ICH Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)?
A) Rupture of a saccular aneurysm
B) Rupture of a small penetrating artery
C) Traumatic brain injury
D) Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis

A

Answer: B) Rupture of a small penetrating artery
Rationale: Hypertensive ICH occurs due to spontaneous rupture of small penetrating arteries, primarily in deep brain structures such as the basal ganglia, thalamus, cerebellum, and pons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is the most common site of hypertensive ICH?
A) Occipital lobe
B) Basal ganglia (putamen)
C) Hippocampus
D) Corpus callosum

A

Answer: B) Basal ganglia (putamen)
Rationale: The putamen (part of the basal ganglia) is the most common site of hypertensive ICH due to the vulnerability of small penetrating arteries to chronic hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which clinical sign is most suggestive of a putaminal hemorrhage?
A) Ipsilateral ataxia
B) Contralateral hemiparesis
C) Cortical blindness
D) Bilateral lower limb weakness

A

Answer: B) Contralateral hemiparesis
Rationale: A putaminal hemorrhage often damages the adjacent internal capsule, leading to contralateral hemiparesis, facial sagging, slurred speech, and eye deviation away from the hemiparesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A patient with hypertensive ICH deteriorates to a comatose state with deep, irregular respiration, a dilated ipsilateral pupil, and decerebrate rigidity. What is the most likely explanation?
A) Status epilepticus
B) Early hydrocephalus
C) Upper brainstem compression
D) Cortical infarction

A

Answer: C) Upper brainstem compression
Rationale: Large hemorrhages can compress the upper brainstem, leading to coma, respiratory irregularities, a fixed ipsilateral pupil, and decerebrate posturing—indicating herniation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which imaging modality is the most appropriate for diagnosing hypertensive ICH?
A) MRI with contrast
B) Non-contrast CT scan
C) Digital subtraction angiography
D) PET scan

A

Answer: B) Non-contrast CT scan
Rationale: A non-contrast CT scan is the gold standard for diagnosing acute ICH, as it quickly identifies hyperdense hemorrhagic lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following conditions should be considered when ICH occurs in a non-hypertensive patient?
A) Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA)
B) Parkinson’s disease
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Bell’s palsy

A

Answer: A) Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA)
Rationale: Non-hypertensive causes of ICH include CAA, vascular malformations, neoplasms, vasculitis, and hemorrhagic disorders. CAA is particularly associated with lobar hemorrhages in elderly patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What pathological process occurs 1–6 months after a hypertensive ICH?
A) Complete hemorrhage resolution with no residual damage
B) Formation of a slitlike cavity with glial scarring
C) Continuous hematoma expansion
D) Transformation into a cystic neoplasm

A

Answer: B) Formation of a slitlike cavity with glial scarring
Rationale: Over 1–6 months, the hemorrhage is phagocytized by macrophages, leaving behind a slitlike cavity lined with a glial scar and hemosiderin-laden macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following symptoms is least common in hypertensive ICH?
A) Seizures
B) Headache
C) Vomiting
D) Progressive focal neurological deficit

A

Answer: A) Seizures
Rationale: Unlike lobar hemorrhages (which are more prone to seizures), hypertensive deep brain hemorrhages (e.g., basal ganglia, thalamus, pons) rarely present with seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which neurological deficit is most characteristic of a thalamic hemorrhage?
A) Ipsilateral hemiparesis
B) Contralateral hemiplegia with prominent sensory loss
C) Bilateral weakness
D) Pure motor deficit without sensory involvement

A

Answer: B) Contralateral hemiplegia with prominent sensory loss
Rationale: Thalamic hemorrhages often involve the internal capsule, leading to contralateral hemiplegia or hemiparesis with a prominent sensory deficit affecting all modalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A patient with a dominant thalamic hemorrhage is most likely to exhibit which of the following?
A) Fluent aphasia with impaired repetition
B) Non-fluent aphasia with preserved repetition
C) Global aphasia
D) Anomic aphasia

A

Answer: B) Non-fluent aphasia with preserved repetition
Rationale: In dominant thalamic hemorrhage, patients may have aphasia, often with preserved verbal repetition—a distinguishing feature compared to cortical aphasias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which ocular disturbance is most commonly associated with thalamic hemorrhage?
A) Upward gaze palsy
B) Horizontal gaze nystagmus
C) Downward and inward eye deviation (toward the nose)
D) Bilateral ptosis

A

Answer: C) Downward and inward eye deviation (toward the nose)
Rationale: Thalamic hemorrhages extending into the upper midbrain cause ocular disturbances, including downward and inward eye deviation, skew deviation, and paralysis of vertical gaze.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which syndrome is associated with chronic contralateral pain following thalamic hemorrhage?
A) Brown-Séquard syndrome
B) Déjérine-Roussy syndrome
C) Wallenberg syndrome
D) Horner’s syndrome

A

Answer: B) Déjérine-Roussy syndrome
Rationale: Déjérine-Roussy syndrome (thalamic pain syndrome) may develop later in patients after a thalamic hemorrhage, causing chronic contralateral pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common clinical presentation of a pontine hemorrhage?
A) Gradual onset hemiparesis
B) Deep coma with quadriplegia
C) Vertigo and tinnitus
D) Hemianopia

A

Answer: B) Deep coma with quadriplegia
Rationale: Pontine hemorrhages are rapidly catastrophic, leading to deep coma, quadriplegia, pinpoint pupils, and often death or a locked-in state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following ocular signs is most typical in pontine hemorrhage?
A) Bilateral mydriasis
B) Pinpoint reactive pupils
C) Upward gaze palsy
D) Bilateral ptosis

A

Answer: B) Pinpoint reactive pupils
Rationale: Pinpoint pupils (1 mm in size) that remain reactive to light are a hallmark of pontine hemorrhages, due to disruption of descending sympathetic pathways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which neurologic deficit is most indicative of an occipital lobe hemorrhage?
A) Dysphagia
B) Hemianopsia
C) Hemiparesis
D) Ataxia

A

Answer: B) Hemianopsia
Rationale: An occipital lobe hemorrhage typically presents with hemianopsia due to damage to the visual pathways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common cause of lobar hemorrhage in the elderly?
A) Hypertension
B) Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA)
C) Arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
D) Trauma

A

Answer: B) Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA)
Rationale: CAA is a common cause of lobar hemorrhage in the elderly, leading to single or recurrent hemorrhages due to amyloid deposition in cerebral vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which apolipoprotein E (ApoE) alleles are associated with an increased risk of recurrent lobar hemorrhage in CAA?
A) ε1 and ε3
B) ε2 and ε4
C) ε3 and ε4
D) ε1 and ε2

A

Answer: B) ε2 and ε4
Rationale: The ε2 and ε4 alleles of ApoE increase the risk of recurrent lobar hemorrhage in CAA, possibly due to their effects on vascular amyloid deposition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the recommended treatment for noninflammatory cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA)?
A) High-dose corticosteroids
B) Anticoagulation therapy
C) No specific treatment
D) Immunomodulatory therapy

A

Answer: C) No specific treatment
Rationale: Noninflammatory CAA has no specific treatment, but oral anticoagulants are avoided due to the high risk of hemorrhage.

19
Q

What is the most likely mechanism of intracranial hemorrhage in cocaine and methamphetamine use?
A) Direct vessel wall toxicity
B) Acute severe hypertension
C) Hypercoagulability
D) Autoimmune vasculitis

A

Answer: B) Acute severe hypertension
Rationale: Cocaine and methamphetamine use increases sympathetic activity, leading to severe hypertension, which can cause ICH, ischemic stroke, or subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH).

20
Q

In head trauma, which brain regions are most commonly affected by intraparenchymal hemorrhage?
A) Occipital and parietal lobes
B) Temporal and inferior frontal lobes
C) Thalamus and brainstem
D) Cerebellum and occipital lobe

A

Answer: B) Temporal and inferior frontal lobes
Rationale: Head injury often causes intraparenchymal hemorrhages in the temporal and inferior frontal lobes due to impact against the skull.

21
Q

Which type of hematologic disorder is most commonly associated with multiple intracranial hemorrhages?
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Leukemia and thrombocytopenia
C) Hemophilia A
D) Polycythemia vera

A

Answer: B) Leukemia and thrombocytopenia
Rationale: Leukemia, aplastic anemia, and thrombocytopenic purpura can lead to multiple ICHs, often accompanied by skin and mucosal bleeding.

22
Q

Which tumor type is most commonly associated with intracranial hemorrhage?
A) Meningioma
B) Glioblastoma multiforme
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Schwannoma

A

Answer: B) Glioblastoma multiforme
Rationale: Glioblastoma multiforme, choriocarcinoma, malignant melanoma, renal cell carcinoma, and bronchogenic carcinoma are frequently associated with hemorrhagic metastases.

23
Q

What imaging finding is characteristic of hypertensive encephalopathy?
A) Temporal lobe hemorrhage
B) Reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy
C) Subdural hematoma
D) Midbrain infarction

A

Answer: B) Reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy
Rationale: Hypertensive encephalopathy presents with reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome (PRES), which predominantly affects the occipital and frontal lobes.

24
Q

In cases of venous sinus thrombosis causing intracranial hemorrhage, what is the preferred treatment?
A) Antiplatelet therapy
B) IV anticoagulation
C) Emergency decompressive surgery
D) High-dose steroids

A

Answer: B) IV anticoagulation
Rationale: Despite the presence of hemorrhage, IV anticoagulation is used to reduce venous hypertension, limit venous infarction, and prevent further ICH progression.

25
What is the most reliable imaging modality for detecting acute intracerebral hemorrhage? A) MRI B) CT scan C) Positron emission tomography (PET) D) Ultrasound
Answer: B) CT scan Rationale: CT imaging is the gold standard for detecting acute focal hemorrhages, as it quickly and accurately visualizes blood in the brain.
26
Why might small pontine or medullary hemorrhages be difficult to detect on CT imaging? A) Lack of hemorrhage contrast B) Low CT resolution C) Motion and bone-induced artifact in the posterior fossa D) Hemorrhages do not occur in the brainstem
Answer: C) Motion and bone-induced artifact in the posterior fossa Rationale: Posterior fossa hemorrhages (especially in the pons or medulla) may be obscured by motion artifacts or bone-related interference on CT.
27
After the first 2 weeks, what happens to the x-ray attenuation values of clotted blood on a CT scan? A) They remain the same B) They increase due to calcium deposition C) They decrease until the hematoma becomes isodense with the brain D) They disappear completely
Answer: C) They decrease until the hematoma becomes isodense with the brain Rationale: Over time, clotted blood undergoes resorption, causing a gradual decrease in attenuation, making it isodense with surrounding brain tissue on CT.
28
A patient presents with an ICH that enhances on a postcontrast CT scan with a small bright spot inside the hematoma. What does this "spot sign" indicate? A) Past ischemic stroke B) Ongoing bleeding and high risk of hematoma expansion C) Calcification within the hematoma D) Resolution of the hemorrhage
Answer: B) Ongoing bleeding and high risk of hematoma expansion Rationale: The "spot sign" on CTA or postcontrast CT suggests active contrast extravasation, which is associated with increased hematoma growth, higher mortality, and worse outcomes.
29
In which of the following situations is MRI more useful than CT for evaluating intracerebral hemorrhage? A) Identifying acute hemorrhages B) Detecting posterior fossa lesions C) Determining hematoma volume D) Screening for ischemic stroke
Answer: B) Detecting posterior fossa lesions Rationale: MRI is more sensitive for posterior fossa hemorrhages due to fewer bone-induced artifacts compared to CT.
30
Which imaging modality is most useful in identifying an underlying vascular malformation (e.g., AVM) as the cause of an ICH? A) Noncontrast CT B) CT angiography (CTA) C) Electroencephalography (EEG) D) Skull X-ray
Answer: B) CT angiography (CTA) Rationale: CTA, MRI, and conventional angiography can detect vascular abnormalities like AVMs that may have caused the hemorrhage.
31
Why is lumbar puncture (LP) generally avoided in patients with suspected ICH? A) It has no diagnostic value B) It does not differentiate between ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke C) It can induce cerebral herniation in patients with increased ICP D) It worsens coagulopathy
Answer: C) It can induce cerebral herniation in patients with increased ICP Rationale: LP is contraindicated in ICH because it can cause a pressure gradient leading to brain herniation in patients with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP).
32
What imaging feature may appear 2–4 weeks after an ICH and persist for months? A) Hyperintense edema on MRI B) A surrounding rim of contrast enhancement C) A resolving hypodense hematoma D) A calcified hematoma
Answer: B) A surrounding rim of contrast enhancement Rationale: A contrast-enhancing rim may appear 2–4 weeks after hemorrhage due to reactive changes and can persist for months.
33
What is the preferred method for rapid correction of coagulopathy in a patient taking vitamin K antagonists (VKAs)? A) Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) B) Prothrombin complex concentrates (PCCs) with vitamin K C) Platelet transfusion D) Idarucizumab
Answer: B) Prothrombin complex concentrates (PCCs) with vitamin K Rationale: PCCs are preferred for rapid correction of VKA-induced coagulopathy as they can be administered quickly with vitamin K, while FFP requires larger fluid volumes and takes longer. Idarucizumab is specific for dabigatran, and platelet transfusions are used for thrombocytopenia rather than VKA reversal.
34
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding reversal agents for anticoagulants? A) Andexanet alfa is used to reverse the effects of dabigatran. B) Idarucizumab reverses the anticoagulation effect of rivaroxaban. C) PCCs may partially reverse the effects of oral factor Xa inhibitors. D) Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is the first-line reversal agent for oral Xa inhibitors.
Answer: C) PCCs may partially reverse the effects of oral factor Xa inhibitors. Rationale: PCCs can be used if andexanet alfa (a specific reversal agent for Xa inhibitors like apixaban and rivaroxaban) is unavailable. Idarucizumab specifically reverses dabigatran, and FFP is not preferred for reversing Xa inhibitor
35
A patient with intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) and thrombocytopenia (platelet count <50,000/μL) should receive which of the following treatments? A) Andexanet alfa B) Platelet transfusion C) Glucocorticoids D) Idarucizumab
Answer: B) Platelet transfusion Rationale: Patients with ICH and thrombocytopenia (<50,000/μL) should receive platelet transfusions to improve clotting. Andexanet alfa and idarucizumab are specific reversal agents for anticoagulants, and glucocorticoids are not effective for ICH-related edema.
36
In which scenario is surgical evacuation of a cerebellar hematoma most likely required? A) Hematoma diameter <1 cm without focal brainstem signs B) Hematoma diameter >3 cm C) Any cerebellar hemorrhage, regardless of size D) Cerebellar hemorrhage with normal consciousness and no hydrocephalus
Answer: B) Hematoma diameter >3 cm Rationale: Cerebellar hematomas >3 cm in diameter generally require surgical evacuation, whereas smaller hematomas (1–3 cm) require observation for worsening symptoms. Hematomas <1 cm in diameter without focal brainstem signs usually do not require surgery.
37
Which of the following is NOT recommended for the treatment of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in patients with intracerebral hemorrhage? A) Osmotic therapy B) Hyperventilation as a long-term strategy C) Ventricular CSF drainage D) Blood pressure management
Answer: B) Hyperventilation as a long-term strategy Rationale: Hyperventilation can cause cerebral vasoconstriction and ischemia, so it should be limited to acute resuscitation in cases of presumptive high ICP and eliminated once other treatments are initiated. Osmotic therapy, CSF drainage, and blood pressure management are appropriate interventions.
38
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding arteriovenous malformations (AVMs)? A) AVMs always remain clinically silent throughout life. B) AVMs are acquired rather than congenital. C) AVMs can present with headache, seizures, or intracranial hemorrhage. D) AVMs are usually asymptomatic after the age of 30.
Answer: C) AVMs can present with headache, seizures, or intracranial hemorrhage. Rationale: AVMs are congenital and may become symptomatic due to hemorrhage, seizures, or headaches, typically between ages 10 and 30. They do not always remain silent, and some may cause severe neurological complications.
39
Which of the following factors increases the risk of AVM rupture? A) A larger AVM size B) History of prior AVM rupture C) Presence of cavernous malformations D) Absence of venous drainage
Answer: B) History of prior AVM rupture Rationale: Previously ruptured AVMs have a significantly higher annual hemorrhage rate (up to 17% in the first year) compared to unruptured AVMs (2–4%). Smaller AVMs, deep venous drainage, and intranidal aneurysms also increase rupture risk, but prior rupture is a major risk factor.
40
Which of the following conditions is associated with familial AVMs? A) Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Osler-Rendu-Weber syndrome) B) Marfan syndrome C) Neurofibromatosis type 2 D) Wilson's disease
Answer: A) Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Osler-Rendu-Weber syndrome) Rationale: Some familial cases of AVM are linked to Osler-Rendu-Weber syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in genes involved in TGF-beta signaling and angiogenesis.
41
What is the gold standard imaging modality for evaluating AVM anatomy? A) Noncontrast CT B) MRI C) Digital subtraction angiography D) Ultrasound
Answer: C) Digital subtraction angiography Rationale: While MRI is superior to CT for detecting AVMs, conventional x-ray angiography (digital subtraction angiography) is the gold standard for detailed anatomical evaluation.
42
Which of the following findings is NOT commonly associated with AVMs? A) Cortical or deep brain location B) Abnormal tangle of vessels forming an arteriovenous shunt C) Deposition of blood in the basal cisterns during rupture D) Increased venous pressure leading to venous ischemia
Answer: C) Deposition of blood in the basal cisterns during rupture Rationale: Unlike aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), AVM rupture typically results in intraparenchymal hemorrhage with possible subarachnoid extension, but blood is usually not deposited in the basal cisterns.
43
What is the appropriate management for incidentally found venous anomalies? A) Surgical resection B) Endovascular embolization C) Conservative management D) Stereotactic radiosurgery
Answer: C) Conservative management Rationale: Venous anomalies are functional venous channels and generally of little clinical significance. Resection can cause venous infarction, so they should be left alone unless associated with cavernous malformations that pose a bleeding risk.