ICND1 - Study Guide 2 Flashcards
What enables multiple VLANs to be routed on a single interface?
a. Router on a Stick
b. Multiple interfaces
c. VLAN Trunking Protocol
d. DTP
a. Router on a Stick
Which routing protocol has an administrative distance of 90 and uses a code of D?
a. OSPF
b. EIGRP
c. DUAL
d. DGP
e. RIP
b. EIGRP
A switch has 24 ports and 2 VLANs how many Collision and Broadcast domains are there? (Collison/Broadcast)
a. 24, 1
b. 2, 24
c. 2, 2
d. 24, 24
e. 24, 2
e. 24, 2
Which feature prevents routing protocols from sending HELLO packets?
a. Default-information originate
b. Shutdown
c. Passive-Interface
d. EIGRP AS 1
c. Passive-Interface
With router on a stick configured, which of the following is true?
a. Router on a stick uses subinterfaces for each VLAN in the same subnet
b. Router on a stick uses subinterfaces for each subnet on the same VLAN
c. Router on a stick uses subinterfaces for each VLAN on a different subnet
d. Router on a stick uses subinterfaces for different subnets on the same VLAN
c. Router on a stick uses subinterfaces for each VLAN on a different subnet
In 6to4 tunneling, both endpoints must support IPv4 and IPv6.
a. True
b. False
a. True
When a router prepares to send a packet after it has checked the routing table, what portion of the packet is replaced?
a. Transport header port numbers
b. IP header source and destination addresses
c. Data-link source and destination addresses
d. Nothing is changed to preserve routing information
c. Data-link source and destination addresses
Which network topology has a central point of failure?
a. Star
b. Hub
c. Bus
d. Ring
e. Mesh
a. Star
The native VLAN is:
a. Disabled by default
b. Tagged by default
c. Vlan 0
d. Untagged by default
d. Untagged by default
Before setting up a FTP connection to a remote server across the internet, what must first happen?
a. A UDP connection established between the endpoint and the router
b. A TCP connection established between the endpoint and the FTP server
c. A UDP connection established between the endpoint and the FTP server
d. A TCP connection established between the endpoint and the router
b. A TCP connection established between the endpoint and the FTP server
A user is on the local company network and is experiencing sporadic network connectivity issues, what is a possible reason?
a. Multicast storms
b. Access Control List misconfiguration
c. Broadcast storms
d. Layer 1 cable issues
c. Broadcast storms
What does the exec-timeout 10 command do?
a. Set the timeout to 10 seconds
b. Set the timeout to 10 minutes
c. Set the timeout to not occur after 10 seconds
d. Set the timeout to not occur after 10 minutes
b. Set the timeout to 10 minutes
What makes a layer 2 switch different from a hub?
a. It decreases collision domains
b. It separates devices
c. It increases collision domains
d. It decreases broadcast domains
e. It increases broadcast domains
c. It increases collision domains
A 192.168.0.0 /28 address is being used for a network, which of the following IP addresses are usable within the same subnet? (CHOOSE 2)
a. 192.168.0.77
b. 192.168.0.15
c. 192.168.0. 32
d. 192.168.0.65
e. 192.168.0.7
f. 192.168.0.0
a. 192.168.0.77
d. 192.168.0.65
What is it called when we permit one public IP address to handle many private IP addresses?
a. Static NAT
b. Nat Pool
c. Dynamic Nat
d. Overload
d. Overload
Of the following, which routing protocol has the lowest AD?
a. RIP
b. EIGRP
c. iBGP
d. eBGP
e. OSPF
f. ISIS
d. eBGP
Which of the following routing protocols uses only bandwidth as its metric?
a. RIP
b. EIGRP
c. OSPF
d. Static
e. BGP
c. OSPF
What is CSMA/CD? (CHOOSE 2)
a. The process of CSMA detecting if the line is in use, and if it is, letting others transmit.
b. The process of CSMA detecting if the line is in use and if it is, stopping devices from transmitting.
c. The process of ensuring all devices run an identical timer before checking the line to transmit if a collision has occurred previously.
d. The process of ensuring all devices run a random timer before checking the line to transmit if a collision had occurred previously.
b. The process of CSMA detecting if the line is in use and if it is, stopping devices from transmitting.
d. The process of ensuring all devices run a random timer before checking the line to transmit if a collision had occurred previously.
If a category 6a cable is being used and is ran across a field measuring 145 meters, what possible issues could occur?
a. Early collisions
b. Runts
c. Giants
d. Input errors
e. Late Collisions
e. Late Collisions
What is the best way to separate two departments in an organization when they are on a network that has too many hosts?
a. Implement another switch with VLANs so that they can communicate and increase broadcasts.
b. Implement VLANs with a router so that they can communicate and increase the broadcast domain count.
c. Implement a router with VLANs so they can communicate and decrease broadcast domains.
d. Implement a switch so that they can communicate but be on different switches to prevent broadcasts.
b. Implement VLANs with a router so that they can communicate and increase the broadcast domain count.
Which VLANs are not able to be used and are considered reserved? (CHOOSE 2)
a. 1
b. 10
c. 0
d. 4000
e. 1001
f. 1003
g. 4095
c. 0
g. 4095
What is it called when devices use a group of NAT IP addresses for communication?
a. Static
b. Dynamic
c. Pool
d. Overload
c. Pool
What device can have two radios that transmit on 2.4Ghz and 5 Ghz?
a. Wireless LAN controller
b. Antenna
c. Access Point
d. Parabolic Dish
c. Access Point
What is used when a router chooses the best route and inserts it into the routing table?
a. Netmask
b. Prefix
c. Next Hop
d. Interface
b. Prefix
When would it be a good idea to use static routing instead of a routing protocol? (CHOOSE 2)
a. When traversing a high bandwidth link
b. When traversing a link from an isolated remote office
c. When traversing a link with low bandwidth
d. When traversing a link with multiple endpoints
b. When traversing a link from an isolated remote office
c. When traversing a link with low bandwidth
When looking at a routing table and examining the next hop, what is identified?
a. The IP address of the interface of the next hop
b. The prefix of the next hop
c. The interface of the next hop router
d. The metric of the interface of the next hop
e. The metric of the next hop
a. The IP address of the interface of the next hop
What address permits a device to contact other devices on other subnets with just one address?
a. Unicast
b. Broadcast
c. Anycast
d. Multicast
d. Multicast
When configuring DHCP locally, the subinterface on a router needs to be in the same subnet in order for the devices to use the DHCP pool.
a. True
b. False
a. True
A network director wants all MAC addresses on a switch to be learned dynamically and have those MAC addresses recorded to the running configuration, what port security setting must be used?
a. Port-security mode restrict
b. Port-security static MAC
c. Port-security mode protect
d. Port-security dynamic
e. Port-security mode shutdown
f. Port-security sticky MAC
f. Port-security sticky MAC
What must be enabled on a Cisco switch so that Cisco phones may function?
a. STP
b. VTP
c. DTP
d. NTP
e. CDP
f. LT2P
e. CDP
How would you configure a administrative distance for a static route other than the default?
a. Ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0
b. Ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 1
c. Ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1 10
d. Ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1 AD 10
e. Ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.1
c. Ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1 10
CEF can be disabled by:
a. Using the ip route-cache command
b. Using the no CEF command
c. Using IPv6 disables CEF
d. Using tunnels disabled CEF
a. Using the ip route-cache command
