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Phase 2A > ICS > Flashcards

ICS Flashcards

1
Q

What is inflammation?

A

A reaction to injury or infection involving cells such as neutrophils and macrophages

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2
Q

What does an abscess consist of?

A

A collection of neutrophils, death tissues (debris) and bacteria

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3
Q

What type of infection it is when the throat and tonsils are red without white pus?

A

Viral infection

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4
Q

What type of infection it is when the throat and tonsils are white with pus?

A

Bacterial infection (have to give antibiotics)

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5
Q

What are the 2 conditions when inflammation is good?

A

Infection, Injury

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6
Q

What are the 2 times when inflammation is bad?

A

Autoimmunity, over-reaction to stimulus

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7
Q

How is acute inflammation classified? Provide 3 criteria of acute inflammation.

A
  • Sudden Onset
  • Short Duration
  • Usually Resolves
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8
Q

How is chronic inflammation classified? Provide 3 criteria of chronic inflammation.

A
  • Slowly onset or sequel to acute
  • Long duration
  • May never resolve
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9
Q

What cells are involved in inflammation?

A
  1. Neutrophil polymorphs
  2. Macrophages
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Endothelial cells
  5. Fibroblasts
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10
Q

What cells are first seen during acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophils

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11
Q

Is neutrophil short-lived or long-lived?

A

Short-lived

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12
Q

When does neutrophil die?

A

At the scene of inflammation

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13
Q

How does neutrophil work?

A

Release chemicals that attract other inflammatory cells such as macrophages.

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14
Q

Is macrophage short-lived or long-lived?

A

Long-lived (weeks to months)

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15
Q

What properties do macrophages have?

A

Phagocytotic property

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16
Q

What do macrophages work?

A
  1. Ingest bacteria and debris
  2. May carry debris away
  3. May present antigens to lymphocytes so lymphocytes can perform immune reaction
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17
Q

What cells have irregular polymorph nuclei?

A

Neutrophils

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18
Q

What cells have big globular nucleus?

A

Macrophages

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19
Q

Are lymphocytes short-lived or long-lived?

A

Long-lived (years)

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20
Q

How do lymphocytes work?

A
  • Produce chemicals which attract other inflammatory cells
  • Immunological memory for past infections and antigens (B plasma cells- produce antibodies)
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21
Q

What cells line capillary blood vessels in areas of inflammation?

A

Endothelial cells

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22
Q

What happen to endothelial cells during inflammation?

A
  1. Become sticky in areas of inflammation (usually NO prevent stickiness and adhesion), so inflammatory cells adhere to them
  2. Become porous to allow inflammatory cells to pass into tissues
  3. Grow into areas of damage to form new capillary vessels
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23
Q

Is the capillary bed close or open most of the time?

A

close

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24
Q

What chemical substance open up the capillary bed during inflammation?

A

Histamine

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25
Q

In sepsis, is the capillary bed open or close?

A

All open

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26
Q

Why you get swelling area during an inflammation?

A

capillaries are leaky

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27
Q

Are fibroblast short-lived or long-lived?

A

Long-lived

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28
Q

What does fibroblast form?

A

Form collagen in areas of chronic inflammation and repair (might lead to “fibrosis”)

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29
Q

What is an example of acute inflammation?

A

Acute appendicitis

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30
Q

What happen during acute appendicitis?

A
  • unknown cause
  • neutrophils appear
  • blood vessels dilate
  • inflammation of serosal surface occurs
  • pain felt
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31
Q

What are the outcomes of acute inflammation?

A

Roar SOP
1. Resolution
2. Suppuration
3. Organisation
4. Progression to chronic inflammation

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32
Q

Types of chronic inflammation

A
  1. Primary onset
  2. Secondary onset from acute inflammation
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33
Q

Examples of chronic inflammation

A

TB (no initial acute inflammation)

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34
Q

What happens in TB?

A
  1. Mycobacteria ingested by macrophages
  2. Macrophages often fail to kill the mycobacteria
  3. Lymphocytes appear
  4. Macrophages appear
  5. Fibrosis occurs
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35
Q

What are the particular feature of chronic inflammation?

A

granulomas

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36
Q

Why do you apply ice when treating inflammation?

A
  • ice reduces swelling etc, cold stops the sphincter from opening up, fluid not leaked, hence stopped inflammatory process
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37
Q

How do you treat mosquito bite?

A

Antihistamine - damp down inflammation

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38
Q

How does ibuprofen help in treating inflammation?

A

inhibit prostaglandin synthetase (prostaglandin is a chemical mediator of inflammation)

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39
Q

How does corticosteroids work in skin rashes?

A
  • bind to DNA to upregulate inhibitors on inflammation
  • down-regulate chemical mediator for inflammation
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40
Q

in ancient egypt, during mummification, the brain is liquified and removed via ?

A

cribriform plate

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41
Q

Who dissected both animal and live humans?

A

Herophilus

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42
Q

What are the 2 main types of autopsy?

A
  1. Hospital autopsy (<10%, requires MCCD, audit, teaching, governance and research)
  2. Medico-legal autopsy (>90%)
    2(a) Coronial Autopsy (lawful)
    2(b) Forensic Autopsy (unlawful)
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43
Q

What are the type of deaths referred to the coroner

A
  1. Presumed natural
  2. Presumed iatrogenic (medical-related)
  3. Presumed unnatural
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44
Q

Who makes the referrals?

A
  1. Doctors
  2. Registrar of BDM (Birth, Death, Marriage)
  3. Referrals also come from (relatives, police, and anatomical pathology technicians)
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45
Q

Which autopsy does doctor perform?

A

Both hospital autopsy and coronial autopsy

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46
Q

Which autopsy does histopathologist perform?

A

Hospital autopsy and coronial autopsy

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47
Q

Which autopsy does forensic pathologist perform?

A

Coronial autopsy

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48
Q

What are the roles of coronial autopsy and coroner?

A

Who, When, Where, How

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49
Q

What are the 5 autopsy related laws?

A
  1. Coroners Act 1988
  2. Coroners Rules 1984
  3. Amendment Rules 2005
  4. Coroners and Justice Act 2009
  5. Human Tissue Act 2004
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50
Q

What are the 5 steps of autopsy?

A
  1. History/Scene
  2. External examination
  3. Evisceration
  4. Internal Examination
  5. Reconstruction
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51
Q

What are the 3 main investigation purposes of external examination?

A
  1. Who? (Identification)
  2. why? (Disease and Treatment)
  3. Why me? (Injuries)
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52
Q

What are the 5 steps of Evisceration?

A
  1. Y shaped incision
  2. Open all body cavities
  3. Examine all organs in situ
  4. Remove thoracic and abdominal organs
  5. Remove Brain
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53
Q

What are the 2 factors resolution depend on?

A
  1. Initiating factor removed
  2. Tissue undamaged or able to regenerate
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54
Q

What are the 2 factors repair depend on?

A
  1. Initiating factor still present
  2. Tissue damaged and unable to regenerate
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55
Q

What are the 2 types of healing during wounds injury?

A
  1. Healing by first intention (can bring the edges of the skin together)
  2. Healing by second intention (cant bring the edges of the skin together)
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56
Q

What ends up healing but with the biggest scar?

A

Granulation tissue

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57
Q

What is “repair”?

A

The replacement of damaged tissue by fibrous tissue.
(For example those tissue who cant regenerate, i.e. heart after myocardial infarction, brain after cerebral infarction, spinal cord after trauma)

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58
Q

What are fibrosis called in the brain?

A

Gliosis

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59
Q

What are the cells that regenerate?

A

-hepatocytes
-pneumocytes
-all blood cells
-gut epithelium
-skin epithelium
-osteocytes

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60
Q

What does blood contain?

A
  1. Oxygen carrying red blood cells
  2. infection fighting/inflammatory white blood cells
  3. Clotting platelets
  4. Plasma
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61
Q

What are the 2 reasons blood doesn’t normally form clot?

A
  1. Laminar flow
  2. Endothelial cells that are lining vessels are not sticky when healthy
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62
Q

Define thrombosis.

A

The formation of solid mass from blood constituents in an intact vessel in a living person

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62
Q

Define thrombosis.

A

The formation of solid mass from blood constituents in an intact vessel in a living person

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63
Q

What is the first stage of thrombosis?

A

Platelet aggregation

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64
Q

What do platelets do?

A
  1. Release chemicals when they aggregate
  2. Cause the cascade of clotting proteins in the blood
  3. Positive feedback loops
  4. Formation of the fibrin mesh which entrap the RBC.
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65
Q

What are the 3 factors of thrombosis?

A
  1. Change in vessels wall
  2. Change in blood flow
  3. Change in blood constituents
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66
Q

How to prevent thrombosis on patients?

A
  1. early mobilisation after operations
  2. low dose subcutaneous heparin
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67
Q

What is embolism?

A

The process of a solid mass in the blood being carried through the circulation to a place where it gets stuck and blocks the vessel.

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68
Q

What usually does the solid mass in embolism form from?

A

DVT from the leg veins which breaks off and embolises through the large veins and right side of the heart to the lungs

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69
Q

What are the less common causes of ebolism?

A

air (IVF), cholesterol crystals, tumour, amniotic fluid, fat

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70
Q

What happens when an embolus enters the venous system?

A
  1. Travel to the vena cava
  2. Through the right side of the lung
  3. lodge somewhere in the pulmonary arteries
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71
Q

Why does the lung act as a filter for any venous emboli?

A

The blood vessels in the lung split down to capillary size

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72
Q

What happens when an embolus enters the arterial system?

A
  1. Travel anywhere downstream of its entry point
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73
Q

What is ischaemia?

A

A reduction in blood flow to tissue without any other implications

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74
Q

What is infarction?

A

The reduction in blood flow to a tissue that is so reduced that it cannot even support mere maintenance of the cells in the tissue so they die.

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75
Q

Why are most organs in the human body so susceptible to infarction?

A

They only have a single artery supplying them (end arterial supply)

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76
Q

Why are most organs in the human body so susceptible to infarction?

A

They only have a single artery supplying them (end arterial supply)

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77
Q

What organs have dual arterial supply>

A
  1. Liver (portal venous and hepatic artery supplies)
  2. Lung (with pulmonary venous and bronchial artery supplies)
  3. Brain (circle of Willis)
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78
Q

Why is the blood flow in vein a passive blood flow?

A

Because the blood flow back with the aid of muscle contractile force

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79
Q

What are the 2 things you can do in hospital to prevent thrombosis?

A
  • elastic stocking
  • anticoagulant
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80
Q

What can inhibit platelet aggregation?

A

aspirin

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81
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A

The accumulation of fibrolipid plaques in
systemic (as opposed to pulmonary) arteries.

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82
Q

State the time course of atherosclerosis respectively at “birth”, “late teenage/early 20s”, “30s/40s/50s” and “40s-80s”.

A
  • birth - no atherosclerosis
  • late teenage/early 20s - fatty streaks in aorta, may not
    progress to established atherosclerosis
  • 30s/40s/50s - development of established atherosclerotic
    plaques
  • 40s-80s - complications of atherosclerotic plaques e.g.
    thrombosis, intraplaque haemorrhage
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83
Q

What are the risk factors of atherosclerosis?

A
  • hypertension
  • hyperlipidaemia
  • cigarette smoking
  • poorly controlled DM
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84
Q

What is the old atherosclerosis theory that wasnt true?

A

lipid insudation theory

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85
Q

What is the new atherosclerosis theory that is true now?

A

current endothelial damage theory

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86
Q

State the 3 steps of pathogenesis of atherosclerosis.

A
  1. endothelial cells are delicate
  2. easily damaged by cigarette smoke, shearing forces at
    arterial divisions, hyperlipidaemia, glycosylation products
  3. cumulative damage leads to endothelial ulceration, mi-
    crothrombi, eventual development of established athero-
    sclerotic plaques
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87
Q

What are the main complications of atherosclerosis?

A
  1. Infarction
  2. embolism (if it breaks off)
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88
Q

What are one of the minerals that will commonly present in atherosclerosis plaque?

A
  • calcium
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89
Q

At which year will there be a steep increase of risk of atherosclerosis?

A

40-50

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90
Q

What type of vessels does atherosclerosis more common to happen in?

A

High blood pressure athery like aortaWhat

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91
Q

What does an atherosclerosis plaque consist of?

A

fibrous tissue, lipids which are mainly cholesterol, lymphocytes (chronic inflammation)

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92
Q

At what site in vessels does atherosclerosis usually happen?

A

Bifurcation side

93
Q

What are the 2 things that are produced when the DM is poorly controleld?

A
  • superoxide anion
  • glycosylation products
94
Q

What are the 3 main substances in cigarette smoking that are harmful?

A
  • Free radicals
  • nicotine
  • carbon monoxide
95
Q

What prevents platelet aggregation?

A
  • low dose of aspirins (usually for UK its 75mg of aspirin)
96
Q

What is the condition that will happen in aorta when atherosclerosis happens?

A

Aortic aneurysm, may cause rupture and people die pretty quickly

97
Q

What is the only similarity between apoptosis and necrosis?

A

they result in cell death

98
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Programmed cell death

99
Q

Why is apoptosis important?

A

important process in normal
cell turnover in the body which prevents cells with accumulated genetic damage from dividing and producing cells which might eventually develop into cancer cells

100
Q

How does a cell decide when to apoptose?

A

One of the mechanisms is detecting amount of DNA damage within the cell.

101
Q

What is the gene that decides cell apoptosis?

A

p53 is a protein in cells which can detect DNA damage
and can then trigger apoptosis

102
Q

How does a cell apoptose?

A

The cell triggers a series of proteins which lead to the release of enzymes within the cell which eventually autodigest the cell.

103
Q

What is the type of enzyme that lead to a cascade of activated enzyme in apoptosis?

A

Caspases

104
Q

What are the 2 big factors that relate with caspases when it comes to apoptosis?

A
  • BCL2/BAX
  • Fas receptor and Fas ligand
105
Q

State 2 situations how apoptosis work in healthy situation

A
  1. Development - removal of cells during development e.g. interdigital webs
  2. Cell turnover - removal of cells during normal turnover
    e.g. cells in the intestinal villi at the tips, to be replaced
    by cells from below
106
Q

State 2 situations how apoptosis work in deases?

A
  1. Cancer - - cells in tumours often don’t apoptose when
    they would have been expected to which results in increase in the tumour size and accumulation of genetic
    mutations. Often this is due to mutations in the P53
    gene, so the p53 protein can no longer detect DNA
    damage and instigate apoptosis.
  2. HIV - the HIV virus can induce apoptosis. It can induce
    apoptosis in CD4 helper cells which reduces their num- bers enormously to produce an immunodeficient state.
107
Q

What is necrosis?

A

It is the wholesale destruction of large numbers of cells by some
external factor.

108
Q

State 4 clinical examples of necrosis.

A
  1. Infarction due to loss of blood supply e.g. myocardial
    infarction, cerebral infarction
  2. Frostbite
  3. Toxic venom from reptiles and insects
  4. Pancreatitis
109
Q

What gene is known as the gatekeeper gene?

A

P53 Gene

110
Q

What happened after necrosis?

A

all the body can do is try to clear up the mess by macrophages phagocytosing dead cells and usually
by replacing the necrotic tissue by fibrous scar tissue (unless the tissue can regenerate).

111
Q

What is caseous necrosis?

A

(meaning like soft cheese) because that can
be due to tuberculosis so a pathologist would always order
stains for mycobacteria (e.g. Ziehl-Neelson or more sensi- tive PCR techniques) if she/he saw caseous necrosi

112
Q

What may cause the avascular necrosis of the head of femur?

A

fracture at the neck of the femur, thus cutting off the blood supply to the head of the femur

113
Q

What causes the necrosis of the bone in the wrist?

A

Scaphoid fracture

114
Q

What happens in pancreatitis?

A

Inflammation of the pancreas, it is retroperitoneal, the pancreas is full of enzyme, the pancreas will eat itself, discolouration in the flank, need operation to clear the necrosis

115
Q

The survicval rate of conception drops to 40 percent around which week?

A

2-3 weeks

116
Q

What happens when the zygote after conception is non-viable?

A

Early miscarriage

117
Q

What goes wrong in spinal bifida?

A

Cell migration (neural tube formation)

118
Q

What is commonly seen in patients with spina bifida?

A

Lower limb paralysis

119
Q

What are the three main types of spina bifida?

A
  1. Spina bifida occulta
  2. Meningocele
  3. Myelomeningocele
120
Q

What are the disease where cell migration fails?

A

cleft palate

121
Q

What happen in VSD?

A

Left ventricle has high pressure than right, causing systolic murmur

122
Q

Is clubfoot more commonly seen as environmental causage or genetic causage?

A

Environmental

123
Q

Why patient with Trisomy 21 Down syndrome will develop dementia?

A

Because the amyloid beta protein gene is on the same chromosome 21

124
Q

Is Mendelian inheritance theory one gene or multiple genes?

A

One gene

125
Q

What is the example of autosomal co-dominant?

A

Blood group

126
Q

What is the protein that accumulated in Huntington’s disease?

A

Huntingtin

127
Q

What do you call when a lot of gene are inherited at once?

A

Polygenic inheritance

128
Q

Pituitary adenoma affects what hormone?

A

Growth Hormone

129
Q

What disease is acquired disease but can be congenital?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

130
Q

What disease is acquired disease but can be congenital?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

131
Q

What are the facial characteristic of patient with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A
  1. Small eyes openings
  2. Smooth philtrum
  3. Thin upper lip
132
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A
  1. increase in the size of an organ due to an increase in the size of its constituent cells
  2. occurs in organs where cells cannot divide
  3. examples - skeletal muscle in athletes/bodybuilders
133
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A
  1. increase in the size of an organ due to increase in the
    number of its constituent cells
  2. occurs in organs where cells can divide
  3. examples - benign prostatic hyperplasia, endometrial
    hyperplasia
134
Q

What is mixed hypertrophyhyperplasia?

A
  1. increase in the size of an organ due to increase in size
    and number of its constituent cells
  2. occurs in organs where cells can divide
  3. example - smooth muscle cells of the uterus during
    pregnancy
135
Q

What is atrophy? Example of atrophy?

A
  1. decrease in size of an organ due to decrease in size or
    number of its constituent cells or both
  2. Alzheimer’s dementia, quadriceps muscle
    following knee injuries
136
Q

What is metaplasia?

A
  1. change in cell differentiation from one fully-differentiated type to another fully-differentiated type
  2. usually caused by a consistent change in the environment of an epithelial surface
137
Q

What are the examples of metaplasia?

A
  1. bronchial epithelium from ciliated columnar
    epithelium to squamous epithelium in the face of continued cigarette smoke
  2. oesophageal squamous epithelium to glandular epithelium in continued acid reflux from the stomach (Barrett’s oesophagus)
  3. the uterine cervix from columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium at puberty when it is exposed to the acidic environment of the vagina
138
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

morphological changes that
may be seen in cells (often epithelium) in the progression on to development of cancer (neoplasia)

139
Q

What is the spectrum of dysplasia?

A

Mild, Moderate, Severe, Carcinoma in situ, invasive cancer

140
Q

What are the examples of dysplasia?

A
  • bronchial epithelium in cigarette smokers:
    metaplasia from ciliated columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium, then
    development of dysplasia in the squamous epithelium
141
Q

What are the different types of hypertrophy?

A
  1. Myofibril hypertrophied muscles
  2. Sarcoplasmic hypertrophied muscles
142
Q

Which gene does mutation happen where there is huge muscles in cow?

A

myostatin gene mutation

143
Q

What is the upper limit of human life span?

A

120-130 year olds

144
Q

What is the name of the limit that determines how many times a cell can divide?

A

the Hayflick limit

145
Q

Why Skin cells from older people will divide less times in culture than those from younger people ?

A

at each cell division the telomere region at the end of chromosomes shortens and eventually becomes so short that it is not possible for the chromosomes to divide and replicate so the cell can no longer divide. Telomere length appears to be paternally-inherited.

146
Q

What is the name of the condition where ageing is greatly accelerated and these are often due to mutations in cell membrane proteins which make cell division impossible.

A

progeria

147
Q

What are the damages that can interfere cell division?

A
  1. Damage to mitochondrial DNA
  2. Loss of DNA repair mechanism
  3. Peroxidation of membranes
  4. Free radical generation
  5. Time-dependent activation of ageing and death genes
  6. Telomere shortening
  7. Accumulation of toxic by products by metabolism
  8. Cross Linking or mutation of DNA
  9. Cross linking of protein
  10. Loss of calcium influx controls
148
Q

What is the only definitive method to slow down ageing?

A

calorie restriction

149
Q

What are the specific local measures to reduce ageing to specific body part?

A

high sun protection factor cream to reduce UV cross-linking of proteins in the dermis.

150
Q

What are the example effects of ageing to different parts of the bodies?

A
  1. Skin - wrinkling of skin (dermal elastosis) is caused by
    UV-B light causing cross-linking of the proteins, especially collagen, in the dermis. Can be reduced by avoiding too much sun exposure and using high sun protection factor cream.
  2. Eyes - cataracts are cause by UV-B cross-linking of pro- teins in the lens causing opacity. Can be prevented by
    wearing sunglasses that cut out UV light. Can be treated
    by replacement of the lens with a plastic implant.
  3. Osteoporosis - loss of bone matrix predominantly in
    women after menopause. Can be prevented by hormone replacement therapy at menopause and calcium/
    vitamin D supplements.
  4. Dementia - may be Alzheimer’s type or vascular dementia. Alzheimer’s dementia doesn’t as yet have a fully un- derstood pathogenesis but there are genetic factors and lifestyles factors which can prevent it e.g. exercise, not being obese. Vascular dementia has the same risk factors as atherosclerosis in other parts of the body e.g. high blood pressure, hyperlipidaemia, poorly-controlled diabetes
  5. Loss of muscle (sarcopaenia) - may be the thing that
    prevents independent living in older people due to prob- lems such as getting out of chairs and upstairs. May well
    be caused by reduced levels of growth hormone and
    testosterone in later life. Can be prevented by regular
    exercise, including resistance/weight training.
  6. Deafness - the hair cells in the cochlear do not divide so
    if they are damaged by high volumes they will die and
    not be replaced eventually producing deafness. Prevention = avoidance of high-volume sounds throughout life.
151
Q

What are the 2 factors that cause age to have a limit?

A

cell division, telomeres, enable chromosome to replicate, too short to allow cell division sometimes

152
Q

What are the causes of inflammation?

A
  • Necrosis/infarction/direct trauma
  • Infection (bacterial, viruses, fungi, protozoa, parasites)
  • Chemical or other physical agents, including radiotherapy
  • Autoimmune reactions, particularly hypersensitivity states
153
Q

What are the features of inflammation?

A
  • Redness
  • pain
  • swelling (oedema)
  • loss of function
  • heat
154
Q

What are the types of inflammation?

A

Acute
* Polymorph neutrophils with later macrophages
Chronic
* Lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages
* Sometimes groups of epithelioid macrophages (granulomas)

155
Q

What are the types of inflammation?

A

Acute
* Polymorph neutrophils with later macrophages
Chronic
* Lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages
* Sometimes groups of epithelioid macrophages (granulomas)

156
Q

What most likely causes sarcoid?

A

mycobacterium

157
Q

What causes rebound tenderness.

A

Acute inflammation like acute appendicitis

158
Q

How to deal with pus?

A

Drainage of pus using aspiration
Drainage by cutting it open

159
Q

How to deal with sepsis due to diverticular disease?

A

Surgery with antibiotic and wash the large bowel

160
Q

What cancer will not spread to other sites?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

161
Q

What cancer will not spread to other sites?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

162
Q

How to cure basal cell carcinoma?

A

Complete excision

163
Q

What are the common symptoms of leukemia?

A

Systemic:
Weight loss, fever, frequent infection

Lung: SOB

Muscular Weakness

Bones or joints: Pain or tenderness

Psychological: Fatigues loss of appetite

Swelling lymph node

Enlargement of spleen and liver

Skin: Night sweat, bleeding and bruising, purplish patches of spots
,

164
Q

Where does carcinoma usually spread to?

A

Lymph nodes that drain the site of carcinoma

164
Q

Where does carcinoma usually spread to?

A

Lymph nodes that drain the site of carcinoma

165
Q

Carcinoma can spread through what to where?

A

Spread through blood to bone

166
Q

What are the cancer that commonly spread to bone?

A

Breast, prostate, lung, thyroid, kidney

167
Q

What is required when breast cancer has spread to the axilla?

A

Axilla node clearance

168
Q

What could be present even if the tumour is compeltely excised?

A

Micro metastases

169
Q

What is adjuvant therapy?

A

Extra treatment given after surgical excision like radiotherapy

170
Q

Can basal cell carcinoma kill people?

A

Yes, but not by metastasis

171
Q

Where can we take the biopsy when there is leukamia?

A

bone marrow

172
Q

What therapy does people with leukamia need?

A

Systemic chemotherapy

173
Q

What scan do we use to observe the enlargement of lymph node?

A

Ultrasound scan

173
Q

What scan do we use to observe the enlargement of lymph node?

A

Ultrasound scan

174
Q

Where does oestrogen receptor live?

A

In the nucleus of the breast cell

175
Q

What is the adjuvant anti-oestrogen therapy given to breast cancer patient?

A

Tamoxifen

176
Q

What type of cancer metastases quite frequently?

A

Melanoma

177
Q

What is the main effector cell in acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophils

178
Q

What is the cell that produce collagen in fibrous scarring?

A

Fibroblast

179
Q

Which of the following is an example of acute inflammation?
1.Glandular fever
2. Leprosy
3. Appendicitis
4. Tuberculosis

A

Appendicitis

180
Q

AppendicitisIn which of the following does granulomatous inflammation occur?
1. Crohn’s disease
2. Appendictis
3. Infectious mononucleosis
4. lobar pneumonia

A

Crohn;s disease

181
Q

Which of the following is a chronic inflammatory process from its start?

A

Infectious mononucleosis

182
Q

Example of hyperplasia?

A

Benngn prostate enlargement/hyperplasia (BPHBenign)

183
Q

Which of the following example is not a type of apoptosis?
a. loss of cell from duodenal villi tips
b. loss of cells during embryogenesis
c. renal infarction
d. graft versus host disease

A

renal infarction

184
Q

Which of the following is an example of atrophy?
1. Biceps of a body builder
2. Uterus in pregnancy
3. Brain dementia
4. Prostate in older age

A
  1. Brain dementia
185
Q

What is the pattern of differentiation of the metaplastic lining the bronchi of cigarette smokers

A

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells > simple squamous epithelial cells

186
Q

Which of the following is an example of necrosis?
1. loss of cells from duodenal tips
2. loss of individual cells in graft versus host disease
3. loss of individual cells during development
4. renal cells infarction

A

renal cells infarction

187
Q

What process is defined by the formation of solid mass of blood constituents within intact vessels druing life?

A

Thrombosis

188
Q

Name a drug that inhibits platelet aggregation.

A

Low-dose aspirin

189
Q

What is carcinogenesis?

A

The transformation of normal cells to neoplastic cells through permanent genetic alteration or mutation

190
Q

What is the difference between carcinoegnesis and oncogenesis?

A

carcinogenesis is for maligannt neoplasm while oncogenesis is for both benign and malignant neoplasm

191
Q

How many percentage of cancer risk is environmental?

A

85%

192
Q

What is the primary cancer of the liver?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma, often common in places with high hepatitis B/C

193
Q

Where is oesophageal carcinoma popular at?

A

Japan and china due to linhsien chicken and turkey and iran due to the scaldingly hot coffee

194
Q

Lung cancer prence and is associated wtih?

A

35k death annually, smoking

195
Q

What is bladder cancer associated with?

A

Aniline dye, rubber indusrty, β-naphthylamine
β-naphthylamine

196
Q

What is bladder cancer associated with?

A

Aniline dye, rubber indusrty

197
Q

Scrotal cancer is associated with?

A

Chimney sweep, β-naphthylamine

198
Q

What does chernobyl cause?

A

Thyroid cancer

198
Q

What are the classes of carciogenes?

A

chemical, viral, ionising and non-onising radiation, hormones and parasite and mycotoxin, miscellanous

199
Q

Most chemical carcinogen require conversion from what to what?

A

pro-carcinogen to ultimate carcinogen

200
Q

What can polycyclic aromatic cause?

A

Lung cancer, skin cancer (due to smaoking and min

201
Q

What can aromatic amine cause?

A

Bladder cancer (due to rubber/dye worker)

202
Q

What can nitrosamine cause?

A

Gut cancer

203
Q

What can alkylating agents cause?

A

Leukaemia

204
Q

Viruses cause how many percentage of cancer?

A

10-15%

205
Q

What does Human Herpes Virus 8
cause?

A

Kaposi sarcoma

206
Q

What does Epstein Barr Virus cause?

A

Burkitt lymphoma,
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

207
Q

What does Hepatitis B Virus
cause?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

208
Q

What does Human papillomavirus
cause?

A

Squamous cell carcinomas of the cervix, penis, anus, head and neck

209
Q

What does Merkle cell polyomavirus
cause?

A

Merkle cell carcinoma

210
Q

What does Human T-lymphotrophic virus
cause?

A

Adult T-cell leukaemia

211
Q

Exposure to UVA, UVB increase the risk of?

A

basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma ( increase risk in xeroderma pigmentosum

212
Q

What type of cancer will uranium miner usually have ?

A

lung cancer

213
Q

What type of cancer will Ukrainian children usually have?

A

Thyroid cancer

214
Q

What does high oestrogen cause?

A

Mammary or endometrial cancer

215
Q

What does high anabolic steroid cause

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

216
Q

What does aflatoxin B1 cause?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

217
Q

What does Clonorchis sinesis cause?

A

cholangiocarcinoma

218
Q

What does Shistosoma cause?

A

bladder cancer

219
Q

Oral cancer is common in which area?

A

India and SE asia because of reverse smoking

220
Q

Lower skin cancer in those with?

A

Draker skin

221
Q

Excess alcohol use increases risk of cancers of ?

A

mouth, oesophagus, liver, colon and breast

222
Q

Obesity increases risk of ?

A

Breast, colon cancer

223
Q

Premalignant conditions that cause cancer?

A

Colonic polyps
Cervical dysplasia (CIN)
Ulcerative colitis
Undescended testis

224
Q

Relate ECG changes with pericarditis.

A

ECG changes not because of the pericardium is inflamed, but because its closed to myocardium, we get ECG changes

225
Q

Do you do echo when patient has acute tamponade?

A

If theres acute tamponade, we drain it immediately, we dont do echo otherwise the patient will die

226
Q

Talk about tamponade, calcification and pericarditis.

A

Tamponade rarely occur at pericaridits, but when it does, constriction happens and calcification happens, surgery has to be done and the calcium needs to be scrap off from the heart manually by the surgeon

Phase 2A (11 decks)

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