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Infectious Disease > ID(F) > Flashcards

ID(F) Flashcards

1
Q

Med Intel Brief sources

A

CDC
WHO

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2
Q

Carrier

A

person or animal that harbors ID but does not demonstrate sx

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3
Q

Contact

A

exposure to a source of infection

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4
Q

Contagious

A

capable of being transmited

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5
Q

Host

A

an organism that harbors parasitic, mutualistic, or comemensalist guest

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6
Q

Parasite

A

organism that lives on ir in a host and gets its food from or at expense of the host

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7
Q

Pathogen

A

an infectious agent or organism

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8
Q

Infection

A

invasion of the body tissues of a host by an infectious agent

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9
Q

Portal of Entry

A

a pathway inot the host that gives an aggest access to tissue

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10
Q

Reservoir

A

area in which infectious pathogen natrurally lives and reproduces

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11
Q

Zoonosis

A

transmissible from non-humans to humans

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12
Q

Epidemic

A

an increase in number of cases of disease specific to an area

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13
Q

Pandemic

A

occurring over a widespread area

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14
Q

Arbovirus

A

arthropod-borne virus

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15
Q

Immunity, active

A

resistance developed to an antigen

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16
Q

Immunity, passive

A

transfer of active immunity produced from another host (short term)

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17
Q

Immunity, herd

A

majority of a group is restitant or immune to a pathogen

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18
Q

Incubation period

A

timet interval from being infected to symptoms

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19
Q

Latency Period

A

time interval from of being infected to infetiousness

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20
Q

Subclinical infection

A

an infection that is nearly or completely asymptomatic

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21
Q

Syndrome

A

combination of symptoms characterisitc of disease or condition

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22
Q

Indirect contact

A

transmission occurs when there is no direct human-human contact

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23
Q

Prodrome

A

indicate the onset of a disease

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24
Q

First medical condition to have a developed prodrome

A

schizophrenia

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25
Q

3 classes of human parasites

A

protozoa
helminths
ectoparasites

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26
Q

Are parasitic infections reporatble?

A

yes

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27
Q

Srcodina

A

the ameba

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28
Q

Parasite transmission

A

protozoa harbor in GI and are transmitted fecal-oral routes

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29
Q

Mastigophora

A

flagellates

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30
Q

Ciliophora

A

the cilates

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31
Q

Sporozoa

A

non motile adult stage organism

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32
Q

Leading cause of waterborne disease in the US

A

cryptosporidium

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33
Q

Helminth

A

large multicellular organism visible to the naked eye; invades GI

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34
Q

Platyhelminth

A

flatworm

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35
Q

Acanthocephalins

A

thorny-headed worm

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36
Q

Nematode

A

roundworms

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37
Q

Roundworm types

A

ascaris
hookworms

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38
Q

Ectoparasites (4)

A

flea, tick, lice, mite

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39
Q

Parasitic Infection Lab/Studies

A

fecal exam
endo/colonoscopy
blood test
XRAY/MRI

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40
Q

West Nile Virus incubation period

A

2-6 days

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41
Q

Leading cause of domestically acquired arboviral disease

A

West Nile Virus

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42
Q

West Nile Virus Transmitted by

A

culex mosquito; blood transfusion

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43
Q

Where do Culex mosquitos contract West Nile Virus?

A

birds

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44
Q

WNV presentation

A

80% asymptomatic; fever; neurologic illness; headache; weakness; rash; GI sx

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45
Q

Neuroinvasive WNV types

A

meningitis or encephalitis

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46
Q

WNV labs (2)

A

ELISA for IgM
CSF

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47
Q

WNV tx

A

symptomatic
MEDEVAC if neurological

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48
Q

Malaria caused by

A

female anopheles mosquito

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49
Q

Falciparum is what phase of malaria?

A

blood

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50
Q

Malaria incubation period

A

7-30 days

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51
Q

Lethal Malaria

A

Falciparum

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52
Q

Malaria sx

A

cyclic fevers*
flu-like symptoms
jaundice
anemia

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53
Q

Paroxysmal fever cycle

A

cold stage 1 hr
febrile stage 2-6 hr
diaphoretic stage 2-4 hr
cycle lasts 48-72 hr

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54
Q

Two Malaria treatment regimens in US (2)

A

Malarone
Coartem

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55
Q

Mosquitos not found above what elevation

A

6k ft

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56
Q

Uncomplicated Malaria tx

A

chloroquine phosphate 1g PO
.5g 6 hours later
.5g daily next two days

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57
Q

Chloroquine Resistant Malaria tx

A

Malarone 4 tabs PO QD3

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58
Q

Severe Malaria tx

A

Artesunate 2.4mg IV
Doxy 100mg

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59
Q

Malaria P.ovale tx

A

Primaquine 52.6mg (14 days)

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60
Q

Malaria propholylaxis (4)

A

doxy
mefloquine
malarone
primaquine

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61
Q

Dengue fever aka

A

Breakbone Fever

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62
Q

Dengue fever prevelant area

A

tropic/subtropic

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63
Q

Dengue fever transmission

A

Aedes aegypti; mother to child; blood transfusion

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64
Q

Dengue Fever sx

A

75% asymptomatic;
fever fatigue and malaise
muscle, joint, bone pain
hemorrhagic manifestations
DIC like sx

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65
Q

Dengue fever 3 phass

A

febrile
critical
convalescent

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66
Q

Tourniquet test

A

inflate BP cuff to median pressure for 90-120 sec
20+ petechia per square inch is positive for dengue

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67
Q

Dengue shock syndrome

A

hypotension and shock despite tx

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68
Q

Tick borne illnesses

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Lyme

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69
Q

RMSF scientific name

A

Rickettsia

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70
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever most common location

A

Appalachian mountains

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71
Q

RMSF most common cause

A

hiking, camping

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72
Q

RMSF incubation

A

2-14 days

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73
Q

RMSF symptoms

A

fever
GI
myalgias
rash around eyes and hands

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74
Q

RMSF tx

A

Doxy

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75
Q

RMSF tick

A

American Dog (East coast)
Brown Dog (everywhere else)

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76
Q

Lyme Disease Tick

A

Ixodes blacklegged tick

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77
Q

Lyme disease hallmark

A

bullseye rash/target lesion

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78
Q

3 stages of Lyme Disease

A

Early
Acute Disseminated
Late

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79
Q

Most common affected joints of Lyme Disease

A

knees

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80
Q

Lyme Disease tx

A

Doxy BID 14 days for early and Disseminated
28 days for late

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81
Q

Late Lyme Disease hallmark

A

arthritis

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82
Q

Lyme disease precatuions

A

Doxy 200mg PO daily
protective clothing
Tick checks Q12
DEET

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83
Q

Early/Disseminated Lyme Disease dispostion

A

MEDADVICE

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84
Q

Leishmaniasis caused by what organism

A

L. Tropica

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85
Q

2 subtypes of Leishmaniasis

A

New World and Old World

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86
Q

Leishmaniasis sx

A

non healing pruritic lesion
painless
sand flea bite

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87
Q

Leishmaniasis tx

A

debridement
cleaning
bandage/wrap

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88
Q

Leishmaniasis med (3)

A

oral antifungals
“amphotericin b deoxycholate”
antimonial

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89
Q

Osteomyelitis 2 types

A

MRSA and MSSA

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90
Q

2 MRSA types

A

CA (community) and HA (hospital)

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91
Q

MRSA labs/diagnostics

A

Wound Culture
US

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92
Q

MRSA medications

A

Septra (Bactrim)
Doxy
Clindamycin

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93
Q

MRSA tx

A

I&D
irrigation
do no suture

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94
Q

Fight bite tx

A

control bleed
clean wound
do not close
antibiotics
bandage
24h f/u
IMZ

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95
Q

Clenched Fist Injury aka

A

Fight Bite

96
Q

Tetanus booster following injury

A

if longer than 5 years ago
if unkown
if less than 3 doses recieved

97
Q

Avoid what antibiotics in human bites

A

keflex
dicloxacillin
Macrolides (-mycin)

98
Q

Human Bite dispositions

A

MEDADVICE unless neurovascular or avulsion

99
Q

Most common cause of OM in young adults

A

trauma

100
Q

Most common cause of OM in older adults

A

contagious spread of infection from adjacent tissue

101
Q

2 pillars of OM tx

A

surgical containment
antibiotic therapy

102
Q

Tetanus scientific name

A

Clostridium Tetani

103
Q

Fatal component of tetanus

A

exotoxin-mediated

104
Q

Minimum lethal dose of tetanus

A

2.5 nanograms per KG

105
Q

Tetanus antibiotics

A

Metronidazole IV
Pen G IV

106
Q

Neutralization of unbound tetanus toxin

A

TIG
HTIG
500 units in different location than Tetanus Immunization

107
Q

Dengue Fever, fever type

A

Saddle back

108
Q

Meningitis bacterial causes (6)

A

strep pneumonia
group b strep
meningitidis
influenza
e. coli
listeria

109
Q

Meningitis viral causes (7)

A

entero virus
coxsack
echo
WNV
influenza
Epstein Barr
HSV

110
Q

Classic Menigeal Tetrad

A

fever
nuchal rigidity
AMS
severe headache

111
Q

How to determine meningitis type?

A

CSF

112
Q

Meningitis antibiotics

A

Ceftriaxone 2G IV Q12h
or
PEN-G 4 mu IV Q4h

113
Q

Meningitis steroid

A

Dexamethasone 4mg IV

114
Q

Meningitis chemoprophylaxis

A

Ceftiraxone 250mg IM one time
Cipro 500mg PO one time

115
Q

Mono sx

A

malaise
fever
cervical lymphadenopathy
spleen enlargement
rash

116
Q

Mono tx

A

symptomatic

117
Q

Rabies organism type

A

Rhabdoviridae

118
Q

Aerophobia

A

phalangeal muscle spasm triggered by feeling of air

119
Q

Rabies post exposure prophylaxis (unvaccinated)

A

wound cleansing
RIG
vaccine 4 shots (0,3,7,21)

120
Q

Rabies post exposure prophylaxis (vaccinated)

A

wound cleansing
vaccine 2 shots (0,3)

121
Q

Diarrhea

A

3 or more loose/watery stools within 24 hours

122
Q

Acute Diarrhea

A

<14 days

123
Q

Persistent Diarrhea

A

14-30 days

124
Q

Chronic Diarrhea

A

> 30 days

125
Q

Mild diarrhea

A

tolerable/ non distressing

126
Q

Moderate diarrhea

A

distressing and interferes with daily life

127
Q

Severe diarrhea

A

incapacitating

128
Q

Most effective prevention of diarrhea

A

hand washing

129
Q

Diarrhea viral causes

A

norovirus
rotavirus

130
Q

Diarrhea bacterial causes

A

E.coli
Shigella
Salmonella
Bacterial toxin releasing

131
Q

Diarrhea protozoal causes

A

giardia
entamoeba

132
Q

Campylobacter hallmark

A

frequent bloody bowel movements 10x a day

133
Q

Giardia hallmark

A

foul-smelling, greasy diarrhea

134
Q

Giardia tx

A

Flagyl aka Metronidazole

135
Q

Campylobacter incubation

A

2-5 days

136
Q

Typhoid diarrhea hallmark

A

pea soup

137
Q

E. coli incubation

A

3-4 days

138
Q

2 E. Coli types

A

ETEC (travelers/non-inflammatory)
EHEC (inflammatory)

139
Q

Mild Diarrhea tx

A

Loperamide
Oral rehydration
ODT

140
Q

Moderate Diarrhea tx

A

Loperamide
Oral Rehydration
ODT
Azithromycin or Cipro

141
Q

Severe Diarrhea tx

A

Loperamide
Oral Rehydration
Azithromycin or Cipro
IV LR with Ondansetron

142
Q

Vibrio associated with

A

salt water

143
Q

When to consider MEDADVICE or MEDEVAC diarrhea

A

fever >103F
positive hemoccult
inability to rehydrate
multiple patients

144
Q

Tetanus incubation

A

10-21 days

145
Q

Lyme’s disease incubation

A

3-30 days

146
Q

Rabies incubation

A

1-3 months

147
Q

Isolation for asymptomatic rabies patients

A

10-14 days

148
Q

Leshminiasis incubation period

A

2 weeks to several months

149
Q

Mono incubation period

A

4-6 weeks

150
Q

Influenza types affecting humans

A

A/B

151
Q

Influenza highest infectiousness

A

within 3 days of onset

152
Q

Influenza 2 structures

A

Hemagglutinin (H1, H2, H3)
Neuraminidase (N1 and N2)

153
Q

Flu sx

A

constitutional symptoms
non productive cough
sore throat
substernal soreness
rales

154
Q

Influenza resolves within

A

1-7 days

155
Q

Influenza antiviral

A

Oseltamivir 75mg BID x5 days

156
Q

Tuberculosis bacteria shape

A

rod

157
Q

TB incubation

A

3-12 weeks

158
Q

Leading cause of infectious death world wide

A

TB

159
Q

TB vaccine

A

Bacille Calmette-Guerin

160
Q

TB diagnosis capability on ship

A

TST

161
Q

GHON focus

A

TB lesion/granuloma

162
Q

GHON complex

A

affected area of lower region of lung

163
Q

TB Exposure Risk Assessment

A

NAVMED 6224/7

164
Q

LTBI meds

A

INH/Rifampin

165
Q

TB monthly evaluation form

A

6224/9

166
Q

TB latency

A

10-60 years

167
Q

Gold standard for confirmatory TB diagnosis

A

sputum test

168
Q

Anthrax bacteria

A

bacillus anthracis

169
Q

Anthrax incubation

A

1-7 days

170
Q

4 presentations of anthrax

A

cutaneous
ingestion
injection
inhalation

171
Q

Cutaneous Anthrax hallmark

A

Eschar with edema

172
Q

Anthrax antiobiotics

A

Cipro
Doxy
Levo

173
Q

Anthrax initial presentation

A

small painless papule progresses to bulla; bulla progresses to eschar

174
Q

Most reported STI

A

chlamydia

175
Q

Chlamydia- Gonorrhea co-infection rate

A

50%

176
Q

Gold Standard Chlamydial test

A

NAAT

177
Q

Chlamydia tx

A

Doxy
Azithromycin

178
Q

Reiter’s syndrome

A

arthritis
conjunctivitis
urethritis

179
Q

Recommended chlamydia retest

A

3 months

180
Q

Gonorrhea oragism

A

gram-negative diplococci bacteria

181
Q

Gonorrhea scientific name

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

182
Q

Gonorrhea incubation

A

1-14 days

183
Q

Gonorrhea test

A

NAAT

184
Q

Gonorrhea tx

A

Ceftriaxone IM
Doxy PO
Azithromycin PO

185
Q

Syphilis scientific name

A

treponema pallidum

186
Q

Syphilis incubation

A

10-90 days; average is 21

187
Q

Primary Syphilis hallmark

A

painless chancre

188
Q

Secondary Syphilis hallmark

A

skin rashes around mucous membranes, trunk, palms, and soles

189
Q

Latent Syphilis

A

no visible signs or symptoms

190
Q

Tertiary Syphilis sx

A

Aortitis
Neurosyphilis
Gummatous syphilis

191
Q

Syphilis tests

A

RPR
Fat-abs**

192
Q

Syphilis tx

A

Penicillin G/ Bicillin

193
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

acute febrile reaction to syphilis tx with headache and rigors

194
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction tx

A

Tylenol or NSAIDs; self-resolves in 12 hours

195
Q

Trich caused by what protozoa

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

196
Q

Most common protzoal STI

A

trichomonas

197
Q

Thricomonas infects what

A

squamous epitheliam in urogenital tract; strawberry cervix is hallmark

198
Q

Thrichomonas sx

A

itching, pain, discharge

199
Q

Trich labs

A

wet mount
NAAT

200
Q

NAAT

A

nucleic acid amplification test

201
Q

Trich tx

A

Metronidazole

202
Q

Hep A transmission

A

Transmitted through consumption of contaminated water or
food, and fecal-oral route to include certain sex practices

203
Q

Hep B transmission

A

Transmitted through exposure to infective blood, semen,
body fluids, contaminated blood products, and IV drug use

204
Q

Hep C transmission

A

Transmitted through exposure to infective blood, HCV
contaminated blood & blood products, and IV drug use.
Sexual transmission is possible but less common

205
Q

Hepatitis type without vaccine

A

C

206
Q

Which vaccine provides protection from Hep D

A

Hep B

207
Q

Hep E transmission

A

contaminated water or food

208
Q

Hepatitis presentation

A

Fatigue, fever, muscle/joint pains, runny nose, pharyngitis,
abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, anorexia

209
Q

What develops within 1-3 weeks of Hepatitis

A

RUQ px and jaundice

210
Q

Hepatitis tx

A

symptomatic/MEDEVAC/SIQ

211
Q

Hepatitis prevention

A

condoms and vaccination

212
Q

Most common viral STI

A

HPV

213
Q

Is HPV reportable

A

no

214
Q

Genital Wart low-risk cancer types

A

6 &11

215
Q

HPV tx

A

cryo
imiquimod
podophyllotoxin solution

216
Q

HPV vaccine age

A

11-26

217
Q

Genital Wart high-risk cancer types

A

16 & 18

218
Q

Genital warts aka

A

condyloma acuminata

219
Q

HIV incubation

A

2-4 weeks

220
Q

Acute phase of HIV

A

acute retroviral syndrome

221
Q

ARS sx

A

rash, fever, pain

222
Q

HIV prophylaxis post-exposure types

A

nPEP (non-occupational)
PEP (occupational)

223
Q

HIV tx

A

Medadvice/Medevac
Antiretroviral medication

224
Q

HIV instruction

A

DODI 6485.01

225
Q

Most accurate HIV test

A

4th Gen

226
Q

Avoid what drugs in dengue

A

NSAID/Aspirin

227
Q

Oral med for leishmaniasis

A

oral -azoles

228
Q

Most common viral diarrhea

A

norovirus

229
Q

Most common bacterial diarrhea

A

campylobacter (most common overall)

230
Q

Most common parasitic diarrhea

A

giardia

231
Q

Malaria confirmatory lab

A

blood smear

232
Q

Leishmaniasis disposition

A

MEDEVAC

233
Q

IV antibiotic for OM

A

Vancomycin or Ceftriaxone

234
Q

Tetanus booster following injury

A

if longer than 5 years ago
if unknown
if less than 3 doses received

235
Q

Causative agent of chlamydia

A

chlamydia trachomatous

235
Q

Causative agent of chlamydia

A

chlamydia trachomatous

236
Q

Causative agent of chlamydia

A

chlamydia trachomatous

Infectious Disease (1 decks)

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