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Infectious Disease > ID Test 1 > Flashcards

ID Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Compare prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA arrangement

A

Prokaryotic - NO nuclear membrane

Eukaryotic - YES nuclear membrane

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2
Q

Compare prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosome size

A

Prokaryotic 70s

Eukaryotic 80s

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3
Q

How do prokaryotes (bacteria) divide?

A

binary fission

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4
Q

What are the outer layers of a virus called

A

protein capsid covered in a lipoprotein coat

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5
Q

Name the outer coating of bacteria.

A

Peptidoglycan

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6
Q

Name the outer coating of fungus.

A

Chitin

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7
Q

How do fungus replicate?

A

budding or mitosis

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8
Q

How do protozoa replicate?

A

mitosis

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9
Q

Name two functions of pili

A
  1. adherence (adhesins) 2. sex (replication)
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10
Q

List 4 bacteria with pili

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae – binding to cervical cells and buccal cells
Escherichia coli and Campylobacter jejuni – binding to intestinal epithelium in order to allow bacteria to induce diarrhea
Bordetella pertussis – binds to ciliated respiratory cells and causes whooping cough

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11
Q

List 8 obligate aerobes

A

Nocardia, Bacillus cereus, Neisseria, Pseudomonas, Bordetella, Legionella, Brucella, Mycobacterium

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12
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Nocardia

A

obligate aerobe

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13
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Bacillus cereus

A

obligate aerobe

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14
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Neisseria

A

obligate aerobe

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15
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Pseudomonas

A

obligate aerobe

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16
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Bordetella

A

obligate aerobe

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17
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Legionella

A

obligate aerobe

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18
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Brucella

A

obligate aerobe

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19
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Mycobacterium

A

obligate aerobe

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20
Q

Name 2 obligate anaerobes.

A

Bacteroides, Clostridium

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21
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Bacteroides

A

obligate anaerobe

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22
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Clostridium

A

obligate anaerobe

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23
Q

Normal GI flora (name 3)

A

E. coli, Enterococcus faecalis, Bacteroides fragilis

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24
Q

Normal skin flora (name 3)

A

Staph. aureus, Staph. epidermidis, Candida albicans (a yeast)

25
Q

Where is Staph aureus normally found?

A

primarily in the nose!!! some on the skin

26
Q

Normal oropharynx flora (name 1)

A

Viridians group (which contains S. mutans and S. salivarius) subacute endocarditis

27
Q

Normal vaginal flora (name 1)

A

Lactobacillus (keeps pH low and holds back C. albicans and anaerobic overgrowth)

28
Q

Normal flora urethra

A

Outer third of the urethra contains mixture of bacteria, primarily Staphylococcus epidermidis

29
Q

Define pathogen

A

any microorganism with the capacity to cause disease

30
Q

Opportunistic pathogens

A

cause disease in immunocompromised individuals

31
Q

Virulence

A

quantitative measure of pathogenicity; units are number of cells needed to elicit disease

32
Q

LD50

A

50% lethal dose; number of cells needed to kill 50% of hosts

33
Q

ID50

A

50% Infectious dose; number of cells needed to infect 50% of hosts

34
Q

Parasite

A

(1) bacteria-Host relationship where bacteria is detrimental to host
(2) Helminths and protozoa as a group

35
Q

Endemic

A

disease that is naturally found in a region in low level and infecting only a certain number of people on average per year

36
Q

Epidemic

A

infection occurring in increased numbers above normal incidence

37
Q

Pandemic

A

worldwide distribution on an infection

38
Q

Subclinical state

A

infection with no overt symptoms; only detectable via serology (titer rise 4x) or culture growth

39
Q

Communicable

A

diseases that are able to spread from host to host

40
Q

Latent State

A

period of infection inactivity after initial symptoms, then reactivates with recurrence of symptoms

41
Q

Carrier State

A

no symptoms, but bacteria replicating in host

42
Q

Fomite

A

inanimate object that harbors microorganisms

43
Q

Horizontal Transmission

A

person-to-person (other than mother to offspring)

44
Q

Vertical Transmission

A

placenta, within birth canal during birth, breastmilk

45
Q

Portal of Entry

A

means of disease entry into the host; the four primary portals are respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, genitourinary tract, and skin

46
Q

Reservoir

A

the originating source of the infection

47
Q

Vector

A

the mode of transmission from the reservoir to the host

48
Q

Zoonoses

A

diseases where animal is the reservoir

49
Q

Ethylene oxidase

A

Used for sterilization of heat-sensitive materials (e.g., surgical instruments, plastics)
Kills by alkylating proteins and nucleic acids
Hydroxyethyl group attacks reactive hydrogen atoms on essential amino acids and hydroxyl groups
Classified as a mutagen and carcinogen

50
Q

Silver nitrate and silver sulfadiazine

A

Silver nitrate drops used to prevent gonococcal neonatal conjunctivitis
Silver sulfadiazine used in preventing infection in burns (keep in fridge bc cooling)

51
Q

Chlorhexidine

A

Chlorhexidine is chlorinated phenol used as surgical hand scrub; denatures proteins

52
Q

Define sterilization, disinfection, and antiseptics.

A

Sterilization: killing or removing of all microorganisms (including spores)
Disinfection: killing of many, but not all, microorganisms
Antiseptics: chemicals used to kill microorganisms on the surface of skin and mucous membranes

53
Q

All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except…

A

Poxviruses (replicate in the cytoplasm)

54
Q

All DNA viruses have 2 strands except….

A

Parvovirus (single strand)

55
Q

List the stages of viral replication in order.

A

1.Attachment 2. Penetration 3. Uncoating 4. Biosynthesis 5. Assembly 6. Release

56
Q

Malaria

A

Plasmodium (pathogen)

Mosquito (vector)

57
Q

Chagas’s Disease (Latin America)

A 
Trypanasoma CRUZI (pathogen)
Reduviid Bug (vector)
58
Q

African Sleeping Sickness

A 
Trypanasoma BRUCEI (pathogen)
Tsetse fly (vector)
59
Q

Causes visceral Leishmeniasis

A 
Leishmania donovani (pathogen)
Sandfly (vector)

Infectious Disease (1 decks)

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