Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATPL - Air Law > ICAO 8168: PANS-OPS > Flashcards

ICAO 8168: PANS-OPS Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Civil Procedure 1L flashcards MBE flashcards MPRE flashcards
1
Q

Minimum obstacle clearance is divided in to … parts called … and …

A

2

primary volume (close to track where full obstacle clearance is guaranteed)

secondary volume (outside the primary where decreasing obstacle clearance is provided)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Width of obstacle clearance volume increases with what distance?

A

Increases with increasing distance from runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fix tolerance for terminal area radar (TAR) within …NM is +/- …km (…NM)

A

20NM

1.5 KM (0.8 NM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fix tolerance for en-route surveillance radar (RSR) within 40NM is +/- …km (…NM)

A

+/- 3.1km (1.7NM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DME fix tolerance is …NM + …% of distance from antenna

A
  1. 25NM
  2. 25%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Minimum obstacle clearance at departure end of runway (ICAO abbreviation ???) is … and increases by … of the distance flown for straight out departures assuming turns less than

A

DER

0

0.8%

15 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MOC in turning area is at least …

A

294 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For an omnidirectional departure (aircraft able to turn in any direction after take-off), what is the minimum height to maintain runway extended centreline before turning on track?

A

394ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Terminal arrival altitudes (TAAs) provide 1000ft obstacle clearance within a circle of …nm radius which centres on the … or insome cases the … and intended for … approaches

A

25nm

IAF

Intermediate fix (IF)

RNAV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aircraft approach catergories

A=

B=

C=

D=

E=

A

<91kts

91-121

121-141

141-166

166-211

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Max angle of interception of initial approach segment for;

a) a precision approach
b) a non-precisionn approach

A

a = 90 degrees

b = 120 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a procedure turn?

What are the two types?

A

a manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track

Two types are the 45/180 and 80/260 procedure turns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a base turn?

A

consists of a specified outbound track and timing or DME distance from the facility, followed by a turn to intercept the inbound track where the tracks are not reciprocal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Obstacle clearance reduces to … during the intermediate approach segment

A

500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For a straight in approach, the angle formed by the final approach track and the runway centreline must not exceed? (two categories)

A

30 degrees for procedures restriceted to CAT A and B only

15 degrees for other categories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The final approach fix should not be more than … from the landing surface

A

10NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

On an ILS or MLS approach, the final approach segment begins at the … and ends at the …

A

final approach point (not fix)

missed approach point (MAPt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nominal missed appraoch climb gradient is …

A

2.5%

19
Q

How far does the buffer area extend beyond the holding area?

A

5NM

20
Q

Published minimum holding altitude is rounded (up or down?) to the nearest …m or …ft

A

up

50m

100ft

21
Q

Holding procedures described in what section of the AIP?

A

ENR

22
Q

Turns in a hold should be made at a bank angle of … or at a rate of …

A

25 degrees

3 degrees per second

(which ever requires the lesser bank)

23
Q

What hold entry for a sector one entry?

A

Parallel entry

24
Q

How to remember the three hold entry sectors?

A

Sector one is 110 degrees from the inbound track centre line in the direction of the race track.

sector 3 is 180 degrees from there and sector 2 makes up the remaining portion

25
Q

What hold entry for a sector 2 entry?

A

Offest entry

26
Q

What hold entry for sector 3 entry?

A

Direct entry

27
Q

Describe a sector 1 hold entry

A

At the fix follow the reciprocal of the inbound leg, then at appropriate time or distance, turn left to either intercept the inbound track or return directly to the fix

28
Q

Describe a sector 2 hold entry

A

At the fix follow a track 30 degrees offset to the left of the reciprocal of the inbound track, then at required time or distance, turn right to join inbound track to the fix

29
Q

Describe a sector 3 hold entry

A

Fly directly to the fix and then turn right to start the outbound sector

30
Q

When holding using time instead of distance from fix, turns at the end of the outbound leg should be made after … if at or below …, or after … if above that

A

1 min

14 000ft/FL140

1.5 mins

31
Q

What is the zone of flexibility between hold sectors?

A

If the entry heading is within 5 degrees either side of the boundary, either entry procedure may be used

32
Q

Describe Mode 1 - independent parallel approaches

(3 items)

A

Parallel approaches with no radar seperation

Must be a no-transgression zone at least 2000ft wide between extended centrelines and shown on controller’s display

missed approach tracks must diverge by at least 30 degrees

33
Q

What are mode 2 - dependent parallel approaches?

A

Approaches which are made to parallel runways in which radar separation between aircraft using adjacent ILS are prescribed

34
Q

Independent parallel departures (mode 3) may be conducted from parallel runways provided there is suitable surveillance radar available capable of identifying aircraft within … from the end of the runway and departure tracks must diverge by at least … immediately after take-off

A

1 NM

15 degrees

35
Q

To use simultaneous instrument departure procedures and instrument approach procedures in the same direction on parallel runways (mode 4), the nominal tracks of the departure procedures and of the missed approach procedures must diverge by at least … as soon as practicable

A

30 degrees

36
Q

Minimum horizontal and vertical separation between aircraft using Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approach Procedures until fully established =

A

3nm radar separation

1000ft vertically

37
Q

Are procedure turns used with Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approach Procedures?

A

no, they are not permitted

38
Q

Using Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approach Procedures, the final vector to intercept the localiser must be less than …

A

30 degrees

39
Q

When using Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approach Procedures, the final vector must allow at least … NM of straight and level flight before localiser interception and must enable aircraft to be established on the localiser in level flight for at least …NM prior to intercepting the glide path

A

1NM

2NM

40
Q

When using Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approach Procedures, each parallel procedure will have a … side and a … side for vectoring, to provide vertical separation until aircraft are established inbound on their prospective ILS. Main objective is that both aircraft are fully established before the … ft vertical separation is reduced

A

high

low

1000

41
Q

transition altitudes rounded up to nearest …

A

1000ft

42
Q

transition levels rounded to the nearest …

A

500ft

43
Q

in a standard holding pattern, turns are made to the … at … degrees of bank or a rate one turn, whichever requires the lessor bank

A

right

25

ATPL - Air Law (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions