pax or property for compensation or hire

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7
Q

What is true with respect to operating limitations of a primary category airplane

A

No person may operate a primary category airplane carrying pax or property for compensation or hire

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8
Q

The carriage of pax for hire by commercial pilot is

A

not authorized in a limited category aircraft

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9
Q

no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate

A

when carrying persons or property for hire

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10
Q

pitch setting means

A

the propeller blade setting as determined by the blade angle measured as specified by the propeller instruction manual

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11
Q

if an aircraft’s static load is 3,000 lbs what is its dynamic load in a level 60 degree angle of bank turn

A

6,000 lbs

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12
Q

Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage

A

which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics

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13
Q

NTSB part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of which incident?

A

any required flight crew member being unable to perform flight duties because of illness

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14
Q

immediate notification of the NTSB is required following

A

an in flight fire

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15
Q

which airborne incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately

A

flight control system malfunction or failure

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16
Q

you are taxiing your aircraft to the hanger and experience a small electrical fire. Do you need to contact the NTSB

A

no, no report is required

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17
Q

while taxiing on the parking ramp, the landing gear, one wheel, and two tires are damaged by striking ground equipment. What action would be required to comply with NTSB part 830

A

no notification or report is required

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18
Q

during flight a fire, which was extinguished, burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action is required by regulations

A

an immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office

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19
Q

you are the PIC of an aircraft involved in an accident resulting in substantial damage. You are required to do which of the following?

A

Notify NTSB immediately

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20
Q

the operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB

A

only if requested to do so

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21
Q

how many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office

A

10

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22
Q

you are landing at a Class D airport with the tower not in operation. Which of the following airspaces rules apply

A

class E surface rules apply, or a combination of Class E to 700 feet AGL and Class G to the surface rules apply

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23
Q

regulations which refer to commercial operators relate to that person who

A

for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier

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24
Q

regulations which refer to operate relate to that person who

A

causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use

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25
Q

regulations which refer to the operational control of a flight are in relation to

A

exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight

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26
Q

which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration

A

VS1

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27
Q

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable

A

VS

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28
Q

14 CFR part 1 defines VF as

A

design flap speed

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29
Q

14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as

A

maximum landing gear extended speed

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30
Q

14 CFR part 1 defines VY as

A

speed for best rate of climb

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31
Q

if an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers

A

limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved)

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32
Q

commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when

A

acting as pilot in command

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33
Q

which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings

A

single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea

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34
Q

does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date

A

no, it is issued without a specific expiration date

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35
Q

a second class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10 this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges

A

commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year

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36
Q

when is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown

A

on flights when carrying another person

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37
Q

unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating any

A

aircraft of more than 12,500 lbs max certified takeoff weight

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38
Q

to act as PIC of an airplane that is equipped with retractable Landing gear, flaps and controllable-pitch propeller,, a person is required to

A

receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency

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39
Q

when may a pilot log time as a SIC

A

when occupying a crew member station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot and the SIC is fully qualified

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40
Q

What flight time must be documented and recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate

A

Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating or flight review

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41
Q

If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1800 CST, the latest time pax should be carried is

A

1859 CST

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42
Q

prior to carrying pax at night, the PIC must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in

A

the same category, class, and type of aircraft

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43
Q

to act as pilot in command of an aircraft operating under 14 CFR part 91, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the preceding

A

24 calendar months

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44
Q

you just accepted out-of-state employment that will require you to change your address. How long may you exercise the privileges of your pilot certificate before notifying the FAA of your address change

A

30 days

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45
Q

to act as PIC of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to have

A

a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques and procedures for safe towing of gliders

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46
Q

what limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial pilot airplane, if that person does not hold an instrument rating? the carriage of paxs

A

for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM, or for fire at night is prohibited

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47
Q

For VFR operations, the vertical limits of victor airways extend from

A

1,200 feet AGL up to the bottom of the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace

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48
Q

You are PIC of a flight that had to deviate from a rule. According to 14 CFR part 91 you must

A

send a written report if requested by the administrator

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49
Q

who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A

the PIC

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50
Q

when operating a US registered civil aircraft, which document is required by regulation to be available in the aircraft

A

a current, approved airplane flight manual

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51
Q

a PIC of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight

A

if it creates a hazard to persons and property

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52
Q

In your preflight planning, a weather briefing is required for

A

any flight not in the vicinity of an airport

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53
Q

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the PIC must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must

A

be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed

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54
Q

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the PIC must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must

A

be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed

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55
Q

required flight crew members’ safety belts must be fastened

A

while the crew members are at their stations

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56
Q

each required flight crew member is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened

A

during takeoff and landing

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57
Q

with US registered civil airplanes, the use of safety belts is required during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings for

A

each person over 2 years of age on board

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58
Q

which is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner

A

a certificate of waiver issued by the administrator

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59
Q

portable electronic devises which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a US registered civil aircraft being flown

A

in air carrier operations

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60
Q

portable electronic devise which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on US register civil aircraft being operated

A

under IFR

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61
Q

to begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR, there must be enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruise speed, to fly thereafter for at least

A

20 minutes

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62
Q

if weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for

A

45 minutes at normal cruising speed

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63
Q

a coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for Class A, Class B, Class C airspace areas

A

Class A, Class B, Class C airspace areas

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64
Q

in the contiguous US excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above

A

10,000 feet MSL

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65
Q

What is the maximum bearing error (+ or -) allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using an FAA approved ground test signal?

A

4 degrees

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66
Q

in accordance with 14 CFR part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flight crew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of

A

12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL

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67
Q

you are conducting a flight with pax above 15,000 feet MSL what are the oxygen requirements

A

crew must use and pax must be provided supplemental oxygen at or above this altitude

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68
Q

which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights

A

anti collision light system

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69
Q

which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights

A

an electric landing light, if the flight is for hire

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70
Q

approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each helicopter if it is being flown for hire over water

A

beyond power-off sliding distance from shore

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71
Q

approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water

A

beyond power-off gliding distance from shore

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72
Q

which is true with respect to operating limitations of a restricted category helicopter

A

no person may operate a restricted category helicopter carrying pax or property for compensation or hire

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73
Q

which is true with respect to operating limitations of a restricted category airplane

A

no person may operate a restricted category airplane carrying pax or property for compensation or hire

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74
Q

which is true with respect to operating limitations of a primary category airplane

A

no person may operate a primary category airplane carrying pax or property for compensation or hire

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75
Q

the carriage of pax for hire by a commercial pilot is

A

not authorized in a limited category aircraft

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76
Q

the maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is

A

60 minutes

77
Q

no person may operate a large civil aircraft of US registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA aircraft registration branch, technical section, Oklahoma city, OK, within how many hours of its execution

A

24

78
Q

what transponder equipment is required for helicopter operations within Class B airspace? a transponder

A

with 4096 code and mode C capability

79
Q

what transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within class B airspace? A transponder

A

with 4096 code or mode S, and mode C capability

80
Q

which is true with respect to formation flights? formation flights are

A

not authorized when carrying pax for hire

81
Q

which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? these flights are

A

not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard

82
Q

which is true with respect to formation flights? formation flights are

A

not authorized, except by arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft

83
Q

while in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90 degree angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. which aircraft has the right of way, and why

A

the helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane

84
Q

two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

A

at the lower altitude

85
Q

during a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? the pilot of aircraft

A

1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2

86
Q

a pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?

A

the pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single engine airplane is to its right

87
Q

an airplane is overtaking another airplane. Which airplane has the right of way

A

the airplane being overtaken has the right of way and should expect to be passed on the right

88
Q

an airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right of way

A

helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right

89
Q

what is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying class B airspace

A

200 knots

90
Q

one leg of your trip will be within 4 NM and 2,500 feet AGL of a class D airport. What should your speed be

A

200 knots

91
Q

what is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight

A

1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles

92
Q

if not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight

A

at sunset

93
Q

if an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anti collision light system, no person may operate that aircraft

A

after sunset to sunrise

94
Q

which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace

A

the pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area

95
Q

which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace

A

the pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate

96
Q

which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace

A

the aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment

97
Q

the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increase to 5 status miles beginning at an altitude of

A

10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL

98
Q

what is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight at 6,500 feet MSL, in class C, D, and E airspace

A

3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below

99
Q

which minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a day VFR helicopter flight in class G airspace at a 3,500 feet MSL over terrain with an elevation of 1,900 feet MSL

A

visibility 1 mile; distance from clouds-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally

100
Q

basic VFR weather minimums require at least what visibility for operating a helicopter within Class D airspace

A

3 miles

101
Q

when operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required.

A

remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM

102
Q

at some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are

A

authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM

103
Q

to operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within class d airspace at night, which is required

A

the pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight

104
Q

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying

A

more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course

105
Q

except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is

A

2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere

106
Q

who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition

A

owner or operator of the aircraft

107
Q

you have been hired by an owner to mange his aircraft in a 14 CFR part 91 operation. The owner has received an airworthiness directive in the mail. who holds the responsibility to ensure the aircraft is in compliance with the AD

A

the owner or operator of the aircraft

108
Q

after an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, and appropriate notation should be made

A

in the aircraft maintenance records

109
Q

a standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives

A

required maintenance and inspections

110
Q

if an aircraft’s operation in flight was substantially affected by an alternation or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to being operated

A

with pax aboard

111
Q

which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot

A

a record of preventative maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records

112
Q

an aircraft carrying pax for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. under which condition, if any may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection

A

the 100 hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done

113
Q

which is true concerning required maintenance inspections

A

an annual inspection may be substituted for a 100 hour inspection

114
Q

an ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding

A

24 calendar months

115
Q

aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the

A

life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance

116
Q

airworthiness directives

A

require compliance or the aircraft is unairworthy

117
Q

a new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previous

A

changes as required by airworthiness directives

118
Q

if an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations with a specified period, what is the limitation on its use

A

its use is not permitted

119
Q

to act as PIC of an airplane with more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to

A

receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an airplane

120
Q

to serve as PIC of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crew member, and operated under part 91, a person must

A

complete a PIC proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot

121
Q

to serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crew member, and operated under part 91, a person must

A

within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested

122
Q

what person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the airplane

A

PIC

123
Q

operating regulations for US registered civil aircraft require the during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness must be properly secured about each

A

person on board

124
Q

operating regulations for US registered civil helicopters require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness must be properly secured about each

A

person on board

125
Q

no person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless the

A

other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriate rated

126
Q

if the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR part 91, the

A

aircraft may be operated at that speed

127
Q

minimum safe altitude rules require that helicopter pilots

A

comply with routes and altitudes prescribed by the FAA

128
Q

minimum safe altitude rules authorize helicopter pilots to

A

fly at less than 500 feet if they do not create a hazard to persons or property on the surface

129
Q

what altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL

A

29.92” Hg

130
Q

after an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot

A

receives an amended clearance or has an emergency

131
Q

when approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in class G airspace, the pilot should

A

make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated

132
Q

when approaching the land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in class G airspace, a helicopter pilot should

A

avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft

133
Q

when operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to

A

4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

134
Q

when approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to

A

4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

135
Q

you are operating out of non-towered satellite airport within Class C airspace

A

your aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment

136
Q

which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the class c airspace area

A

you must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the class c airspace as soon as practical after takeoff

137
Q

which is true regarding flight operations in class a airspace

A

must conduct operations under instrument flight rules

138
Q

which is true regarding flight operations in class a airspace

A

aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment

139
Q

when weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above ____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs

A

31.00

140
Q

when must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR? within the preceding

A

30 days

141
Q

which data must be recorded in the aircraft logbook or other record by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations

A

date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and signature

142
Q

for an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather minimums

A

ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for non precision

143
Q

for an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a

A

ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic IFR

144
Q

for an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a

A

ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR

145
Q

pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the

A

flight visibility is at, or exceeds, the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used

146
Q

on an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the

A

aircraft is continuously in a position from which a stabilized descent to the intended runway can be made

147
Q

a pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when

A

receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix

148
Q

the PIC of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar contact, shall report baby radio as soon as possible when

A

passing each designated reporting point, to include time and altitude

149
Q

the pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when

A

experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight

150
Q

you just received your commercial pilot certificate and plan to act as PIC for compensation. you may do so provided you

A

are qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and the applicable parts

151
Q

a person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, if that person

A

is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation

152
Q

you have just received your commercial certificate and have never flown a tailwheel aircraft before. To act as PIC of a tailwheel aircraft you must receive

A

receive ground and flight training from an authorized instructor and receive an endorsement

153
Q

no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate

A

when carrying persons or property for hire

154
Q

which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts

A

airports with control towers underlying class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue

155
Q

the floor of class E airspace over the town of woodland is

A

both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL

156
Q

the floor of the class E airspace over university airport is

A

700 feet AGL

157
Q

the numbers 1^6 along the San Joaquin river indicate the maximum elevation figure which represents the highest elevation of

A

non-manmade obstacles and other vertical obstacles within the quadrant in MSL

158
Q

a helicopter flight over Livermore airport at 3,000 feet MSL

A

requires a transponder but ATC communication is not necessary

159
Q

the alert area depicted within the magenta lines is an area in which

A

there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft

160
Q

when a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of

A

class D airspace

161
Q

the highest obstruction within 10 NM of Lincoln regional airport is how high above the ground

A

662 feet

162
Q

you are approaching Madera airport from the northwest at 1,000 feet MSL, and flight visibility is 1 SM. should you remain Class E airspace until entering the traffic pattern?

A

no you. would have to descend and remain clear of Class E airspace

163
Q

when exiting a runway, you are clear of the active runway the you pass

A

is past the solid line side of sign G

164
Q

the red sign D would most likely be found

A

at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway

165
Q

while clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign

A

H

166
Q

What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? the other aircraft is

A

headed away from you

167
Q

pilots are required to have the anti-collision light system operating

A

during all types of operations, both day and night

168
Q

the taxiway ending marker

A

indicates taxiway does not continue

169
Q

what period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a serious injury

A

48 hours, commencing within 7 days after date of the injury

170
Q

when exiting the runway the runway exit sign indicates the

A

direction to turn to exit the runway onto the named taxiway

171
Q

the ILS critical area boundary sign identifies

A

the edge of the ILS critical area

172
Q

when turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the taxiway directional sign indicates the

A

designation and direction of the taxiways leading out of an intersection

173
Q

you are taxiing and see sign 2 on the left side of the intersection you are approaching. you see sign 1 in front of you across the intersection. Does taxiway A continue through the intersection?

A

No

174
Q

a coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is require for

A

Class A, B, C airspace

175
Q

the taxiway location sign serves to

A

identify taxiway on which an aircraft is located

176
Q

if 8 hours or more have passed since last consuming alcohol, a pilot with a blood alcohol level greater than or equal to .04 percent cannot fly until

A

the blood alcohol falls below .04 percent and no longer under the influence of alcohol

177
Q

a PIC may accept a land and hold short clearance provided he or she determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop within the

A

available landing distance

178
Q

you are taking a 173 NM night VFR cross country flight which of the following actions must the pilot in command take

A

verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers

179
Q

a pilot in command has the final authority to accept or decline land and hold short clearance

A

under any conditions

180
Q

as part of their preflight planning, pilots should determine if their destination airport has

A

land and hold short operations

181
Q

you are doing a post flight inspection away from your home base and come across a discrepancy. Who is responsible for maintaining the airworthiness of the aircraft by having the defect corrected

A

the owner or operator

182
Q

you are taking a 196 nm VFR cross country flight in mountainous terrain. which of the following actions must the pilot in command take

A

verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to pax

183
Q

a PIC may accept a land and hold short clearance provided he or she determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop

A

within the available landing distance

184
Q

once a PIC accepts a land and hold short clearance, the clearance must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless

A

an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs

185
Q

you are taking a 123 NM VFR flight from one airport to another. Which of the following actions must the PIC take?

A

verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to pax

186
Q

with a blood alcohol level at or above .04 percent, a pilot cannot fly until

A

at least 8 hours after consuming alcohol, no longer under the influence of alcohol, and the blood alcohol falls below .04 percent

187
Q

to conduct land and hold short operations, pilots should have, readily available the

A

chart supplement

188
Q

a pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to

A

FAA civil aviation security division within 60 days of the conviction

Random Checkride (1 decks)

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