Identification of Infectious Disease Processes Flashcards

1
Q

What is another name for crusted scabies?

A

Norwegian scabies

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2
Q

Guidelines for transporting specimens include:

A

1) Transport within 2 hours of collecting specimen. 2) Transport in leakproof specimen containers and sealable leakproof bags.

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3
Q

What does a positive tuberculin skin test (TST) indicate?

A

Past exposure to TB

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4
Q

What is the optimal time to collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) testing to rule out TB?

A

First thing in the morning

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5
Q

What is the best way for IP and Laboratory to collaborate in reducing healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)?

A

Microbiology’s prompt notification to IP of any organism’s unusual resistance pattern

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6
Q

The primary immune response after exposure to a communicable disease pathogen or vaccine is production of:

A

Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

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7
Q

When are IgM antibodies to Hepatitis A virus (HAV) detectable in the blood?

A

5 to 10 days after exposure

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8
Q

The incubation period for pertussis in immunocompetent persons is usually:

A

7 to 10 days

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9
Q

A patient who was hospitalized for 2 days calls 3 days after discharge complaining that he has developed healthcare-associated scabies due to his recent inpatient stay. The IP knows that his scabies infestation is not healthcare-associated because:

A

The incubation period for scabies is longer than 5 days

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10
Q

A nurse is concerned that a patient in the neurology ward has a prion disease after receiving a lab report stating that the patient had a positive nucleic acid test for John Cunningham virus (JCV) in the CSF. What is the best response to give to this nurse?

A

The test is positive for JCV (a polyomavirus), which is not a prion disease.

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11
Q

What are the first and second elements of in virulence?

A

1) The ability of an organism to survive in the external environment during transit between hosts. 2) A mechanism for transmission to a new host

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12
Q

The management of an infected surgical site includes the following foundational principles:

A

1) Open and drain the incision. 2) Debride fibrous debris and necrotic soft tissue. 3. Implement antimicrobial management as needed. 4) Manage the open wound.

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13
Q

If an employee’s TST result read as 10 mm induration and their last TST was negative, the initial result indicates:

A

A positive test

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14
Q

A microbe that can grow in the absence of oxygen but is also able to utilize oxygen for growth is a/an:

A

Facultative anaerobe

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15
Q

Western blot testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is used to detect:

A

HIV antibodies in a serum sample

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16
Q

If CSF is cloudy and has an elevated white blood cell count and elevated protein concentration, what type of meningitis is suspected?

A

Bacterial meningitis

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17
Q

T/F: Viral shedding for influenza starts 48 to 72 hours after infection and typically 48 hours before the onset of symptoms

A

False

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18
Q

T/F: Influenza B strains have not been associated with large epidemics

A

False

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19
Q

Which factor is commonly associated with Clostridium difficile infections (CDIs)?

A

Prophylactic antibiotics or antibiotic to treat a primary bacterial infection

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20
Q

What are risk factors for colonization and infection with multidrug-resistant pathogens?

A

1) Antimicrobial therapy in preceding 90 days. 2) Current hospitalization of 5 days or more. 3) Immunosuppressive state or therapy.

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21
Q

What are the current community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) national quality measures used in the United States?

A

1) Antibiotic timing (within 6 hours of arrival). 2) Antibiotic selection. 3) Blood cultures performed in the ED before antibiotics were administered.

22
Q

What are the measures that can be practiced for prevention of aspiration?

A

1) Oropharyngeal cleaning and decontamination with an aseptic agent (CHG). 2) Orotracheal intubation, unless contraindicated, rather than nasotracheal intubation.

23
Q

What are descriptions of patients with immunocompromised status?

A

1) HIV with CD4 count <200. 2) Leukemia or lymphoma. 3) Neutropenia (absolute neutrophils count <500/mm3)

24
Q

How long does the paroxysmal stage of pertussis usually last?

A

1 to 6 weeks

25
Which of the following is not an effect of malnutrition on the body's immune system? a) Intestinal bacteria may be altered b) Tissue integrity is impaired c) Mucosal secretions are decreased d) Urine may be colonized with bacteria
D) Urine may be colonized with bacteria
26
Lyme disease is commonly found in all of the following regions of the United States except:
Southeast
27
Which organism cannot penetrate the intact epithelium of the conjunctiva or cornea?
Staphylococcus aureus
28
What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient that is admitted with pruritic lesions on the hands, webs of fingers, wrists, the extensor surfaces of the elbows and knees, and the outer surfaces of the feet, armpits, buttocks, and waist?
Scabies
29
Which organism is not likely to contaminate total parenteral nutrition?
Mycobacterium fortuitum
30
If a urine specimen culture results in a colony count of 50,000 CFU/mL of E. coli with sensitivity testing reporting resistance to cephalosporin and sensitivity to ciprofloxacin, this organism is an example of:
Extended-spectrum beta-lactam (ESBL) resistance
31
A patient has a nasal swab positive for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in the absence of symptoms. This is an example of:
Colonization
32
Which of the following is not a mechanical barrier to infection? a) Intact skin b) Mucous membranes c) Secretions d) Cilia
C. Secretions
33
Patients with cell-mediated immunity dysfunction are susceptible to infections attributed to pathogenic intracellular bacteria. Example of these organisms include:
Salmonella typhi and Listeria monocytogenes
34
What is the name for a substance that prevents water-soluble elements such as antibiotics and disinfectants from reaching pathogens?
Biofilm
35
What is a Gram-negative bacterium that is responsible for chronic antral gastritis and is a major factor in peptic ulcer disease?
Helicobacter pylori
36
The spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi is the agent responsible for:
Lyme disease
37
Higher morbidity rates in chronic Hepatitis B virus (HBV) carriers are associated with a co-infection of:
Hepatitis D
38
Gram stains classify an organism as Gram-positive or Gram-negative. The determinant factors for Gram stains are cell wall components of:
Peptidoglycans
39
An example of an obligate intracellular parasitic bacterium would be an organism responsible for:
Q fever and Epidemic typhus
40
T/F: Bacterial spores are resistant to antibiotics
True
41
Which organism found in food poisoning causes the most rapid onset of symptoms?
Staphylococcus aureus
42
Depletion of what cell type provides the best indication of susceptibility to most bacterial infections?
Neutrophil
43
A 14-year-old boy from rural Maryland was seen in the emergency room with fever, fatigue, chills, headache, and a large annular lesion on his left thigh, which the patient described as burning and itching. What is the most probable vector of this child's illness?
Tick
44
Which immune marker represents past exposure to disease?
IgG
45
The Emergency Department reports three cases of cramping, abdominal pain, and diarrhea within a 24-hour period. All persons are from the same community, and onset of symptoms was within 12 to 36 hours of a picnic they all attended. The IP should suspect which foodborne illness?
Salmonella
46
When reviewing the Gram stain of a person with a wound infection, the IP sees Gram-positive organisms in clusters. Which organism would this most likely represent?
Staphylococcus
47
What is the most likely time frame after exposure in which HIV antibodies would be measurable in a blood test?
1 to 3 months
48
What is the causative organism of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Prion
49
Anaerobic cultures should be used for any of the following sites except: a) Blood b) Transtracheal aspirate c) Spinal fluid d) Sputum
D) Sputum
50
Routine microbiologic sampling is indicated for which of the following? a) Respiratory therapy equipment b) Dialysis fluid c) Sterile disposable equipment d) Operating room surfaces
B) Dialysis fluid