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CIC Review 2019 > Identification of infectious diseases processes > Flashcards

Identification of infectious diseases processes Flashcards

1
Q

The ability of an organism to grow and multiply.

A

Virulence

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2
Q

What is the initial element in virulence?

a. favored site of invasion
b. avoidance of host defense mechanisms of resistance
c. ability of an organism to survive in the external environment during transit between hosts
d. mechanism for transmission to a new host

A

c. ability of an organism to survive in the external environment during transit between hosts

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3
Q

It is an adaptive immune response which is induced, mediated, or regulated by T-lymphocytes and mononuclear phagocytes.

A

cell-mediated immune system

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4
Q

What is the etiological agent of pseudomembranous colitis?

a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium tetani

A

b.Clostridium difficile

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5
Q

A slimy covering secreted by some bacteria.

A

Glycocalyx

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6
Q

Self-produced, polymeric conglomerations of extracellular DNA, proteins, and polysaccharides that confer resistance against different environmental stresses, including immune responses and antimicrobial agents.

A

Biofilms

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7
Q 
What organism is  responsible for the  most immediate postoperative surgical site infections, beginning in less than 24 hours from incision?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Staphylococcus epididirmidis
c.Streptococcus pneumoniae 
D. Haemophilus influenzae
A

a.Streptococcus pyogenes

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8
Q

Bacterial toxin which enhances invasion by killing protective neutrophils and enhances rapid spread of infection by digesting subcutaneous proteins;

A

Panton- Valentine leukocidin of MRSA

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9
Q

Neither CD4 nor CD8 cells, have the ability to lyse and kill tumor cells and virus-infected cells.

A

Natural killer (NK) cells

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10
Q

The major circulating and extravascular (interstitial) antibody-a protein molecule of approximately 160,000 molecular weight that possesses two Fab reactive sites linked to one Fc component.

A

Immunoglobulin G (lgG)

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11
Q

The late-occurring immunoglobulin in an immune response and is the longest lived; enters interstitial tissue relatively easily, it is the major antibody to protect “tissue.”

A

Immunoglobulin G (lgG)

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12
Q

The first reacting immunoglobulin in an adaptive immune response to an infection and is generally produced for no more than 6 months after the onset of the infection.

A

lgM

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13
Q

The principal secretory antibody in humans, primarily produced in plasma cells residing in mucous membranes

A

Immunoglobulin A (lgA)

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14
Q

The principal allergy-inducing immunoglobulin, known as reagin.

A

Immunoglobulin E (lgE)

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15
Q

What type of immunoglobulin is highly effective in preventing virus infections of the respiratory and intestinal mucosa, such as rhinovirus, influenza virus, coronavirus, and enteroviruses (e.g., poliovirus and Coxsackie virus). It is also thought to be a key protector against intestinal parasites.

a. Immunoglobulin M (lgM)
b. Immunoglobulin A (lgA)
c. Immunoglobulin E (lgE)
d. Immunoglobulin D (lgD)

A

b. Immunoglobulin A (lgA)

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16
Q

A low-activity enzyme secreted by mucous membranes and kills a narrow range of Gram-positive bacteria.

A

Lysozyme

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17
Q

The components of the human complement system include except`;

a. C1 q, r, and s
b. C4; C2; C3;
c. C5; C6; C7; C8; C9.
d. C10;C11;C12

A

d. C10;C11;C12

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18
Q

Granulocytes (polymorphonuclear [PMN] leukocytes or “polys”) consist of :
a. neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
b. Monocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Blastocytes

A

a. neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

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19
Q

The principal antibacterial PMNs and the first cells to arrive at the site of an inflammatory focus.

A

Neutrophils

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20
Q

Important in hypersensitivity reactions and defense against parasites and are early arrivals at the site of a primary exposure to an antigenic substance.

A

Eosinophils

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21
Q

it implies an abundance of immature neutrophils (e.g., increased “band” forms of PMNs) in the peripheral blood

A

Left shift

22
Q

The normal number of white blood cells (WBCs; collectively includes the five cell lines of leukocytes previously described- neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes) in peripheral blood is:

a. 4,000 and 10,000 cells/mm3
b. excess of 10,000
c. less than 4,000
d. below 1,000 cells/mm3or resides below 500

A

a. 4,000 and 10,000 cells/mm3

23
Q

The Advisory Committee on
Immunization Practices (ACIP) divides patients with immunocompromising disorders except:
1. patients with HIV infection
2. patients with severe immunosuppression not caused by HIV
3. patients with other conditions that cause limited immune deficits, such as asplenia, renal failure, diabetes, and alcoholism
4. patients with complete immunization
a. 1
b. 1,2,3
c. 1,3,4
d. 4

A
  1. patients with complete immunization
24
Q

Patients at risk for development of pneumonia caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci should receive prophylactic antimicrobials for the duration of that risk. Alternatives for allergic patients include dapsone or atovaquone by mouth and pentamidine given by inhalation. What is the name of the prophylactic antimicrobials?

a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX)
b. fluoroquinolones
c. posaconazole
d. alemtuzumab

A

a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX)

25
Q

The preferred treatment of pertussis in persons 1 month of age and older are:
a. erythromycin,
clarithromycin, and azithromycin
b. erythromycin,
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ), and azithromycin
c. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ),erythromycin and clarithromycin
d. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ)

A

a. erythromycin,

clarithromycin, and azithromycin

26
Q

The preferred treatment of pertussis in infants younger than 1 month of age is:

a. erythromycin
b. clarithromycin
c. azithromycin
d. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ)

A

c. azithromycin

27
Q

The preferred treatment of pertussis aged 3 months of age and older is:

a. erythromycin
b. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ)
c. azithromycin
d. clarithromycin

A

b.trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ)

28
Q

The IP is giving an orientation to new nurses when one of the nurses asked, what is the causative agent of whooping cough? What is the best response of the IP?

a. B. pertussis
b. B. burgdorferi
c. B. anthracis
d. B. cepacia

A

a. B. pertussis

29
Q

What is the highest risk antimicrobials associated with CDl?

a. erythromycin
b. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ)
c. clindamycin
d. third-generation cephalosporins

A

d. third-generation cephalosporins

30
Q

What is the most important risk factor for CDl during an epidemic?

a. fluoroquinolones
b. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ)
c. clindamycin
d. third-generation cephalosporins

A

a. fluoroquinolones

31
Q

Originally known as a slow virus disease.

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD).

32
Q

A neurodegenerative disease with a starlike or “spongy” (spongiform) appearance of the brain.

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

33
Q

Agents that caused the transmissible neurodegenerative diseases of humans and animals.

A

Prion

34
Q

What is the efinitive diagnosis of CJD ?

A

direct examination of the brain tissue

35
Q

What type of prion disease is genetically transmitted due to an autosomal dominant type of inheritance and the definitive diagnosis of the disease requires visual examination of the brain tissue and findings of amyloid plaques detected primarily in the cerebellum.?

A

Gerstmann-sträussler-scheinker syndrome (gss)

36
Q

This disease also is transmitted genetically through autosomal dominance. The characteristic feature of the disease is the presentation of insomnia with dysautonomia, tachycardia, hypertension, and motor deficits and changes that include spasticity, hyperreflexia, and dysarthria. Patients can have hallUCinations, memory problems, and confusion.

A

Fatal familial insomnia (FFI)

37
Q

Prion diseases are not spread person to person, and in general patients with prion diseases.
a. true
b. false
can be cared for by healthcare personnel and family members without risk of transmission of
infectious particles

A

a. true

38
Q

What type of prion disease have occurred as the result of direct inoculation of prion particles into the brain or spinal cord of patients undergoing procedures in the hospital ? Contaminated surgical equipment or electrodes in the brain also have transmitted infectious prions from one patient to another. In these instances, standard sterilization/disinfection methods have been inadequate.

A

Iatrogenic

39
Q

It is very important that patients who are known or suspected to have prion disease are identified before any surgical procedure involving tissues that may be infectious. Instruments used in these cases will require special processing; environmental cleaning and disinfecting in surgery and laboratory settings will require procedures that will inactivate prions; and disposal.

a. true
b. false

1􏰅1􏰃
of contaminated waste will require special handling.

A

a. true

40
Q

What are the most common etiologic agents of bacterial meningitis ?

  1. pneumococci
  2. meningococci
  3. group B streptococci
  4. group A sterptococci
    a. 1,2,4
    b. 1,3,4
    c. 1,2,3
    d. 2,3,4
A

c. 1,2,3

41
Q

The inflammation of the meninges, the superficial lining tissues of the brain and spinal cord is known as:

a. meningitis
b. encephalitis
c. Spongiform encephalopathies
d. Mycotic aneurysm

A

a. meningitis

42
Q

It is manifested by loss of motor coordination followed by dementia. It is apparently related to human cannibalism and has been recognized only in the highlands of Papua, New Guinea, where approximately 2,600 cases have occurred since 1957.

A

Kuru

43
Q

The most common etiologic agents of bacterial meningitis are:

a. Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae,group B streptococci, and Listeria monocytogenes
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae,group A streptococci, and Listeria
c. Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, group A streptococci, and Listeria
d. Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae,group A streptococci, and Listeria

A

a. Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae,group B streptococci, and Listeria monocytogenes

44
Q

What is the major cause of bacterial meningitis in patients between 2 and 18 years of age?

A

N. meningitis

45
Q

What is the leading cause of bacterial meningitis in the United States among children younger than 5 years of age?

A

H. influenzae

46
Q 
What type of meningitis is suspected from a patent asmitted last night when the result of the CSF is cloudy, elevated WBC,elevated total protein ,gram stain may show GPC or GNR/GNC, neutrophils (early or partially treated may have lymphocyte predominance),
Normal to decreased.
a. bacterial
b. viral
c. fungal
d. tuberculoidal
A

a. bacterial

47
Q

Meningeal inflammation that is not due to bacteria or fungi.

A

Aseptic meningitis

48
Q

Bacteria that cause plague

A

Yersinia pestis

49
Q

What is the only form of plague that can be spread from person to person (by infectious droplets)?

A

Pneumonic plague

50
Q

Visualization of bipolar-staining, ovoid, Gram-negative organisms with a “safety pin” appearance.

A

permits a rapid presumptive diagnosis of plague.

CIC Review 2019 (5 decks)

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