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POM Test 1 > ID 1 > Flashcards

ID 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Biological agent that can produce a disease

Ex: bacteria, fungus, virus, protozoa, prion

A

Pathogen

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2
Q

A measure of an organism’s capacity to cause disease

- function of a microbe’s pathogenic factors

A

Virulence

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3
Q

The collection of microbes residing in an on mammalian organisms; microorganisms of a particular site, habitat, or geological period

A

Microbiota

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4
Q

What are the locations of microbiota in humans?

A

gut, skin, and genitals

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5
Q

Examples of infectious agents include:

A

viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites

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6
Q

DNA or RNA with a protein coat (capsid) is called a _____

A

Viron

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7
Q

DNA or RNA with a protein coat (capsid) = virion
Must infect host cells ribosomes to replicate
Outnumber bacteria 10:1
ABX will not work

A

Viruses

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8
Q

Prokaryotes that are most numerous organisms on earth, occupying every environment, have the ability to replicate very quickly (<30 minutes)

A

Bacteria

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9
Q

What are the two types of fungi?

A

Yeasts: single round cells
Molds: many cells in long threads (called a hyphae)

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10
Q

Fungal spores in the air or soil have the ability to infect ___________ and __________ commonly resulting in opportunistic or primary infections

A

lungs and skin

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11
Q

Organisms that live in/on a host at the detriment to the host

A

Parasites

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12
Q

List and describe the classes of parasites

A
  1. Protozoa: one-cell; replicate in humans; fecal-oral route via arthropod vector
  2. Helminths: multicellular; cannot replicate in humans; visible to naked eye (worms)
  3. Ectoparasites: depend on blood meal from human host; often vectors for other pathogens (fleas, mites, lice)
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13
Q

Explain the function of the capsid and envelope in viral structures

A

capsid - protein coat which functions for protections, attachments, and penetration

envelope - fat and protein which function as spikes for attachment

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14
Q

What mediates the interaction between capsid and envelope?

A

matrix protein from the viral envelope

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15
Q

Are enveloped or non-enveloped viruses more stable?

A

non-enveloped are more stable; enveloped are sensitive to heat, solvents, detergents, etc.

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16
Q

Explain the difference between enveloped and non-enveloped viruses, including structure, site of replication, and examples

A

DNA: double stranded with replication in the nucleus; more stable than RNA
ex: EBV and HPV

RNA: single stranded with replication in the cytoplasm; less stable so more virulent, high mutation rate
ex: HIV and HCV

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17
Q

List the steps of viral infection

A

Transmission of virus and entry into host
Replication of virus and cell damage (symptom onset)
Spread of virus to other cells/organs
Immune response (can also be source of symptoms)
Persistence of virus or resolution (chronic/latent disease states)

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18
Q

What are the steps of gram staining?

A

Crystal violet –> Iodine –> alcohol wash –> safranin

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19
Q

What are the colors of gram +/- bacteria

A

positive is purple

negative is red/pink

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20
Q

Thick cell wall of peptidoglycan with no outer lipid membrane and produces exotoxins

A

gram positive

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21
Q

What are the examples of GP cocci bacteria?

A

Staph and Strep

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22
Q

Thin peptidoglycan layer with outer lipid membrane present which produces exotoxins and endotoxins

A

Gram negative

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23
Q

Example of GN cocci bacteria

A

N. meningitidis

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24
Q

Example of GN coccobacillus bacteria

A

H. influenzae

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25
Q

What factors affect microbial growth

A

oxygen, temperature, pH, presence of light, etc

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26
Q

protective coating made of sugars

A

capsules

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27
Q

“inactive” forms of bacteria that can survive for years (ex: latent TB)

A

spores

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28
Q

proteins that can harm the host and help bacteria invade tissues

A

toxins

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29
Q

iron-binding factors that allow bacteria to compete with host for iron

A

siderophores

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30
Q

what can cause dental plaques, often making infection persistent, difficult to treat

A

biofilms

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31
Q

What are the mechanisms that can be used to avoid innate host defense?

A

Antiphagocytic factors: normal host surface components (bacteria looks like host) and polysaccharide capsules (difficult to phagocytize)

IgA1 proteases: pathogens can inactive mucosal surface antibodies

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32
Q

What are the different routes of transmission that can be used to infect new hosts?

A

Direct - contact or droplet

Indirect - airborne, vector (animate), vehicle (inanimate)

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33
Q

Alterations in the microbiota of tissues can lead to life-threatening diseases such as infections or cancer

A

Dysbiosis

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34
Q

What are the most common microbiota of the blood?

A

pseudomonas, Serratia, staphylococcus, and Acinetobacter

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35
Q

The blood microbiome is not well-understood but it plays a role in multiple diseases such as:

A

Cancer, depression, cardiovascuar events, and diabetes

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36
Q

The microbiota of the skin can function in two different ways, what are they?

A

communalistic: beneficial to bacteria with no harm/help to host
mutualistic: beneficial to bacteria and host

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37
Q

What are the most common microbiota of the nasopharynx?

A

Corynebacterium and staphylococcus

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38
Q

What microbiota are most commonly located in the mouth? Describe their shape and stain classifications

A

Streptococcus - GP cocci
Corynebacterium, lactobacillus - GP rods

Neisseria - GN cocci
Prevotella - GN rods

39
Q

What is the most common microbiota in the stomach?

A

Veillonella

40
Q

How is the microbiome of the stomach and gastric acid secretion related?

A

gastric cancer and H. pylori can increase firmicutes

decreased gastric acid secretion, gastric atrophy leads to increased microbes that are normally killed by acid

41
Q

What contains a large surface area for digestion and nutrient absorption?

A

small intestine

42
Q

What microbiota is most commonly found in the SI?

A

rapidly dividing facultative anaerobes thrive here

lactobacillius, streptococcus, veillonella, clostridium

43
Q

What organ contains the highest density of microbiota in the entire GI tract? The microbes in this location prioritize the digestion of starches

A

Colon

44
Q

What are the most common microbiota in the colon?

A

lachnospiraceae and akkermansia

45
Q

Lactobacillus is most commonly located in the _________

A

Vagina

46
Q

What can decrease the prevalence of lactobacillus in the vagina?

A

ABX use and sexual intercourse

47
Q

What type of infection inhibits lactobacillus growth and vice versa

A

candida infections

48
Q

Is bacterial vaginosis due to a disturbance of lactobacillus

A

No - it is from abnormal microbes

49
Q

What is the cause of chronic mastoiditis?

A

usually from recurrent otitis media and prior ABX use

P. aeruginosa, S. aureus, enterobacteriaceae, anaerobes, and mycobacterium tuberculosis

50
Q

Explain the different causes of acute and chronic otitis externa

A

acute - primarily bacteria (P. aeruginosa, S. aureus) but can be fungal in tropical environments

chronic - consider allergies or underlying inflammatory derm conditions. usually from the same organisms as acute but more likely to be fungal

51
Q

S. pneumonia, H. influenza, and M. catarrhalis can commonly infect the ear to cause ___________

A

otitis media

52
Q

S. pneumonia, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis are the trio of bacteria which infect the ___________

A

upper respiratory system

53
Q

Sinusitis can be classified in three ways. List them and describe the bacteria which cause this disease

A

Acute - S. pneumonia, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis

Chronic - staphylococcus and anaerobes

Immunocompromised or nosocomial - P. aeruginosa, other anaerobes, GN rods

54
Q

Is pharyngitis more commonly viral or bacterial?

A

viral

55
Q

What is the relationship between viral and bacterial pharyngitis?

A

viral is most common

bacterial is more severe, often arises after initial viral infection

56
Q

Are bronchitis cases more commonly viral or bacterial?

A

viral = rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza A/B, RSV

bacterial is more common in patients with underlying health conditions = H. influenzae

57
Q

What is the most common community acquired pathogen?

A

streptococcus pneumonia

58
Q

1/3 of streptococcus pneumonia infections are due to ____________

A

respiratory distress

think COVID and influenza can cause pneumonia during illness or shortly after initial recovery

59
Q

Endocarditis is a disease commonly resulting from three different mechanisms. What are they?

A

Native valve - S. aureus
IV drug users - S. aureus, enterococci, and streptococci (bacteria from the skin can enter blood stream)
Prosthetic valves

60
Q

When patients are given a prosthetic valve they can, unfortunately, suffer from early or late infections. Explain how to differentiate the two

A

Early - <2 months after implantation –> staphylococci, gram negative, fungi

Late - >2 months after implantation –> streptococcus and staphylococci

61
Q

What is the most common pathogen causing epiglottis?

A

H. influenzae (but decreasing due to vaccinations)

Immunocompromised patients –> P. aeruginosa, candida

62
Q

The most common cause of viral gastroenteritis

A

Norovirus, rotavirus, adenovirus

  • typically causes watery diarrhea
  • vomiting is more common
  • milder disease than bacterial
63
Q

The most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis

A

Salmonella, campylobacter, shigella

  • diarrhea may be bloody (due to shigella or E. coli)
  • more likely to cause fever
64
Q

Cholecystitis is commonly caused by

A

E. coli, klebsiella, and E. faecalis

Anaerobes more common in patients with DM, age >70, or previous surgery

65
Q

Inflammation of the bile duct system

A

Cholangitis

66
Q

Cholangitis is commonly caused by

A

the same organisms as cholecystitis which is –> E. coli, Klebsiella, E. faecalis

E. coli accounts for nearly half the cases of cholangitis

67
Q

What is the difference between diverticulitis and diverticulosis

A

Diverticulitis - outpouching with inflammation

Diverticulosis - outpouching without inflammation

68
Q

Diverticulitis is essentially colonic perforation which results in the normal colonic flora to be ____________

A

released into peritoneal cavity

69
Q

What are the most common pathogens associated with diverticulitis

A

E. coli, B. fragilis, and anaerobes

70
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common pathogen to cause

A

cervicitis

71
Q

pelvic inflammatory disease is an upper genital tract infection mainly in young, sexually active women due to the pathogens - ____________ and ____________

A

chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhea

72
Q

Although PID is most common in young women, it can also occur in post-menopausal women (rare) due to which pathogens

A

E. coli and colonic anaerobes

73
Q

PID is considered a ___________ infection so it requires _____________ ABX

A

polymicrobial; broad-spectrum

74
Q

Meningitis can be viral or bacterial, what pathogens cause bacterial meningitis?

A

N. meningitides and S. pneumoniae

infants and elderly: E. coli and Listeria monocytogenes

75
Q

What used to be the most common cause of meningitis but has significantly decreased due to vaccination?

A

H. influenzae

76
Q

Most common pathogens associated with osteomyelitis

A

chronic: S. epidermidis, S. aureus

septic arthritis: S. aureus

prosthetic joints: S. aureus, S. epidermidis

77
Q

What is the most common bacterial pathogen on the skin

A

BACTERIAL IS MOST COMMON - S. aureus

78
Q

What is the most common viral pathogen on the skin?

A

HSV, herpes zoster (shingles), varicella zoster (chicken pox)

79
Q

What is the most common fungal pathogen found on the skin?

A

trichophyton rubrum (athletes foot and ringworm)

80
Q

What are the most common types of nosocomial infections

A

urinary, bloodstream, surgical wounds, pneumonia, MRSA, and C. diff

81
Q 
For nosocomial infections that affect the bloodstream what are the 
risk factors
infectious agents
diagnostic evaluations
treatment
A

risk factors - indwelling vascular line, critical illness, repeated treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics

infectious agents - Staphylococcus aureus

diagnostic evaluation - blood cultures, consider CXR

treatment - remove indwelling catheter, consider ABX lock therapy, most common to use vancomycin as ABX treatment, and refer to infectious disease if necessary

82
Q 
Pneumonia -- 
risk factors
infectious agents
diagnostic evaluations
treatment
A

risk factors - ICU patients, mechanical ventilation

infectious agents - S. aureus and MRSA, gram-negative tods, and pseudomonas

diagnostic evaluations - at least two: fever, leukocytosis, purulent sputum, cultures of blood, pleural fluid, and sputum

treatment - empiric ABX for 7 days (hospital antibiogram to guide selection)

83
Q 
UTI --
risk factors
infectious agents
diagnostic evaluations
treatment
A

risk factors - indwelling foley catheters, long-stay elderly male patients, debilitated patients

infectious agents - endogenous organisms most of the time –> E. coli

diagnostic evaluation - UA and urine culture

treatment - empiric ABX and remove catheter

84
Q

What are the risk factors for surgical wounds?

A

present 5-10 days after surgery
deep more common than superficial

risk factors - poor skin prep, wound contamination, age/general health, duration of surgery, the skill of the surgeon

85
Q

Surgical wounds are most common;y caused by

A

S. auerus, K. pneumonia, P. aerugionsa, and E. coli

86
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for superficial and deep surgical wounds?

A

Superficial - within 30 days of operation

Deep - within 30 days of operation or 1 year if implant in place

87
Q

What is the recommended treatment for nosocomial infections of surgical wounds

A

ABX (empiric or targeted with positive culture)
wound debridement, drainage, and dressing changes
removal of implanted materials if necessary

88
Q

What is the most common symptom associated with hospital-associated infections

A

Diarrhea

89
Q

Nosocomial infections: GI infections
risk factors
diagnostic evaluations
treatment

A

risk factors - ABX use, >60 years, exposure to other patients with infection, underlying disease, recent surgery

diagnostic evaluation - stool cultures

treatment - prevention is best
discontinue causative ABX
IV ABX, hydration
occasionally a surgery to remove disease colon

90
Q

What is the most common etiology of fever of unknown origin?

A

TB, endocarditis, gallbladder disease, HIV, etc

91
Q

FUO from infection

A 
TB, endocarditis 
HIV
EBV
CMV
occult abscess
92
Q

FUO from neoplasms

A

lymphoma
leukemia
liver and renal cancers

93
Q

FUO from autoimmune disorders

A

lupus
still disease
polyarteritis nodosa
GCA, PMR in older adults

94
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for an FUO

A

fever present with no diagnosis after 3 outpatient visits or 3 days of hospitalization

POM Test 1 (1 decks)

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