ID Flashcards

0
Q

In a sexually active teen with a swollen knee, is there a infectious pathology to consider?

A

Gonorrhea.

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1
Q

Pt with GI symptoms with fever, jaundice and recent travel.

A

Hepatitis A

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2
Q

Of the top 5 bacterial infections that cause UTI, which causes nitrite to turn negative?

A

Staph saprophyticus

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3
Q

During an outbreak of the flu, what interventions would be necessary for all your unvaccinated, frail nursing home patients who have no symptoms of febrile respiratory illness?”

A

“Antiviral prophylaxis with oseltamivir Influenza immunization” “Persons at high risk for complications of influenza can still be vaccinated after an outbreak of influenza has begun in the community, but development of antibodies in adults can take up to 2 weeks. Thus, chemoprophylaxis should be considered for persons at high risk during the time from vaccination until immunity has developed. Oseltamivir alone might be appropriate for individuals who have a contraindication to vaccination and wish to protect themselves from influenza” Amantidine resistance has developed for influenza A and it doesn’t work on B.

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4
Q

What are the recommendations for antiviral drugs to the treat flu infection in outpatients? And inpatients?

A

“Persons at high risk for complications of influenza can still be vaccinated after an outbreak of influenza has begun in the community, but development of antibodies in adults can take up to 2 weeks. Thus, chemoprophylaxis should be considered for persons at high risk during the time from vaccination until immunity has developed. “A” alone might be appropriate for individuals who have a contraindication to vaccination and wish to protect themselves from influenza”

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5
Q

Who should receive the pneumococcal vaccination?

A

“Pneumococcal vaccine: Indications for pneumococcal vaccination include patients with chronic illness at high risk for invasive pneumococcal disease (e.g., diabetes, chronic pulmonary disease, and cardiovascular disease), institutionalization, age 65 or older, immunocompromised state, and tobacco use. Note that the tobacco use indication is relatively recent and applies to all patients age 19-64years old. Patients with an immunosuppressive disorder (e.g., HIV, asplenia, renal failure, and organ transplant) should have a one-time revaccination at least 5 years after initial vaccination”

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6
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in hospitalized patients?

A

“C. difficile is the most common bacterial cause of infectious diarrhea in hospitalized patients in the United States (Campylobacter jejuni is the most common bacterial cause overall). The antibiotics most commonly associated with C. difficile diarrhea are clindamycin, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum cephalosporins. The assay for C. difficile cytotoxin is only about 75% sensitivity (enzyme immunoassay). There are several subtypes of toxin, some of which are not detected by this assay. Although symptomatic therapy is important, antiperistaltic agents should be avoided in patients with C. difficile. Although other causes of diarrhea are possible, the most cost-effective approach in this patient would be stool assay for C. difficile repeated on two to three specimens (to improve sensitivity) prior to any other more invasive procedure”

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7
Q

What is the treatment of c. Dificile colitis?

A

“Treatment includes supportive care, discontinuation of the offending antimicrobial agent, and initiation of oral metronidazole 250 mg four times daily or 500 mg three times for 10 days. Metronidazole is preferred over vancomycin because of the nearly identical efficacy and relapse/reinfection rates, lower cost, and lower theoretical risk of promotion of vancomycinresistant Enterococcus faecalis (VRE). Consider vancomycin first line if the patient has severe disease (white blood cell (WBC) >15,000, creatinine >1.5x baseline). Dificid (fidaxomicin) has recently been approved for C. difficile colitis. However, the NNT = 10 to prevent one recurrence. It is certainly NOT first (or even second) line.
Risk”

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8
Q

Name for risk factors for c. diff colitis in nursing home patients?

A

“Risk factors for acquisition of C. difficile infection in nursing home patients are similar to that of hospitalized patients and include hospitalization, advanced age, GI surgery/procedures and antibiotic exposure and, importantly PPI use.”

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9
Q

What are the treatments for C. diff colitis?

A

PO vancomycin for metronidazole tid. Rehearse with in one week is common and happens in about 20% of patients. Repeating the vancomycin metronidazole treatment for 10 more days is a common treatment for recurrence. “C. difficile diarrhea and colitis can be caused by any antibiotic, including metronidazole and vancomycin. The probability of diarrhea seems highest with clindamycin. Fluoroquinolones are increasingly associated with C. difficile infection, including a highly toxigenic strain. Simply stopping the antibiotic can lead to resolution in 25% of the cases.” “IV vancomycin is ineffective treatment of C. difficile since vancomycin does not enter into the GI tract from the vascular space.”

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10
Q

For a patient with new onset headache and meningeal signs, when should you perform a lumbar puncture?

A

“Once you suspect bacterial meningitis, rapid diagnostic evaluation and emergent treatment are imperative, including lumbar puncture and blood cultures. If lumbar puncture is going to be delayed, then appropriate empiric antimicrobial and adjunctive therapy should be given without delay. Head CT is necessary only in those who are immunocompromised (HIV/AIDS, those receiving immunosuppressive drugs, transplant recipients), have a history of CNS disease (brain tumor and stroke), develop new onset seizures, display papilledema on exam, or who have an abnormal/focal neurologic deficit or abnormal level of consciousness. Antibiotics for a 40-year-old male should cover Neisseria meningitidis and S. pneumoniae, and would include vancomycin and ceftriaxone. Never wait for a CBC to determine if an adult needs an LP. The decision to do an LP is a clinical one.”

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11
Q

What is the standard of care for giving antibiotics for suspected meningitis?

A

“The standard of care for suspected meningitis is to administer antibiotics within 30 minutes of the patient presenting to the ED. Draw the blood cultures and give the antibiotics. You won’t change the CSF culture results if you give a single dose of antibiotics prior to CT scan. However, it is considered prudent to do the LP within 2 hours of administering IV antibiotics”

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12
Q

Examination of the cerebral spinal fluid of a patient with suspected meningitis reveals gram-positive cocci in pairs. What is the most likely cause of agent?

A

“Gram stain examination of CSF may permit rapid identification of the causative organism in bacterial meningitis with a sensitivity of 60–90%. Prior antibiotic therapy (e.g., a partially treated meningitis… not a single dose of antibiotics in the ED) may reduce the sensitivity by 20%. The likelihood of a positive Gram stain is highest in cases of S. pneumoniae (a gram-positive diplococcus). Only about one-third of L. monocytogenes meningitis cases demonstrate a positive Gram stain. Answer “D” requires special mention. N. meningitidis is a diplococcus but is gram negative”

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13
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in the college students? In those over 50? In neonates?

A

“Although S. pneumococcus is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the adult population in the United States, N. meningitidis remains the leading cause in adolescents despite vaccination and is particularly prevalent in the setting of dormitory living (e.g., college or military). In addition, the presence of petechial (or purpuric) rash in the lower extremities and pressure points is typical of N. meningitidis. The advent of vaccination has made H. influenzae a less common cause. L. monocytogenes is more prevalent in those over age 50, infants, and immunocompromised. E. coli is a common cause for meningitis in neonates and infants but is very uncommon in adolescents and adults”

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14
Q

An asymptomatic patient is positive for a PPD skin test with 15 mm of induration. They were previously negative. What is the course of treatment?

A

“A 3-month course of INH plus rifapentine (note, not rifampin) once weekly has been shown to be superior to a 9-month course of daily INH. As of the writing of this book, the 3-month regimen is not yet the current standard of care.” “Pyridoxine should also be given to prevent peripheral neuropathy”

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15
Q

What is the treatment for the patient was active TB?

A

“If active disease is diagnosed, appropriate therapy should be initiated with a 4-drug regimen for 6–8 weeks followed by a simpler regimen for 4–7 months once sensitivities are known (average 6 months total). A number of regimens are available, and all include isoniazid and rifampin. INH alone is never appropriate for active TB. First-line drugs used for active TB include isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Ethambutol may be dropped if the organism is sensitive to INH, RIF, and PYR. Second-line drugs include levofloxacin, streptomycin, and others”

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16
Q

According to the American Heart Association guidelines what is the prophylaxis for mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation?

A

MVP with regurgitation has been downgraded and there is no prophylaxis.

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17
Q

According to the American Heart Association what conditions are considered high risk for the development of endocarditis?

A

“The guidelines recommend antibiotic prophylaxis for conditions considered to be high risk for adverse outcomes of infective endocarditis. High-risk conditions include prosthetic valves (bioprosthetic homograft and allograft valves and mechanical valves), previous infective endocarditis, and complex cyanotic congenital heart disease”

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18
Q

What are the classical findings of subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A

“Classical physical exam findings of SBE include intermittent fever; petechiae; conjunctival hemorrhage; splinter hemorrhages under the nails; erythematous painful nodules on the fingers, palms, and soles (Osler nodes); fundic hemorrhages (Roth spots); painless erythematous macules on the palms and soles (Janeway lesions); and new diastolic murmur”

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19
Q

What is the drug of choice for MSSA endocarditis?

A

“Nafcillin is the drug of choice for the treatment of methicillin-sensitive S. aureus endocarditis. Vancomycin should be reserved for patients with penicillin allergy or patients with methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA). Neither ceftriaxone nor levofloxacin would be considered appropriate therapy for staphylococcal endocarditis.”

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20
Q

How do you manage a patient with progressive heart failure and worsening valvular function?

A

“Progressive heart failure and worsening valvular function are indications for surgery. However, it is generally preferable to complete the course of antibiotics first if the patient’s heart failure can be effectively medically managed”

“Other indications for surgery in cases of endocarditis include multiple embolic events, infections that are difficult or impossible to treat adequately with medications (e.g., fungal infections), cardiac conduction abnormalities due to infection, persistent bacteremia, partially dehisced prosthetic valve, and perivalvular infection (e.g., cardiac abscess and fistula).”

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21
Q

What are the most likely organisms to cause bacterial endocarditis?

A

“S. viridans is the most likely organism to cause endocarditis. Gram-negative organisms, such as E. coli and P. mirabilis, are infrequent causes of infective endocarditis. Other organisms that cause endocarditis include the HACEK organisms (Haemophilus species, Actinobacillus actinomyces comitantes, “Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella species, and Kingella kingae).”

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22
Q

Name to drugs there contraindicated when taken linezolid.

A

“Linezolid can cause serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIs, lithium, MAOIs, and other serotonergic drugs”

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23
Q

What is the treatment for scabies?

A

“Permethrin cream is the topical medication of choice. Ivermectin, an anti-helmintic medication, is indicated for adults with nodular disease (like the mother in this case), in epidemic settings, and for treatment of scabies crustosa”

24
Q

What does the scabies infection look like?

A

“Scabies’ mites (Sarcoptes scabiei) burrow into the epidermis, lay eggs, and hatch larvae in cycles of 3–4 days. The most notable clinical symptom is intense pruritus that is worse at night. The typical lesion is small, erythematous, and papular and may resemble eczema in quality and distribution. About 7% of individuals develop a nodular variant (like the mother in this case). Transmission is typically by direct contact and infestations may appear as epidemics in institutions like nursing homes. The organism may be spread by fomites as well, although to a lesser extent. Young children and infants often have involvement of palms, soles, face, and scalp. A clinical diagnosis may be made in the setting of pruritic rash, typical distribution, and multiple family members affected” “All family members should be treated, regardless of the presence or lack of symptoms. Microscopic exam of a skin scraping may identify the mite but has poor sensitivity. Other viable treatment alternatives include crotamiton 10% solution precipitated sulfur in petroleum and lindane (but avoid lindane in children <2 years old).”

25
Q

What is the treatment of choice for pinworm?

A

“Treat the entire family. Mebendazole is the agent of choice, although other antiparasitic agents (albendazole, pyrantel pamoate) may also be used. Pyrantel pamoate is second-line and only has a 90% response rate. “D,” metronidazole, is not used for helminthic infections but is effective against protozoal infections, including amebiasis and trichomoniasis. Make sure to wash all of the bed linens and clothing: eggs can stay viable for 20 days (although 3 days is more typical).”

Excerpt From: Mark Graber & Jason Wilbur. “Family Practice Examination and Board Review, Third Edition.” McGraw-Hill Medical, 2013. iBooks.
This material may be protected by copyright.

Check out this book on the iBooks Store: https://itun.es/us/vRMUI.l

26
Q

What is the treatment for fever of unknown origin?

A

“This patient has a fever of unknown origin (FUO). FUO in adults is defined as fever greater than 38.3°C of at least 3 weeks duration with no obvious cause despite extensive evaluation. Infections are the most common source of FUO in children and young adults. The most common infections include TB and abscesses. In older adults, collagen-vascular diseases, such as giant cell arteritis and rheumatoid arthritis, are more likely sources of FUO; thus, the rheumatologic tests offered in answer “A” are appropriate. The abdominal CT scan is to evaluate for occult abscess and malignancy.
The most common malignancies to present with FUO are lymphoma, leukemia, renal cell carcinoma, and hepatoma. A CT scan of the abdomen should pick all of” these up except for leukemia.

27
Q

What does a presentation of Rocky Mountain spotted fever look like?

A

“RMSF is a tick-borne (dog or wood tick) disease caused by Rickettsia rickettsii. It presents with a prodrome of fever and headache several days before the onset of the characteristic rash—a maculopapular eruption that begins at the wrists and ankles and spreads centrally. Eventually, the rash becomes petechial. Despite its name, RMSF is endemic in the southeastern United States, the Atlantic states, and the northern Rocky Mountains.
Laboratory manifestations of RMSF are generally nonspecific: mild thrombocytopenia (rarely becoming severe), hyponatremia, azotemia, elevated transaminases, and prolonged PTT and PT.”

28
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for somebody suspected of having it Rocky Mountains spotted fever?

A

“Early treatment is essential. Individuals treated after 5 days of symptoms have worse outcomes than those treated earlier. Awaiting serologic studies is inappropriate and treatment should not be delayed. The drug of choice in the treatment of RMSF is doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 14 days. This is true for children as well! Pregnant women should be treated with chloramphenicol. Agents such as penicillin, fluoroquinolones, and cephalosporins are inappropriate in this situation.”

29
Q

In regards to the distal finger, what is a felon?

A

“A felon is an abscess of the distal fingertip, most commonly occurring in the index finger and thumb. It can be distinguished from paronychia because a felon is located in the fat pad of the finger and not the tissue around the nail. Often, an area of fluctuance is palpable. A felon can spread quickly and can involve the periosteum and bone. Appropriate management includes x-ray of the finger (to rule out osteomyelitis), antibiotics, and incision and drainage”

30
Q

What are three common pathogens that you can give prophylaxis for and people traveling to Africa?

A

“Dengue fever (aka “break bone” fever) is a viral infection caused by Flavivirus (more below). P. falciparum and Plasmodium ovale, are two species of malaria parasites. P. falciparum tends to produce more severe infections that can be rapidly fatal in malaria naïve patients. Entamoeba histolytica, is the intestinal protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis”

31
Q

What is appropriate prophylaxis for malaria?

A

“Mefloquine is an effective, once-a-week prophylaxis for malaria. However, it carries a significant risk of CNS side effects including vivid or disturbing dreams. There have been case reports of the medication inducing psychosis, so the drug is relatively contraindicated for patients with a history of psychiatricillness (such as Jane Smith). doxycycline, may be a good option for the parents, but is contraindicated in children because of their age and risk of tooth discoloration” resistance has developed against chloroquine.

Excerpt From: Mark Graber & Jason Wilbur. “Family Practice Examination and Board Review, Third Edition.” McGraw-Hill Medical, 2013. iBooks.
This material may be protected by copyright.

Check out this book on the iBooks Store: https://itun.es/us/vRMUI.l

32
Q

What is the current treatment for a acute case of malaria?

A

“Clearly, since this patienT is ill and not tolerating oral intake, an IV route for malaria treatment is indicated. IV atovaquone/proguanil does not now exist, so the only available option is quinine. But IV quinine is not available in the United States, so its isomer, quinidine (the antiarrhythmic) is used instead. In patients from chloroquine-sensitive zones (currently Central America and the Middle East), treatment with chloroquine is acceptable. Hydroxychloroquine is an option if chloroquine is not available”

33
Q

80% of toxic shock syndrome patients is related to tampon use. True or false?

A

False. up to 50% of cases of toxic shock occur as the result of staphylococcal infections unrelated to tampons. These may be ingrown toenails, infected abrasions, etc”

34
Q

What kind of laboratory findings would want to expect with toxic shock syndrome?

A

“By the definition of toxic shock syndrome, the platelet count should be <100,00 mm3 in Staph related toxic shock. All of the other findings are representative of the multisystem dysfunction that categorizes toxic shock syndrome.”

35
Q

What is the treatment of the toxic shock syndrome?

A

“Treatment is mainly supportive. She’s in shock. Two large-bore IV lines should be placed with fluids running wide open, and norepinephrine (or other pressor) should be available if her pressure does not improve rapidly. Patients with classic toxic shock syndrome (staphylococcal) are not septic. Therefore, while an antistaphylococcal drug is important (as is locally treating the site of infection with incision and drainage, toenail removal, etc.), the antistaphylococcal drug is not to treat bacteremia. However, the patient should receive an antibiotic because we are presuming there is a localized infection somewhere”

Excerpt From: Mark Graber & Jason Wilbur. “Family Practice Examination and Board Review, Third Edition.” McGraw-Hill Medical, 2013. iBooks.
This material may be protected by copyright.

Check out this book on the iBooks Store: https://itun.es/us/vRMUI.l

36
Q

What is the typical presentation of a patient with Dengue fever?

A

“Dengue fever is most common in Asia but also occurs in Africa (as well as in Haiti and elsewhere). Patients typically present with fever, conjunctivitis, headache, retro-orbital pain, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. The sine-qua-non of Dengue fever is severe myalgias and arthralgias, hence the moniker “break bone fever”

“The incubation period of Dengue fever is 3–7 days. Patients with their second or subsequent episode of Dengue fever can present with capillary leak syndrome, marked thrombocytopenia, and severe hemorrhage. It is usually the second or subsequent infection that leads to mortality.”

37
Q

What is the treatment of dengue fever?

A

“The treatment of Dengue fever is supportive care. In many countries, treatment is begun with albumin to replace the circulating volume (given the capillary leak syndrome). However, saline is just as good and a lot less expensive.”

38
Q

What test would you use to check a patient exhibiting signs of acute HIV infection?

A

HIV antibody and antigen ELISA testing. “Not all laboratories have adopted the HIV antibody-antigen ELISA, so the alternative approach would be to measure the HIV RNA by PCR. However, since this test is much more expensive, the antibody-antigen ELISA is preferred”

39
Q

After a new case of HIV is identified which other infections should be tested for?

A

“During the initial assessment of an HIV-infected person, all of these studies are important. A positive PPD (>5 mm induration in a person infected with HIV) warrants isoniazid and pyridoxine therapy for 9 months if the patient is found to have latent disease (no active disease). Since patients with any sexually transmitted infection (STI) are at risk for another STI, screening for syphilis with an RPR is recommended. The same rationale applies for hepatitis B and C, which can be acquired via the same routes as HIV. The patient has documented HIV by virtue of the positive HIV antigenantibody ELISA and positive HIV RNA; however, documentation of seroconversion is important, and a repeat HIV antibody ELISA should be sent at 12 weeks and positives confirmed by HIV Western blot. Genotype testing for resistance against certain medications should be performed at baseline regardless of whether antiretroviral (ARV) therapy will be initiated or deferred”

40
Q

When should highly active antiretrovirals therapy be started the treatment of HIV?

A

“At CD4 counts 500 cells/mm3, the risk for disease progression may be outweighed by the risk of toxicity of the drugs, and the HHS panel was evenly divided on HAART for HIV-infected people with >500 CD4 cells/mm3. These numbers represent general rules in treatment, and other compelling indications may”

41
Q

One is a patient who has been diagnosed with HIV supposed to be considered as having AIDS?

A

“The 1993 revised CDC HIV classification system requires a case of HIV infection be reported as AIDS if the CD4 count is less than 200 cells/mm3 OR the patient develops an AIDS defining illness. These AIDS defining illnesses include esophageal (not oral) candidiasis, cryptococcal infection, disseminated histoplasmosis, invasive cervical cancer, tuberculosis, HIV wasting disease, and recurrent pneumonia (more than one episode per year). Other infections, Kaposi sarcoma, and certain lymphomas may also define AIDS in an HIV-infected person. Duration of infection and viral load are not currently criteria”

42
Q

What are two criteria for changing the drug regimen in the treatment of HIV?

A

“Criteria for changing drug regimens include <1 log10 reduction in viral RNA by 8 weeks (e.g., 100,000 to 10,000 is a 1 log10 reduction), failure to depress viral RNA to undetectable levels by 6 months, repetitive detection of viral RNA after initially achieving undetectable levels, persistent decline in CD4 counts (on at least two measurements), or significant clinical deterioration. The expected rise in CD4 counts is much slower than the fall in HIV RNA, and little or no change may be seen in the first 6 months of therapy.
When changing drug regimens for virologic failure, it is important to repeat genotype testing while on their current regimen to determine whether the patient’s virus has now developed resistance to their current ARV regimen.”

43
Q

Hey patient has just undergone a change in their anti retroviral therapy for HIV and develops ARDS, what is the next appropriate step in treatment?

A

“Given the timing of the onset of symptoms in the setting of a rapid CD4 response to ARV therapy, this is likely related to immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS). IRIS is well named. It is identified by a paradoxical symptomatic worsening of a preexisting infectious process as the immune system reconstitutes with ARV therapy. Basically, the body’s immune response is wrecking havoc at the sites of infection (including CMV retinitis, TB causing increased fever, malaise and weight loss, and increased signs of cryptococcal meningitis and obviously, PCP). The infection may be under treatment or sub-clinical yet becomes symptomatically worse when IRIS develops.”

44
Q

What is the treatment of choice for PCP pneumonia in patients with HIV?

A

“The patient is acutely ill, and likely has PCP. Steroids decrease the mortality in patients with severe PCP (PaO2 35 mm Hg). The best antibiotic for PCP is TMP-SMX. Pentamidine IV may be used in cases of sulfa allergy, but it has been associated with hypotension and hypoglycemia. Although the classic chest x-ray appearance for PCP is bilateral interstitial infiltrates, it can present differently (as in this case). Initially normal x-ray exams are not uncommon. Since the infecting organism is not known with certainty, it would prudent to add empiric therapy for bacterial pneumonia with ceftriaxone and azithromycin pending bronchoscopy results. PCP does not grow in standard cultures; but it can be visualized with silver stain on BAL or with direct fluorescent assay. It can still be isolated within 48 hours after starting therapy.”

45
Q

A patient on positive pressure ventilation suddenly develops absent lung sounds on one side with deviation of the trachea to the other side, what is the diagnosis and next step in management?

A

“The organism, Pneumocystis, has a propensity to cause blebs (cysts) in the lung tissue. Since the patient was receiving positive pressure ventilation, a tension pneumothorax developed and requires immediate needle decompression. This should be done without waiting for a portable chest x-ray. When the pneumothorax is later confirmed, a tube thoracostomy may be performed under controlled conditions”

46
Q

What are the recommendations for HIV screening?

A

“HIV screening should be included in the routine panel of prenatal tests for all women seeking prenatal care. Routine testing for HIV in expectant females has dramatically reduced the HIV prevalence in children in developed countries. Vertical transmission of HIV is still a tremendous problem in Africa and other developing regions of the world.
The CDC now recommends universal HIV testing for all individuals between age 13 and 64 “in all health care settings.” If the prevalence of HIV is <1/1000 in your region, routine screening is not warranted (Branson et al, 2006). Special consent is not necessary prior to testing for HIV and a patient’s general consent for medical care is enough. The CDC recommends that testing of all pregnant women be routine and offered as an “opt out” test”

47
Q

The patient is found to be western blot positive for HIV and Eliza positive. What does this mean?

A

“The ELISA is the highly sensitive “screening” HIV antibody test, and the Western blot is the highly specific “confirmatory” test. A positive result for both is a reliable indication for the presence of HIV antibody and indicates infection at some point in the past. Since seroconversion (development of antibodies) is not detected before 2–4 weeks after infection, and may not occur for up to 3 months, recent infections may not test positive. HIV RNA PCR and the HIV antigen ELISA can detect HIV infection before seroconversion. Natural resistance to HIV is uncommon, but may occur due to a homozygous deletion within the gene for one of the HIV entry coreceptors (CCR5). The rate of disease progression in HIV-infected people varies widely. Some genetic traits that lead to slower disease progression include heterozygous deletion of the CCR5 gene and certain HLA genotypes”

48
Q

When during pregnancy of an HIV infected mother is PCP prophylaxis indicated? And, what agents should be used?

A

“PCP is particularly severe in pregnant patients, but prophylaxis is not generally indicated for CD4 counts >200 cells/mm3. TMPSMX is associated with hyperbilirubinemia in newborns, but is still indicated for PCP prophylaxis. Oral dapsone is another option, as is inhaled pentamidine”

49
Q

With regards to delivery of a baby to an HIV-infected mother what are the considerations to method?

A

“If a patient achieves effective suppression with ARV therapy (undetectable viral load), the risk of transmission is minimal, and the mode of delivery should depend on the preferences of the mother and the other usual obstetric factors. Vaginal delivery is not contraindicated if the mother’s viral load is suppressed. If, as in this patient’s case, the viral load is >1000 copies/mL, current guidelines recommend delivery by C-section at 38 weeks. When performed at 38 weeks, prior to the onset of labor, the relative risk of transmission is reduced by 50%. Perinatal ZDV, as discussed above, may also help reduce the risk of transmission. Also, the premature rupture of membranes (PROM) should be addressed promptly in HIV-infected mothers. Children born to mothers more than 4 hours after rupture are twice as likely to acquire HIV.”

50
Q

When HIV antibody testing a neonate, what considerations are made for a positive test?

A

“Children born to HIV-positive mothers will test positive for HIV antibodies as maternal antibodies are acquired across the placenta for at least the first 6 months. Maternal HIV antibodies may persist and interfere with interpretation of a positive HIV antibody test; therefore, HIV antibody testing is not recommended to diagnose an HIV infection in infants”

51
Q

How should HIV status be determined in New burns?

A

“The best test to assist with diagnosis of HIV infection is viral load by PCR, and a positive test (by DNA PCR or RNA assays) indicates likely HIV infection. Confirmation of HIV infection is provided by two positive virologic tests obtained from separate blood samples. The sensitivity of virologic testing increases rapidly by 2 weeks. One can consider obtaining virologic testing within the first 48 hours in newborns who are at high risk for HIV infection, such as infants born to HIV-infected mothers who did not receive prenatal ARV therapy or who had HIV viral loads >1000 copies/mL close to the time of delivery. If this returns positive, this would indicative of an intrauterine infection rather than intrapartum infection, which is normally acquired during delivery”

52
Q

What is the recommendation regarding breast-feeding and HIV status of the mother?

A

“Postpartum transmission of HIV from mother to child occurs in 10–14% of breast-feeding mothers. This is not a major problem in developed nations, where there is reliable access to formula. HIV-positive mothers should be discouraged from breast-feeding in the developed world. The recommendations may be different in developing areas of the world, where mother’s milk may the only clean source of nutrition available to the infant. In fact, in many developing nations, the benefit of breastfeeding outweighs the risk of HIV transmission due to inadequate access to good nutrition and risk of diarrheal illnesses”

53
Q

What are the recommendations for anti-retroviral therapy in children with HIV infection?

A

“Recommendations for when to start therapy differ by the age of the child. CD4 counts and HIV RNA viral loads vary by age in children and both markers are poor predictors of disease progression and mortality in children 1 and <500 cells/mm3”

Excerpt From: Mark Graber & Jason Wilbur. “Family Practice Examination and Board Review, Third Edition.” McGraw-Hill Medical, 2013. iBooks.
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54
Q

AIDS dementia is common in children. T or F

A

False. “Twenty-five percent of children with HIV infection demonstrate some cognitive and motor deficits. They face problems with verbal expression, attention deficits, hyperactivity, and hyperreflexia. LIP is characterized by diffuse reticulonodular infiltrates and hilar lymphadenopathy and occurs in up to 40% of children with perinatally acquired HIV. LIP is very rare in adults. Kaposi sarcoma is associated with a herpes virus infection and is very rare in children. Toxoplasmosis, usually presenting as focal mass brain lesions, is a reactivation of previous infection, and is therefore also very rare in children. Hepatobiliary complications are more common in adults than in children, but the reason for this is unclear”

55
Q

What is the recommendation for prophylaxis for PCP in children affected with HIV?

A

“The highest incidence of PCP occurs in the first year of life with peak onset at 3–6 months of age. TMP/SMX is still considered first-line therapy for prophylaxis and should be started at 4–6 weeks of age. CD4 counts are naturally higher in children and decrease to adult levels by age 6 years. PCP prophylaxis is recommended for all HIV-infected infants <12 months regardless of CD4 count or percentage. It should be continued until 1 year of age and be reassessed for continued need based on age-specific CD4 count or percentage thresholds. If this drug is not tolerated, dapsone or aerosolized pentamidine are acceptable alternatives.”

56
Q

If a patient becomes nine compliant with taking the anti-retroviral for HIV, then they should discontinue therapy. T or F

A

Starting HAART is a very difficult and serious decision and should be made after careful and complete counseling. If taken intermittently, HAART can easily become ineffective. Patients missing frequent doses of HAART are likely to have a more precipitous course to their HIV infection. Once multidrug resistance develops, it can be difficult to find an effective regimen to slow disease progression”

57
Q

What is the recommendation for screen Pap smears and HIV-infected woman?

A

“Human papilloma virus (HPV), implicated as a cause of cervical cancer, has a higher prevalence and demonstrates a more aggressive course in women with HIV infection. If the patient has a relatively normal CD4 count and has had two normal smears at 6-month intervals, Pap smears can be done at 1-year intervals. However, if the patient has a CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm3, screening every 6 months is recommended. Any detection of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is treated the same as with HIV-negative women. Remember that it is not unusual for multiple STIs to be “transmitted together, so consider testing for other STIs when obtaining a Pap smear”