Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Capstone Exam 4 > ID review > Flashcards

ID review Flashcards

1
Q

Which antibiotics cover MRSA? (12)

A
  1. Vancomycin, 2. Linezolid (Zyvox), 3. Tedizolid (Sivextro), 4. Daptomycin (Cubicin) [not for pneumonia], 5. Quinupristin/dalfopristin (Synercid), 6. Tigecycline (Tygacil), 7. Trimethoprim/ Sulfamethoxazole, 8. Minocycline, 9. Doxycycline (if susceptible). 10. Televancin, 11. Dalbavancin (Dalvance), 12. Oritavancin (Orbactiv).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which drugs cover VRE? (7)

A

Linezolid (Zyvox), Tedizolid (Sivextro), Quinupristin/dalfopristin (Synercid), Daptomycin (Cubicin), Tigecycline (Tygacil), Ampicillin, Nitrofurantoin (UTI- cystitis only watch CrCl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which drugs cover Pseudomonas aeruginosa? (14)

A
  1. Pip/tazo, 2. Ticarcillin/Claulanate, 3. Piperacillin, 4. Ceftazidime, 6. Cefepime, 7. Imipenem, 8. Meropenem, 9. Tobramycin, 10. Gentamicin, 11. Amikacin, 12, Cipro, 13. Levo, 14. Aztreonam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains:

A

Strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters

A

Staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Anaerobic Gram positive cocci

A

Peptostreptococcul, Peptococcus, Microaerophillic Strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Gram positive Bacilli

A

Lactobacillus, Clostridium, mycobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Risk factors for community acquired MRSA

A

Skin on skin exposure (athletes, prisoners, sexual activity), Close living quarters, sharing towels/razors, lesion looks like a spider bite. Pacific islanders, Alaskan natives and native Americans at higher risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment for mild/moderate community acquired MRSA

A

Clindamycin, Minocycline/Doxycycline, or Sulfatrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment for moderate to severe Community Acquired MRSA

A

Vancomycin, Linezolid, Daptomycin, Quinupristin/ Dalfopristin (synercid), Tigecycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment for mild to moderate healthcare associated MRSA

A

Minocycline/doxycycline, Sulfatrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment for moderate to severe healthcare associated MRSA

A

Vancomycin, linezolid, daptomycin (except pneumonia), Quinupristin/Dalfopristin (Synercid), Tigecycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Oral treatment for pseudomonas?

A

Cipro, Levo, Carbenicillin (for cystitis only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Risk factors for multi-drug resistant gram negatives

A

antimicrobial therapy in preceding 90 days, current hospitalization of 5 days or more, high frequency of resistance in hospital or unit, hospitiliation of 2 days or more in previous 90 days, residence in a nursing home, mechanical ventilation greater than 5 days, chronic dialysis within 30 days, home wound care, family member with an MDR pathogen, immunosupressive disease or medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MOA of fluoroquinalones

A

They are bactericidal via inhibition of topoisomerase II and IV which are esential for duplication, transcription and repair of bacterial DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Types of Beta Lactams

A

Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Monobactam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MOA of beta lactams

A

Covalently bond penicillin binding protein thereby preventing transpeptidation of peptidoglycan. (break downs the cell wall and leads to cell death)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Are beta lactams time or concentration dependent?

A

Time dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are beta lactams excreted?

A

through the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Adverse reactions to Beta lactams

A

Neurologic (lowers seizure threshold (PCNs/ carbapenems) Hematologic: neutropenia, thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MOA of fluoroquinolones

A

inhibit bacterial topo II and topo IV which are essential enzymes for duplication, transcription and repair of bacterial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fluoroquinolones are time or concentration dependent?

A

Concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which fluoroquinolone penetrates the lungs poorly?

A

Cipro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which fluoroquinolone penetrates the bladder poorly?

A

Moxi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which antibiotics bind to the 30s subunit?
Tigecycling and tetracyclines
26
Which antibiotics bind to the 50s subunit?
Macrolides and clindamycin
27
Adverse effects seen with tetracyclines and tigecycline?
phototox, tooth discoloration <8 y/o, teratogenic after first trimester.
28
Black box warning for tigecycline?
all cause mortality.
29
Adverse reactions for fluoroquinolones
tendonitis with tendon rupture and Qtc Prolongation
30
Which class of drugs increases INR with warfarin?
Fluoroquinolones
31
Are tetracyclines time or concentration dependent?
Trick question! They're both! :D
32
The D test is used to identify possible macrolide-inducible resistance to ________
Clindamycin
33
If the disk diffusion assay forms a "D" shape, what does that mean?
This means the bug is positive for cross-resistance
34
Macrolides and Clindamycin are _______ dependent
Time
35
Adverse effects of macrolides and clindamycin?
QTc prolongation and hepatitis. (also C. Diff)
36
Metronidazole brand name and pearl
Flagyl, Disulfiram-like interaction with alcohol. also SJS
37
Sulfonamide example and pearl
Bactrim, empiric warfarin dose adjustments sometimes required.
38
Aminoglycosides example and pearl
Gentamicin, nephrotoxic
39
Which antibiotic may be given as a single dose for UTI?
Fosfomycin
40
Adverse effects of vanco
Red man syndrome, nephrotoxic
41
Which antibiotic is inactivated by lung surfactant?
Daptomycin
42
AE of linezolid?
Serotonin syndrome
43
AE of synercid?
arthalgias/myalgias
44
Symptoms of otitis media
Rapid onset otalgia, fever, dizziness, hearing loss, stiff neck, blood or purulent secretions
45
Most common otitis media pathogens
S. pneumoniae, H. influenzia, Moraxella catarrhalis, S. pyogenes
46
For otitis media, which age group ALWAYS gets antibiotics?
2 months-6 months
47
A 3 year old has certain otitis media. Should she get an antibiotic?
Only if it is severe.
48
What is the recommended treatment for otitis media/
Amoxicillin or Amoxicillin/clavulanate
49
Duration of otitis media treatment?
< 2 y/o (10 days), 2-5 y/o (5 days), > 6 y/o (5-7 days)
50
When is a UTI uncomplicated?
When it is a female aged 15-45 with no structural or functional abnormalities
51
Which drugs are preferred for uncomplicated UTI?
Bactrim DS 1 BID x14, | Cipro 500 BID x 7, Levo 750 QD x 5
52
SIRS criteria
temp >38 (100) or < 36 (96.8), HR > 90, RR > 20 (or PaCo2 < 32 torr), WBC > 12 or 10% bands)
53
Recommended treatment duration for cellulitis?
5 days (if improvement)
54
inpatient criteria for diabetic foot infection
severe, or mild with PAD, or poor support at home. Unable to comply with outpatient treatment, failure to improve in outpatient setting.
55
When do you cover for MRSA in diabetic foot infection?
History of MRSA in past year, local prevalance is high, infection sufficiently severe enough that failing to empirically cover MRSA would be an unacceptable risk.
56
When do you cover for pseudomonas in diabetic foot infection?
Severe infection, feet soaking history, warm climate countries, previously failed therapy with an antipsuedomonal therapy.
57
Which antibiotics should be used for mild DFI without risk of MRSA?
Clindamycin, Cephalexin, Levofloxacin
58
Which antibiotics should be used in mild DFI with possibility of MRSA?
Doxy, Sulfatrim
59
Which antibiotic for moderate or severe Non-MRSA DFI?
ampicillin-sulbactam, ertapenem, imipenem-cilastin
60
moderate to severe DFI with MRSA risk?
Vanco
61
Moderate to severe MRSA with pseudomonas risk?
Pip/tazo
62
moderate to severe with MRSA and pseudomonas risk?
Carbapenem
63
antibiotic duration in DFI
1-4 weeks depending on severity.

Capstone Exam 4 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions