ID Flashcards

1
Q

slapped cheek rash

A

parvovirus

can cause fetal hydrops

asymptomatic
pancytopaenia in immunosuppressed patients
aplastic crises e.g. in sickle-cell disease (parvovirus B19 suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week so aplastic anaemia is rare unless there is a chronic haemolytic anaemia)

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2
Q

trypanosomiasis

A

african sleeping sickness

Trypanosoma chancre - painless subcutaneous nodule at site of infection
intermittent fever
enlargement of posterior cervical lymph nodes
later: central nervous system involvement e.g. somnolence, headaches, mood changes, meningoencephalitis

Management
early disease: IV pentamidine or suramin
later disease or central nervous system involvement: IV melarsoprol

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3
Q

lyme disease treatment

A

doxycycline 14-21 days

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4
Q

malaria Rx

A

Uncomplicated falciparum malaria
strains resistant to chloroquine are prevalent in certain areas of Asia and Africa
the 2010 WHO guidelines recommend artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) as first-line therapy
examples include artemether plus lumefantrine, artesunate plus amodiaquine, artesunate plus mefloquine, artesunate plus sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine, dihydroartemisinin plus piperaquine

Severe falciparum malaria
a parasite counts of more than 2% will usually need parenteral treatment irrespective of clinical state
intravenous artesunate is now recommended by WHO in preference to intravenous quinine
if parasite count > 10% then exchange transfusion should be considered
shock may indicate coexistent bacterial septicaemia - malaria rarely causes haemodynamic collapse

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5
Q

viral meningitis low glucose

A

mumps

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6
Q

chlamydia Rx

pregnant vs non pregnant

A

doxycycline (7 day course) or azithromycin (single dose). The 2009 SIGN guidelines suggest azithromycin should be used first-line due to potentially poor compliance with a 7 day course of doxycycline

if pregnant then azithromycin, erythromycin or amoxicillin may be used.

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7
Q

breastfeeding in HIV

A

no

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8
Q

endocarditis with -ve blood cultures

A

coxiella burnetti

Q fever is caused by Coxiella burnetii, a rickettsia. The source of infection is typically an abattoir, cattle/sheep or it may be inhaled from infected dust

typically prodrome: fever, malaise
causes pyrexia of unknown origin, atypical pneumonia, endocarditis (culture-negative)

Rx - doxycycline

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9
Q

Lyme disease Ix

A

NICE recommend that Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically if erythema migrans is present
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi are the first-line test
if this test is positive or equivocal then an immunoblot test for Lyme disease should be done

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10
Q

Mycobacterium avium

A

Prophylaxis
clarithromycin or azithromycin when CD4 is less than 100 cells/mm³

Management
rifampicin + ethambutol + clarithromycin

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11
Q

mycobacterium features and diagnosis

A
Features
fever, sweats
abdominal: pain, diarrhoea
lung: dyspnoea, cough
anaemia
lymphadenopathy
hepatomegaly/deranged LFTs

Diagnosis
blood cultures
bone marrow aspirate

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12
Q

Amphotericin B

Used for systemic fungal infections

A

Binds with ergosterol forming a transmembrane channel that leads to monovalent ion (K+, Na+, H+ and Cl) leakage

Nephrotoxicity, flu-like symptoms, hypokalaemia, hypomagnaseamia

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13
Q

primary and secondary syphyllis features

spirochaete Treponema pallidum

A

Primary features
chancre - painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact
local non-tender lymphadenopathy
often not seen in women (the lesion may be on the cervix)

Secondary features - occurs 6-10 weeks after primary infection
systemic symptoms: fevers, lymphadenopathy
rash on trunk, palms and soles
buccal ‘snail track’ ulcers (30%)
condylomata lata (painless, warty lesions on the genitalia )

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14
Q

Therefore, only a small list of Gram-positive rods (bacilli) need to be memorised to categorise all bacteria - mnemonic = ABCD L

A
Actinomyces
Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
Clostridium
Diphtheria: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Listeria monocytogenes
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15
Q

diarrhoea after reheating rice

A

bacillus cereus

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16
Q

chlamydia causes which skin condition

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.

Typically infection comprises of three stages
stage 1: small painless pustule which later forms an ulcer
stage 2: painful inguinal lymphadenopathy
stage 3: proctocolitis

LGV is treated using doxycycline.

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17
Q

cellulitis Rx

A

Flucloxacillin 1st line
Clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy) or doxycyline is recommended in patients allergic to penicillin.

NICE recommend that patients severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin or ceftriaxone.

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18
Q

Pneumocystis jiroveci Rx

A

co-trimoxazole

IV pentamidine in severe cases

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19
Q

Lyme disease with disseminated or central nervous system involvement

A

IV ceftriaxone

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20
Q

painful genital ulcers

A

herpes

consider behcets

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21
Q

cerebral toxoplasmosis

A

ring enhancing lesions on CT

Treatment is usually reserved for those with severe infections or patients who are immunosuppressed
pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine for at least 6 weeks

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22
Q

contact to meningitis

A
oral ciprofloxacin (or rifampicin)
meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available, including booster doses to those who had the vaccine in infancy

pneumococcal meningitis, no prophylaxis is generally needed

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23
Q

Primaquine

A

non-falciparum malaria to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse

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24
Q

non falciparum malaria Rx

A

Treatment
in areas which are known to be chloroquine-sensitive then WHO recommend either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine
in areas which are known to be chloroquine-resistant an ACT should be used
ACTs should be avoided in pregnant women
patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse

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25
Q

latent tuberculosis Rx

A

3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin OR 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

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26
Q

PCP bronchoalveolar lavage

A

silver stain shows cysts

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27
Q

flu like illness → brief remission→ followed by jaundice and haematemesis

A

Yellow fever

Type of viral haemorrhagic fever (also dengue fever, Lassa fever, Ebola).

Basics
zoonotic infection: spread by Aedes mosquitos
incubation period = 2 - 14 days

Features
may cause mild flu-like illness lasting less than one week
classic description involves sudden onset of high fever, rigors, nausea & vomiting. Bradycardia may develop. A brief remission is followed by jaundice, haematemesis, oliguria
if severe jaundice, haematemesis may occur
Councilman bodies (inclusion bodies) may be seen in the hepatocytes

28
Q

syphillis Ix

A
Serological tests can be divided into:
cardiolipin tests (not treponeme specific)
treponemal-specific antibody tests

Cardiolipin tests
syphilis infection leads to the production of non-specific antibodies that react to cardiolipin
examples include VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) & RPR (rapid plasma reagin)
insensitive in late syphilis
becomes negative after treatment

Treponemal specific antibody tests
example: TPHA (Treponema pallidum HaemAgglutination test)
remains positive after treatment

29
Q

tetanus vaccine

A

Intramuscular human tetanus immunoglobulin should be given to patients with high-risk wounds (e.g. Compound fractures, delayed surgical intervention, significant degree of devitalised tissue) irrespective of whether 5 doses of tetanus vaccine have previously been given

If vaccination history is incomplete or unknown then a dose of tetanus vaccine should be given combined with intramuscular human tetanus immunoglobulin for high-risk wounds

30
Q

severe hepatitis in pregnancy

A

hepatitis E

RNA hepevirus
spread by the faecal-oral route
incubation period: 3-8 weeks
common in Central and South-East Asia, North and West Africa, and in Mexico
causes a similar disease to hepatitis A, but carries a significant mortality (about 20%) during pregnancy
does not cause chronic disease or an increased risk of hepatocellular cancer
a vaccine is currently in development*, but is not yet in widespread use

31
Q

widespread demyelination
due to infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus (a polyoma DNA virus)
symptoms, subacute onset : behavioural changes, speech, motor, visual impairment
CT: single or multiple lesions, no mass effect, don’t usually enhance. MRI is better - high-signal demyelinating white matter lesions are seen

A

progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy in HIV

32
Q

rabbit bite

A

Tularaemia is a zoonotic infection involving the microorganism F. tularensis commonly transmitted through lagomorphs such as rabbits, hares and pikas but also in aquatic rodents - beavers and muskrat - and ticks. It can present in a variety of forms. Commonly, it produces an erythematous papulo-ulcerative lesion at the site of the bite with reactive and ulcerating regional lymphadenopathy. It is treated with antibiotics such as doxycycline.

33
Q

EBV malignancies

A

hodgkins lympoma
burkitt’s lymphoma
nasopharyngael carcinoma

34
Q

Aciclovir MOA

A

guanosine analog, phosphorylated by thymidine kinase which in turn inhibits the viral DNA polymerase

35
Q

Lassa fever

A

from rodent excrement

no specific sx
sometimes viral haemorrhagic fever

36
Q

genital warts Rx

A

Management
topical podophyllum or cryotherapy are commonly used as first-line treatments depending on the location and type of lesion. Multiple, non-keratinised warts are generally best treated with topical agents whereas solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy

imiquimod is a topical cream which is generally used second line

genital warts are often resistant to treatment and recurrence is common although the majority of anogenital infections with HPV clear without intervention within 1-2 years

37
Q

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

A

a neuraminidase inhibitor which prevents new viral particles from being released by infected cells

38
Q

Cat scratch disease

A

bartonella henselae

39
Q

animal bite most common organism

A

Pasteurella multocida

40
Q

dengue transmitted by

A

Aedes aegypti mosquito

41
Q

desaturation on exercise

A

PCP

42
Q

peritonsillar abscesses can develop

A

Lemierre’s syndrome (thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein)- this can present with neck pain and can result in septic pulmonary embolism.

43
Q

group A strep (pyogenes)

A

erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, type 2 necrotizing fasciitis and pharyngitis/tonsillitis
immunological reactions can cause rheumatic fever or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
erythrogenic toxins cause scarlet fever

44
Q

false positive VDRL/RPR (syphillis

A
SLE
Tuberculosis
Malaria 
HIV
SomeTimes Mistakes Happen
45
Q

LP lymphocytes

A

viral or TB

TB more insidious

46
Q

long incubation, non bloody diarrhoea

A

giardia

Rx metronidazole

47
Q

HIV test

A

HIV antibody test
most common and accurate test
usually consists of both a screening ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay) test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay
most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks but 99% do by 3 months

p24 antigen test
usually positive from about 1 week to 3 - 4 weeks after infection with HIV
sometimes used as an additional screening test in blood banks

48
Q

URTI + amoxicillin > Rash

A

?glandular fever

49
Q

severe malaria

A

parasitaemia >2%

50
Q

Schistosomiasis

A

swimmer’s itch’ in patients who have recently returned from Africa. Schistosoma haematobium is a risk factor for squamous cell bladder cancer.

frequency
haematuria
bladder calcification

Management
single oral dose of praziquantel

51
Q

Chikungunya

A

flu like Sx
joint pain
rash

52
Q

genital wart Rx

A

multiple, non-keratinised warts: topical podophyllum

solitary, keratinised warts: cryotherapy

53
Q

Chagas’ disease

A

Which celebrity is most likely to Chug ass, Tom cruise

Trypanosoma cruzi

Management
treatment is most effective in the acute phase using azole or nitroderivatives such as benznidazole or nifurtimox
chronic disease management involves treating the complications e.g., heart failure

(95%) are asymptomatic in the acute phase although a chagoma (an erythematous nodule at site of infection) and periorbital oedema are sometimes seen. Chronic Chagas’ disease mainly affects the heart and gastrointestinal tract
myocarditis may lead to dilated cardiomyopathy (with apical atophy) and arrhythmias
gastrointestinal features includes megaoesophagus and megacolon causing dysphagia and constipation

54
Q

Toxocara canis

A

commonly acquired by ingesting eggs from soil contaminated by dog faeces
commonest cause of visceral larva migrans
other features: eye granulomas, liver/lung involvement

55
Q

Strongyloides stercoralis

A

acquired percutaneously (e.g. walking barefoot)
causes pruritus and larva currens - this has a similar appearance to cutaneous larva migrans but moves through the skin at a far greater rate
abdo pain, diarrhoea, pneumonitis
may cause Gram negative septicaemia due carrying of bacteria into bloodstream
eosinophilia sometimes seen
management: thiabendazole, albendazole. Ivermectin also used, particularly in chronic infections

56
Q

meningococcal meningitis Rx

A

IV benpen or cefotaxime

IV chloramphenicol if penallergic

57
Q

tetracycline (doxy)

A

photosensitive rash

can treat acne vulgaris

58
Q
Protease inhibitors (PI)
examples: indinavir, nelfinavir, ritonavir, saquinavir
A

side-effects: diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, buffalo hump, central obesity, P450 enzyme inhibition

indinavir: renal stones, asymptomatic hyperbilirubinaemia
ritonavir: a potent inhibitor of the P450 system

59
Q

Amantadine - MOA

A

inhibits uncoating (M2 protein) of virus in cell. Also releases dopamine from nerve endings

60
Q

leptospirosis

A
Features
fever
flu-like symptoms
renal failure (seen in 50% of patients)
jaundice
subconjunctival haemorrhage
headache, may herald the onset of meningitis

Management
high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline

61
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

Syphyllis post IM benpen

fever, rash, tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic
in contrast to anaphylaxis, there is no wheeze or hypotension
it is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment
No treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required

62
Q

amoeba Ix

A

hot stool sample - stops cysts

(a stool examined within 15 minutes of passage, or kept warm) is required to make a microscopic diagnosis of intestinal amoebiasis as once cooled Entamoeba histolytic returns to its cystic state and becomes indistinguishable from the non-pathogen Entamoeba dispar

63
Q

gram -ve cocci

A

Neisseria meningitidis + Neisseria gonorrhoeae, also Moraxella catarrhalis

64
Q

returning malaise and flu like Sx in traveller

raised ALT, throbocytopenia

A

dengue

65
Q

Ribavirin - MOA

A

guanosine analog which inhibits inosine monophosphate (IMP) dehydrogenase, interferes with the capping of viral mRNA

66
Q

rapid onset
high fever
pleuritic chest pain
herpes labialis

A

strep pneumonia