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IDDIBIDDI Flashcards

1
Q

Angina Rx

A
  1. BB or RateCCB (verapamil/diltiazem)
  2. BB and long acting DHP (amlodipine/nifedipine)
  3. ONLY IF AWAITING PCI, add long acting nitrate (ivabradine, nicorandil, ranolazine)
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2
Q

Angina 1st line

A
  1. BB or RateCCB (verapamil/diltiazem)
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3
Q

Angina 2nd line

A

2.BB and long acting DHP (amlodipine/nifedipine)

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4
Q

Angina 3rd line

A
  1. ONLY IF AWAITING PCI, add long acting nitrate (ivabradine, nicorandil, ranolazine)
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5
Q

What Rx for CVA if cannot tolerate clopidogrel?

A

Aspirin + dypiridamole

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6
Q

Thrombectomy AND thrombolysis within how many hours for anterior?

A

6

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7
Q

Within 6 hours can you perform thrombectomy AND thrombolysis for what type of CVA?

A

Anterior

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8
Q

Within how many hours can you perform JUST thrombectomy for anterior CVA?

A

6-24

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9
Q

Within 6-24 hours, for what type of CVA can you perfom JUST thrombectomy?

A

Anterior

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10
Q

Thrombolysis AND thrombectomy, how many hours for POSTERIOR

A

<4.5 (consider)

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11
Q

For what type of CVA can Thrombolysis AND thrombectomy be offered if <4.5 hours?

A

Posterior

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12
Q

When can endarterectomies be done?

A

> 50%

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13
Q

Dizziness and electric shock symptoms post stopping what medication?

A

SSRI

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14
Q

Which do you replace first B12 or folate?

A

B12 first

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15
Q

Can topiramate be given to pregnant ladies?

A

No Teratogenic

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16
Q

Teratogenic migraine Rx

A

Topiramate

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17
Q

Can pregnant ladies receive MMR?

A

NO, only post-natally

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18
Q

How long for IUD to take effect

A

Immediately

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19
Q

How long for POP to take effect

A

2 days

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20
Q

How long for COCP to take effect

A

7 days

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21
Q

How long for implant to take effect

A

7 days

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22
Q

How long for injection contraceptive to take effect

A

7 days

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23
Q

How long for IUS to take effect

A

7 days

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24
Q

Which contraceptives take 7 days to take effect

A

COCP, implant, injection, IUS

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25
Q

Which contraceptive takes 2 days to take effect

A

POP

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26
Q

Which contraceptive is immediate

A

IUD

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27
Q

When can you restart COCP postnatally?

A

21 days

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28
Q

A woman has given birth a week ago, can she take COCP

A

No, 21 days

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29
Q

Which drug causes corneal opacities?

A

Amiodarone

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30
Q

Amiodarone does what to your eyes?

A

Corneal opacities

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31
Q

Can a breastfeeding woman take:
Lithium

A

No

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32
Q

Can a breastfeeding woman take:
Tetracyclines

A

No

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33
Q

Can a breastfeeding woman take:
Chloramphenicol

A

No

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34
Q

Can a breastfeeding woman take:
Sulfonamides

A

No

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35
Q

Can a breastfeeding woman take:
Lithium and benzos

A

No

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36
Q

Can a breastfeeding woman take:
Aspirin

A

No Reyes

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37
Q

Can a breastfeeding woman take:
Carbimazole

A

No

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38
Q

Can a breastfeeding woman take:
Methotrexate

A

No

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39
Q

Can a breastfeeding woman take:
Sulfonylureas

A

No

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40
Q

Can a breastfeeding woman take:
Amiodarone

A

No

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41
Q

What do you do with a squint?

A

Refer opthal

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42
Q

What effect does smoking cessation have on clozapine?

A

Rise in levels

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43
Q

Fasting glucose >7 in a preggo lady

A

INSULIN

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44
Q

Dominant R wave in V1

A

WPW TYPE A

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45
Q

Features of WPW type A on ECG

A

Dominant R wave in V1

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46
Q

Effect of thiazides on lithium

A

Lithium toxicity

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47
Q

Spasticity in MS Rx

A

Gabapentin
Baclofen

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48
Q

2 most common causes of status epilepticus

A

Hypoxia, hypoglycaemia

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49
Q

Poor feeding in an infant, whaddayadoo

A

Even if losing weight, trial:

  1. Gaviscon
  2. Omeprazole / ranitidine
  3. Paed referral
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50
Q

Side effect of nicorandil?

A

Nicorandil gives you nicks all over the GI tract - ulceration + GIB

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51
Q

Baby is born
Xray shows fluid in the horizontal fissure and hyperinflation

A

TTofN

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52
Q

Xray sign for transient tachypnoea of newborn

A

Xray shows fluid in the horizontal fissure and hyperinflation

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53
Q

Rx for displaced hip fracture

A

Hemi / THR

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54
Q

Rx for extracapsular hip fracture

A

DHS

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55
Q

How long do you review sertraline in <25yo

A

ONE week
Risk of suicide on starting in young

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56
Q

SEVERE eye pain
HALOs
Reduced vision
HAZY cornea
Semi-dilated

A

Acute angle CLOSURE glaucoma

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57
Q

Halos
Hazy cornea

A

Acute angle CLOSURE glaucoma

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58
Q

Acute angle CLOSURE glaucoma Sx

A

SEVERE eye pain
HALOs
Reduced vision
HAZY cornea
Semi-dilated

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59
Q

EYE

Acute onset
Pain
Blurred vision
Photophobia
Small, FIXED OVAL pupil
Ciliary flush

A

Anterior Uveitis

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60
Q

Small, FIXED OVAL pupil
Ciliary flush

A

Anterior Uveitis

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61
Q

Anterior Uveitis Sx

A

Acute onset
Pain
Blurred vision
Photophobia
Small, FIXED OVAL pupil
Ciliary flush

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62
Q

Scleritis Sx

A

Severe eye pain on movement
AI disease

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63
Q

Severe eye pain on movement
AI disease

A

Scleritis

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64
Q

Rheumatoid eye disease

A

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

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65
Q

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

A

Rheumatoid eye disease

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66
Q

Purulent or clear eye discharge

A

Conjunctivitis

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67
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

Purulent or clear eye discharge

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68
Q

What causes subconjunctival haemorrhage

A

Trauma/coughing

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69
Q

Eye disease with trauma/coughing

A

Subconjunctival haemorrhage

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70
Q

Endopthalmitis

A

AFTER SURGERY
Red, painful, decreased vision

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71
Q

Eye disorder
AFTER SURGERY
Red, painful, decreased vision

A

Endopthalmitis

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72
Q

<55 or T2DM
First line

A

ACE or ARB

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73
Q

<55 or T2DM
2nd line

A

ACE or ARB + CCB or thiazide

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74
Q

<55 or T2DM
3rd line

A

ACE or ARB + CCB AND thiazide

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75
Q

<55 or T2DM
4th line

A

<4.5 Spiro
>4.5 Beta or alpha blocker

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76
Q

> 55 or afro
1st line

A

CCB

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77
Q

> 55 or afro
2nd line

A

CCB + ARB/ACEi or thiazidie

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78
Q

> 55 or afro
3rd line

A

CCB + ACEi/ARB AND thiazide

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79
Q

Anterior MI what artery

A

LAD

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80
Q

Inferior MI what artery

A

RCA

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81
Q

RCA causes what MI

A

Inferior

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82
Q

LAD causes what MI

A

Anterior

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83
Q

What target HbA1c for lifestyle

A

48

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84
Q

What target HbA1c for metformin

A

48

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85
Q

What target HbA1c for hypoglycaemic

A

53

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86
Q

1st line DM

A

Metformin + SGLT2(if CVD/HF risk)

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87
Q

2nd line DM

A

Add DPP4 or SGLT2

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88
Q

3rd line DM

A

Add another or insulin

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89
Q

4th line DM

A

Switch one for GLP1 if BMI > 35

IE if on 3/4 hypoglycaemics OR insulin and no result consider GLP1 if BMI >35

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90
Q

How often cervical cytlology in HIV

A

Yearly

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91
Q

General rule for autosomal dominant

A

Structural things
EXCEPTIONS = gilberts + hyperlipidaemia

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92
Q

General rule for autosomal recessive

A

Metabolic things
EXCEPTIONS = ataxias

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93
Q

Persistent ST elevation post MI with NO chest pain?

A

LV aneurysm

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94
Q

How does LV aneurysm present

A

Persistent ST elevation post MI with NO chest pain

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95
Q

Rx whooping

A

Clarithromycin / azithromycin

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96
Q

Rx for baby meningitis

A

ceftriaxone

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97
Q

What drug avoid in HOCM?

A

ACEi

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98
Q

Rx for labial adhesions in children

A

Oestrogen cream

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99
Q

What causes falsely elevated HBA1c?

A

Splenectomy
IDA
B12/folate deficiency

Increased lifespan of RBCs

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100
Q

Splenectomy
IDA
B12/folate deficiency

Do what to HBA1c

A

Falsely elevated

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101
Q

Sickle cell
G6PD
Hereditary spherocytosis
B thalassaemia

What effects on HBA1c

A

Falsely LOW

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102
Q

What causes falsely low HBA1c?

A

Sickle cell
G6PD
Hereditary spherocytosis
B thalassaemia

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103
Q

Asbestosis / mesothelioma
What is notable about death certificate?

A

NEEDS coroner referral

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104
Q

Structural heart disease pharmacological cardioversion

A

AMIODARONE

NOT
flecainide

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105
Q

DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES

Quietens to voice
Squeaks
Turns to parents

A

3 months

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106
Q

DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES

Double syllables

A

6 months

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107
Q

DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES

Mama/dada

A

9 months

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108
Q

DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES

Knows name

A

12 months

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109
Q

DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES

2-6 words
Understands simple commands

A

12-15 months

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110
Q

DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES

Combine 2 words
Points to body parts

A

2 years

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111
Q

DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES

200 words

A

2.5yrs

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112
Q

DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES

Short sentences
What/who
Colours
1-10

A

3 yrs

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113
Q

DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES

Why, when, how

A

4 yrs

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114
Q

Rx for recurrent hiccups

A

Chlorpromazine

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115
Q

Xray signs of rheumatoid

A

Periarticular erosions
Juxta-articular osteoporosis

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116
Q

Periarticular erosions
Juxta-articular osteoporosis

A

Xray signs of rheumatoid

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117
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A

Reduced inhibitory GABA, increased glutamate

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118
Q

Reduced inhibitory GABA, increased glutamate

A

Alcohol withdrawal

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119
Q

Rx Ramsay Hunt

A

Oral acyclovir and prednisolone

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120
Q

Most common cause otitis media

A

H influenza

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121
Q

Other (not most common) causes of otitis media

A

Moraxella
Strep

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122
Q

Risk factors for SIDS

A

Sleeping in same bed
Prone sleeping
Smoking
Prematurity
Hyperthermia and head covering

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123
Q

Sleeping in same bed
Prone sleeping
Smoking
Prematurity
Hyperthermia and head covering

A

Risk factors for SIDS

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124
Q

Barlow DDH

A

Dislocate

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125
Q

Ortlani DDH

A

Relocate

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126
Q

DDH investigations

A

> 4.5 months XRAY
<4.5 months US

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127
Q

Rx DDH <4.5 months

A

Pavliks
BUT MOST SPONTANEOUS STABILISE at 3-6 weeks

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4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Pavliks harness
BUT MOST SPONTANEOUS STABILISE at 3-6 weeks

A

Rx DDH <4.5 months

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129
Q

When in parvovirus BAD in pregnancy

A

<20 weeks

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130
Q

Section someone in GP
What section?

A

4

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131
Q

How do you treat cows milk allergy in a baby?

A

Extensively hydrolysed formula

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132
Q

Extensively hydrolysed formula

A

Cows milk allergy

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133
Q

What audio test is done in schools?

A

Pure tone audiometry

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134
Q

Pure tone audiometry, done when?

A

Schools

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135
Q

Newborn hearing test?

A

Otoacoustic emission

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136
Q

Otoacoustic emission

A

Newborns

137
Q

Low LH/FSH
Low testosterone
Anosmia
Delayed puberty

A

Kallman

138
Q

How to treat a cut in an unknown tetanus Hx?

A

Give booster / immunoglobulin if cant

139
Q

What one off vaccine for hep C patients?

A

Pneumococcal

140
Q

Obstetric cholestasis, main risk to baby?

A

Stillbirth

141
Q

Features of a lacunar infarct?

A

Purely motor or sensory

142
Q

Rx pagets

A

Bisphosphonates

143
Q

Diclofenac contraindicated with what?

A

CVA

144
Q

Keratitis from what

A

KONTACT LENSE

145
Q

Rx raynaulds?

A

Nifedipine
BB cause raynaulds

146
Q

Risk of glandular fever

A

Splenic rupture

147
Q

Seborrheic dermatitis can randomly cause what? (melassazia fur fur)

A

Ear ache!

148
Q

Fetal varicella features

A

Scarring, eye defects, limb defects, microcephaly, LD

149
Q

Scarring, eye defects, limb defects, microcephaly, LD

A

Fetal varicella features

150
Q

Psoriatic Arthritis, which HLA

A

B27

151
Q

Which clotting factors are reduced in liver failure?

A

All apart from 8

152
Q

Which clotting factors are not reduced in liver failure?

A

8
All others reduced

153
Q

All clotting factors apart from 8 are reduced in what?

A

Liver failure

154
Q

Normal calcium, phosphate, ALP and PTH

A

Osteoporosis

155
Q

Osteoporosis biochem

A

Normal calcium, phosphate, ALP and PTH

156
Q

Osteomalacia biochem

A

ALP and PTH appropriately high, calcium and phosp low

157
Q

ALP and PTH appropriately high, calcium and phosp low

A

Osteomalacia biochem

158
Q

Primary HPTHism biochem

A

PTH high, Ca high, Phosp low, ALP high

PTH high cos HPTism, causes high Ca/low phos, ALP high cos PTH stimulates osteo

159
Q

PTH high, Ca high, Phosp low, ALP high

A

Primary HPTHism biochem

160
Q

CKD biochem, PTH

A

PTH High, Ca low (cant be absorbed in kidney) Phosphate high (cant be excreted, ALP high

IE makes sense that PTH is high and Ca cannot be absorbed, phosp exrected, and ALP is high

161
Q

PTH High, Ca low (cant be absorbed in kidney) Phosphate high (cant be excreted, ALP high

A

CKD biochem

162
Q

Osteopetrosis biochem

A

PTH ALP CA and PO4 normal

163
Q

A wee barn has a recurrent sticky eye. What do you do?

A

Refer if >1
If <1 it is normal

Nasolacrimal obstruction

164
Q

Serious cystadenoma

A

SERIOUSLY COMMON

165
Q

Mucinous cystadenoma explodes and the patient gets a sore tummy

A

Psuedomyxoma Petronei

166
Q

Gradual blurring after cataract surgery

A

Posterior capsule opacification

167
Q

Posterior capsule opacification

A

Gradual blurring after cataract surgery

168
Q

Bilateral sciatica

A

Cauda equina

169
Q

Dramatic response to steroids

A

PMR

170
Q

Dry ARMD

A

Drusen
Yellow spots in brusches membrane

171
Q

Drusen
Yellow spots in brusches membrane

A

Dry ARMD

172
Q

Exudative
Neovascularisation and leakage of serous fluid and blood

A

Wet ARMD

173
Q

Wet ARMD

A

Exudative
Neovascularisation and leakage of serous fluid and blood

174
Q

Rx Dry ARMD

A

Zinc + Vitamins ACE

175
Q

Rx Wet ARMD

A

Anti VEGF or laser photocoagulation (has a risk of acute visual loss)

176
Q

ASA 1

A

Healthy non smoker

177
Q

ASA 2

A

Mild disease

178
Q

ASA 3

A

Severe disease

179
Q

ASA 4

A

Severe disease, but constant threat to life

180
Q

ASA 5

A

Moribund, expected not to live without operation

181
Q

ASA 6

A

Brain dead

182
Q

What is Fomepizole for?

A

Fomepizole For antiFreeze

183
Q

Rx antifreeze

A

Fomepizole

184
Q

Disproportionate microcytosis

A

B thalassaemia trait

185
Q

When is jaundice in neonates pathological

A

First 24hrs
After 2 weeks

186
Q

When is jaundice in neonates normal

A

2-14 days

187
Q

Causes of jaundice >2weeks neonates

A

Breast milk, biliary atresia, UTI, galactosaemia, hypothyroidism, prematurity, CMV, toxoplasmosis

188
Q

Breast milk, biliary atresia, UTI, galactosaemia, hypothyroidism, prematurity, CMV, toxoplasmosis

A

Causes of jaundice >2weeks neonates

189
Q

Rx phaeo and what is importants

A

PHenoxybenzamine
ALWAYS A blockade before Beta

190
Q

OLDBEN VOICE EYES

A

OBEY
LOCALISE
DRAW AWAY
BEND
EXTEND
NONE

ELEGANT
CONFUSED
INAPPROPRIATE
OBSCURE
VOICELESS

SPONTANEOUS
EAR PIERCING NOISE
YOUCH
EYES SHUT

191
Q

OLDBEN

A

OBEY
LOCALISE
DRAW AWAY
BEND
EXTEND
NONE

192
Q

VOICE

A

ELEGANT
CONFUSED
INNAPPROPRIATE
OBSCURE NOISES
VOICELESS

193
Q

EYES

A

EYES SHUT
YEOUCH
EAR PIERCING
SPONTANEOUS

194
Q

Monitor fibroadenomas if

A

<3cm

195
Q

Peutz jeghers what is it

A

AD
MultiPle PolyPs
Pigmented lesions on hands and feet

196
Q

AD
MultiPle PolyPs
Pigmented lesions on hands and feet

A

Peuts-jeghers

197
Q

18yo hasn’t had Men ACWY do ya give it

A

YEA

198
Q

What are the rules with live vaccines?

A

> 4 weeks apart

199
Q

Turners heart disease

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

200
Q

Brushfields spots

A

Downs syndrome

201
Q

When can you start POP and COCP after birth?

A

POP immediately
COCP 6 weeks

202
Q

Sudden onset sensorineural deafness, whaddayado

A

ENT urgent

203
Q

Statins? Pregnancy?

A

Contraindicated

204
Q

Croup caused by, and Rx

A

Parainfluenza
Steroids

205
Q

Parainfluenza
Steroids

A

Croup

206
Q

Key SE of carbimazole?

A

Agranulocytosis

207
Q

Features Patau
Tri 13

A

Polydactyly, cleft Palate, small PeePing eyes

208
Q

Polydactyly, cleft Palate, small PeePing eyes
Tri 13

A

Patau

209
Q

Edwards
Tri 18

A

Ed the rocker likes low basses

Rockerbottom feet, low set ears, overlapping fingers [for playing guitar]

210
Q

Rockerbottom feet, low set ears, overlapping fingers [for playing guitar]

A

Edwards
Ed the rocker likes low basses
Tri 18

211
Q

Fragile X

A

XTRA LARGE
head, ears, testicles, face

takes a LONG time to learn - LD

212
Q

XTRA LARGE
head, ears, testicles, face

takes a LONG time to learn - LD

A

Fragile X

213
Q

Noonan

A

Noo noo vacuUM

Short, pectus excavatUM, pulmonary stenosis (ie hoover)
Clears away the cobwebbed neck

214
Q

Short, pectus excavatUM, pulmonary stenosis (ie hoover)
Clears away the cobwebbed neck

A

Noonan

215
Q

Pierre robin

A

Palate-robin

Cleft palate, tiny mouth like a robin

216
Q

Prader willi

A

Fat
Hungry
Floppy

217
Q

Fat
Hungry
Floppy

A

Prader-willi

218
Q

Williams

A

Think of will
Happy, friendly extrovert, short stature, LD, aortic stenosis

219
Q

Happy, friendly extrovert, short stature, LD, aortic stenosis

A

Williams

220
Q

Cri du chat

A

CrI - Eyes far apart
Loud cry
Hard to feed

This cri-du-chat is hard to feed!

221
Q

Eyes far apart
Loud cry
Hard to feed

A

Cri-du-chat

222
Q

1st stage of puberty in girls

A

Breast development

223
Q

Bow legs, when do they get better?

A

Bow legs Better By 4

224
Q

Whooping cough

A

RSV

225
Q

RSV

A

Whooping cough

226
Q

All breech babies get what

A

US scan

227
Q

FEVER then red rash

A

Roseola HHV6

228
Q

Fever, head+trunk then rest of body macular to papular to vesicular

A

Chickenpox VCZ

229
Q

Measles features

A

Koplik spots mucosa
Rash BEHIND ears
Conjunctivtis, fever

230
Q

Rash BEHIND ears
Conjunctivtis, fever

A

Measles

231
Q

How many days off for measles?

A

4 days from rash onset

232
Q

Unilateral parotitis then b/l
FEVER

A

Mumps

233
Q

Mumps features

A

Unilateral parotitis then b/l
FEVER

234
Q

How many days off for mumps

A

5 days since gland onset

235
Q

Rubella features

A

RUBELLA RS
Rubella Starts on the face
Lymphadenopathy

236
Q

Rash starting on face -> elsewhere
LNs

A

Rubella

237
Q

How many days off school rubella?

A

5 days since rash onset

238
Q

Slapped cheek
Red arms

A

YOU SLAP WITH YOUR ARM
Parvovirus B19/erythema infectiosum

239
Q

Parvovirus B19/erythema infectiosum features

A

Cheek + arms rash

240
Q

Strawberry tongue, rash spares the mouth,

A

GASSY Scarlet
Kiss gassy scarlet and give her a strawberry

Group A strep

241
Q

Scarlet fever features, GAS

A

Strawberry tongue, rash spares the mouth

242
Q

How many days off school for scarlet?

A

24hrs onset of ABx
Penicillin V

243
Q

HAND FOOT N MOUTH

A

COX
Coxsackie A16
Vesicles in HFM

244
Q

When can you go to school with hand foot and mouth

A

No time off

245
Q

When can you go to school after whooping?
And what Rx eh?

A

2 days after ABX
Azithromycin
Clari

246
Q

What reduces absorption of levothyroxine?

A

Iron

247
Q

Keratocanthoma. Whaddyado

A

Refer to derm as could be SCC

248
Q

Low B6 and high B6 can cause what?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

249
Q

How many rescue breaths in paediatrics?

A

5
Most likely hypoxic cardiac arrest

250
Q

Anti TPO are seen in hashimotos, what else?

A

Graves interestingly

251
Q

Rouleaux

A

MM

252
Q

Blepharitis and conjunctivitis 1st + 2nd

A

Clean eyes
ABx if failure

253
Q

Vincristine SE

A

Peripheral neuropathy

254
Q

What do you need to monitor when giving magnesium sulfate

A

RR
Reflexes

255
Q

What is the TT380

A

Not a plane
Its a copper IUD

256
Q

Distinguish between hashimotos and de quervains subacute thyroiditis OE

A

Tender in de quervains

257
Q

AST:ALT in alcohol

A

2:1

258
Q

AST:ALT in paracetamol

A

1:1

259
Q

SE of cyclophosphamide

A

Pee in cycles
TCC, haemorrhagic cystitis

260
Q

SE of bleomycin

A

Bliff
Lung fibrosis

261
Q

SE of Doxorubicin

A

dOxO
CardiOmyopathy

262
Q

SE of 5FU

A

FU sneezy itchy mess
Mucositis
Dermatitis

263
Q

SE of cytarabine

A

cytArAbine
Ataxia

264
Q

SE of vincristine

A

Crystals in your poop n legs
Paralytic ileus
Peripheral neuropathy

265
Q

SE of Cisplatin

A

Cis men can pee or hear

266
Q

Rx PPROM

A

ABx Steroids

267
Q

Pregnancy dates

8-12 weeks

A

Booking and bloods

268
Q

Pregnancy dates

10-13+6

A

First scan

269
Q

Pregnancy dates

11-13+6

A

Downs nuchal thickness

270
Q

Pregnancy dates

16

A

Clinic, results

271
Q

Pregnancy dates

25

A

SFH, clinic

272
Q

Pregnancy dates

28

A

BP check
Anti D

273
Q

Pregnancy dates

31

A

Routine care clinic

274
Q

Pregnancy dates

34

A

Second Anti D

275
Q

Pregnancy dates

38

A

Routine
Preg planning

276
Q

Pregnancy dates

40

A

Options for prolonged preg

277
Q

Pregnancy dates

41

A

Induction

278
Q

Pregnancy dates

Anti D

A

28
34

279
Q

SE of aminosalicylates

A

Agranulocytosis

280
Q

Cluster headache Rx

A

Verapamil

281
Q

Young, Sx of peripheral neuropathy
Ass with raynaulds

A

Buergers

282
Q

How long can copper coil be used for EMERGENCY contraception?

A

5 days

283
Q

Perthes disease, dont treat until what age?

A

6 yrs

284
Q

What biomarker for medullary thyroid carcinoma?

A

Calcitonin

285
Q

B12 or folate first

A

B before F

286
Q

Bronchiolitis onset?

A

<1yo
RSV
Supportive

287
Q

Imposter syndrome

A

Capgras

288
Q

Belief one is dead

A

Cotard

289
Q

Someone high ranking loves you

A

De Clarembauld

290
Q

Everyone is one person

A

Fregoli

291
Q

Not tested in neonatal prick test?

A

Galactosaemia

YEAHAHA

292
Q

Size of kidneys in diabetic nephropathy

A

BIG

293
Q

Duputryns caused by what antiepileptic

A

Phenytoin

294
Q

Rx rosacae

A

Mod: ivermectin
Severe ie pustular: ivermectin and doxy

295
Q

When does PDA close

A

First FEW BREATHS

296
Q

How to close a PDA

A

Indomethacin/ibuprofen

297
Q

How to keep a PDA open

A

Prostaglandins

298
Q

Amster grid testing,
Looking at wavy lines

What is it for?

A

Dry ARMD

299
Q

11+6 check your dicks

A

Warts

300
Q

16+18 get the cervical vaccine/screen

A

Cervical cancer

301
Q

CRAZY MASSIVE SPLEEN
What lymphoma

A

CML

302
Q

Someone gets bad eye pain after mydriatic drops

A

Acute angle CLOSURE glaucoma

303
Q

Fat boi, groin knee thigh pain

A

Slipped femoral epiphysis

304
Q

Tumour in the anal verge

A

AP

305
Q

Tumour in the rectum

A

Anterior resection

306
Q

Tumour in the sigmoid

A

High anterior resection

307
Q

Contraception NEEDED after pregnancy

A

21 days
(NB POP instant, COCP contraindicated for 6 weeks)

308
Q

Claudication like pain legs, back pain
Better with rest

A

Lumbar canal stenosis

309
Q

If you have an allergy to sulfsalazine, what else can you not take?

A

Aspirin
SALICYLATES

310
Q

Dont what after a hip replacement

A

Cross ya legs

311
Q

Big interaction with statins

A

Macrolides, eg clarithromycin

312
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris also affects

A

VULVA
Mucosal surfaces

313
Q

Most common cause of newborn jaundice

A

Rhesus incompatibility

314
Q

Aspirin is ingested
Suicide attempt

Timeframe for charcoal

A

<1hr

315
Q

Most common complication of meningitis

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

316
Q

Bridging vein affected
Crescent shaped CTH

A

Subdural

317
Q

Soft, systolic, symptomless, short, Sitting->Standing

A

Innocent murmur

318
Q

Metabolic acidosis with increased ketones but LOW glucose?

A

Alcoholic ketoacidosis

319
Q

Common cancer after transplantation

A

SCC

320
Q

Lateral rectus controlled by what nerve

A

CN6

321
Q

Superioroblique controlled by

A

CN4

322
Q

Diltiazem causes what toxicity

A

DIGOXIN

323
Q

Samters triad

A

Aspirin sensitivity, nasal polyps, asthma

324
Q

Shaken baby syndrome features

A

Subdural
Retinal haemorrhages
Encephalopathy

325
Q

Subdural
Retinal haemorrhages
Encephalopathy

A

Shaken baby syndrome

326
Q

Active crohns disease rash?

A

Erythema nodosum

327
Q

1st line paediatric migraine

A

Ibuprofen <12

328
Q

AAA screening

A

Single US at 65

329
Q

Fever pain scoring

A

FEVER
Purulent
Attend rapidly <3days
Inflamed tonsils
No cough

0-1 no Abx
2-3 delayed ABx
4-5 ABx

330
Q

FEVER
Purulent
Attend rapidly <3days
Inflamed tonsils
No cough

What are the Rx thresholds

A

0-1 no Abx
2-3 delayed ABx
4-5 ABx

331
Q

1st line to maintain remission in crohns

A

Azathioprine

332
Q

SE depoprovera

A

Reduced BMD

333
Q

Provoked vs unprovoked

A

3 vs 6

334
Q

TIA Rx

A

DAPT

335
Q

How to monitor haemochromatosis

A

Ferritin
TF sat

336
Q

Initial Rx RhA

A

DMARD
Bridging corticosteroid

337
Q

One eye cant adduct and the other gets nystagmus

A

INO
Lesion in the MLF

338
Q

Pain on longitudinal compression of the thumb

A

Scaphoid fracture

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