IC7 & 8: Chew Eng Hui Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of biosimilar?

A

A biologic that is almost an identical (or ideally identical) alternative version of the original biologic (called innovator biologic/reference biologic) that is manufactured by a different company -> term is reserved ONLY for biologics

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2
Q

Can a biosimilar be entirely identical to innovator biologic? Explain your answer.

A

No. Each biological product displays variability even between different batches of the same product due to the variability of the biological expression system and manufacturing process

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3
Q

State the 2 pathways for protein degradation

A

Lysosomal Degradation and Proteasomal Degradation

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4
Q

Describe the components of the 26S Proteasome

A

1) Composed of a 20S core particle capped by a 19S regulatory particle at one or both ends.

2) 20S core particle made up of 4 heptameric rings assembled to form cylindrical structure
o 2 outer rings (closer to upper lid) = 2 α subunits
o 2 inner rings (touching each other) = 2 β subunits
o Inner rings house a central cavity containing proteolytic active sites  at the walls; has protease activity
o Gate to 20S core particle is usually closed.

3) Degradation chamber reached through a channel running along the long axis of core particle

4) Narrow entrance to channel (13 Å) -> folded proteins partially unfolded (into more primary structure) before they can be translocated into the 20S core particle (non-ubiquitinated proteins cannot enter)
o Those in native conformation cannot enter -> not meant to be degraded
o Upon entering the channel, protein unfolds stretches along channel hydrolyzed to short peptides of 3-25 amino acids released from opposite end of channel

5) 19S regulatory particle arranged into lid and base.
o Contains ATPase subunits (energy dependent reaction), gates entrance to degradation channel and plays a role in substrate recognition, unfolding and translocation into the 20S core particle
o Some only present in lid and not base but either way, short peptides get released from the base.

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5
Q

How are substrates delivered to proteasome? (3 routes)

A

a. Substrates bind directly to proteasome by interacting with the 19S regulatory particle subunits

b. Substrates brought to proteasome by adaptor proteins that bind both proteasome and polyubiquitin chain on the substrate to deliver it for degradation.

c. Some protein substrates are degraded by proteasome without being ubiquitinated (minor path)

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6
Q

State why proteins have poor oral bioavailability

A
  1. Poor protein stability
    o Complex pH environments e.g. acidity of gastric fluids
    o Presence of digestive enzymes
  2. Poor permeability
    o Viscous mucus layer lining entire GIT -> high viscosity impedes speed that molecules can travel through (affects chemical drugs less as they are small)
    o Negatively charged intestinal epithelium (phospholipid bilayer) and tight junctions exist between epithelial cells to restrict absorption of hydrophilic peptides/proteins)
  3. Immune cells present in mucosal epithelia may recognize the administered peptide/proteins as foreign particles (the larger the protein, the more likely) and degraded.
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7
Q

List the strategies available to improve PK profile of protein therapeutics

A

1) N-linked Glycosylation

2) PEGylation

3) increase size by means of Fusion protein

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8
Q

Explain how glycosylation improves PK profile of protein therapeutics and state its potential disadvantages as well.

A
  • Increases circulation half life by increasing size of protein or modifying binding to glycoprotein receptors.

Potential Disadvantage:
1) Glycosylation may lead to decrease in efficacy of binding to receptors
o e.g Fucosylated anitbodies e.g human IgGs (contain N-linked glycans at Asn297) yet removal of Fucose (a type of glycan) improves binding of Fc domain of IgG to Fc receptor which is desired

2) Certain glycans are rapidly eliminated which may decrease circulation half-life of protein drugs.
o Engineering antibodies containing high mannose glycans found to be rapidly eliminated compared to other glycosylated antibodies. Mannose and asialoglycoprotein receptors believed to be responsible for rapid removal of these antibodies (May be good or bad depending on when you want the antibodies to be removed.)

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9
Q

Which form of PEGylyation (branched or linear) is more effective in extending half life?

A

Branched PEG is more effective than linear PEG in extending half life (but enhancement of half life is more significant for small molecules rather than big molecules)

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10
Q

Explain the ways that PEGylation improves circulation half life.

A

1) Increase in the size of conjugated protein
o Glomerular filtration of small proteins is retarded if PEG molecules with MW 40-50 kDa is conjugated to the proteins (cut off MW)

2) Decrease elimination by proteolysis (form protective layer on surface, decreasing chance for proteolytic enzymes to interact with and break down proteins.)

3) Decrease elimination by action of antibodies and activated immune cells
o PEG molecules form a protective layer on surface of protein molecules, decreasing recognition by antibodies or activated immune cells (e.g. macrophages, dendritic cells, NK cells, etc) -> escape tagging by antibodies
o This is also the property that make PEGylated proteins have reduced immunogenicity/antigenicity -> hence vaccines are usually not PEGylated as high immunogenicity is desired to create immune response to antigen.

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11
Q

Explain the ways that fusion proteins improves circulation half life and state potential drawbacks

A

1) Larger molecule, slower clearance

2) Fc domain of antibody or albumin fused to a therapeutic protein allows the protein to undergo FcRn mediated recycling

Drawback:
Fc domain may trigger unwanted effector functions -> trigger unwanted immune response.

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12
Q

State how proteins are metabolised

A

Via proteolysis by proteolytic enzymes (e.g. activated proteases; if protein drug not taken orally)

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13
Q

Are proteins substrates of CYP enzymes?

A

No

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14
Q

State where proteolysis may occur

A

1) In the interstitial fluid (extracellular fluid) present in tissues/organs.
o In the ECF, there are proteases released by activated immune cells and other cell types. Involved in proteolysis.
o There are immune cells lying in ambush in ECF  take part in phagocytosis and proteolysis

2) On cell surfaces -> proteases either bound to or secreted by cells

3) Intracellularly once protein drugs are taken up into cells (see protein degradation for more info)
o Proteases are not the ones found inside the lysosomes but are just present in the cytoplasm

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15
Q

State the routes whereby protein drugs may be eliminated

A

Protein drugs can be eliminated via:
* 1. Proteolytic degradation (extracellular and intracellular)
* 2. Renal (glomerular) filtration

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16
Q

What are the factors affecting renal excretion of proteins?

A

1) Cut off molecular weight of protein
o Proteins > ~50 kDa are not renal eliminated due to them being too big to pass through renal glomerular barrier.

2) Charge of protein
o Positively charged proteins have higher renal filtration than negatively charged proteins of same size due to negative charges on glomerular basement membrane.

3) Shape and rigidity of protein
o Affect how well proteins fit through the pores during glomerular filtration

4) Tubular reabsorption
o Tubular epithelium has net negative charge -> positively charged proteins get more reabsorbed
o Not all protein drugs will be reabsorbed -> need to study the true impact of charge on renal elimination for each individual protein

17
Q

State the rate limiting factors of SC/IM absorption

A

o Interstitial fluid transport rate (whether drug is transported by diffusion/convection, anatomical issues that affect diffusion/convection)
o Lymphatic transport rate (blockage, leaks, heart failure)

18
Q

Compare and contrast convection and diffusion

A

Diffusion:
- Movement of single particles from high to low concentrations.
- Inversely related to MW/size of proteins -> larger the protein the more limited the movement

Convection:
- Collective bulk movement of large mass of particles in interstitial fluid (flux is influenced by oncotic and hydrostatic pressure)
- Generally, not limited by MW unless the protein molecules are enormously large and gets entrapped in the ECM.
- Steric hindrance and charge interactions can influence -> ECM is negatively charged; favorable absorption if protein has overall negative charge as well

19
Q

In general,
- For larger proteins (> 16-20 kDa), absorption ______.
- For smaller proteins (< 16-20 kDa), absorption ______.

A

mostly occur via the lymphatic system (movement across capillary membrane slow)

can be via both circulatory and lymphatic systems.

20
Q

List some of the physical factors affecting protein stability (Recap from 1152, me skip).

A

1) Temperature
- Higher temp, greater potential to disrupt covalent forces stabilizing protein -> unfolding. Subsequent aggregation of denatured proteins is irreversible.

2) pH
- Disrupts the ionisation status of the bonds of side chains of the protein -> unfolding. Also affects chemical stability (hydrolysis, deamidation of aa)

3) Adsorption
- Can cause significant changes to secondary and tertiary structure of proteins

4) Shaking and shearing
- Incorporates air into solution -> creates air-liquid interfaces
- Proteins expose their hydrophobic groups to air surface -> unfolding

5) Photodegradation
- Aggregation upon exposure to light
- Side-chain cleavage of tryptophan

6) Non-aqueous solvents
- Disrupt protein’s hydration shell -> exposes protein to degradation/conformational changes

7) Repeated freeze-thawing

21
Q

List the chemical reactions that can affect protein stability (Recap from 1152, me skip).

A

1) Deamidation
2) Oxidation
3) Hydrolysis
4) Formation or breakage of disulfide bonds

22
Q

Describe the general process of recombinant protein manufacturing. (me skip)

A

1) Upstream
- Transfection of gene of interest into host cell lines for amplification
- Selection of the cell line with the best cell growth (highest protein yield etc) for propagation

2) Downstream
- Extraction (lysis of cell to obtain protein)
- Purification (removal of cell debris, nucleic acids, lipids; concentrate the protein of interest)
- Removal of contaminants (e.g. pyrogens)
- Formulation of product
- High costs incurred to adopt these processes

23
Q

List down some general strategies to stabilise protein pharmaceuticals. (1152 IC19, for gab to recite)

A

1) Chemical/substitutional modification (internal)
- Acylation
- PEGylation
- Amino acid substitution/modification
- Introduction of disulfide bond

2) Additives (external)
- Stabilizers (sugars, polyols)
- Antioxidants, preservatives (thimerosal, benzyl alcohol)
- Solubility enhancers (surfactants, lysine)
- Anti-aggregating agents (albumin, surfactants)
- Buffer components (phosphate salts)

24
Q

List some of the advantages of employing recombinant DNA technology in the manufacturing of biopharmaceuticals.

A

1) Overcome limitations in quantity of product from natural sources

2) Minimises the introduction of harmful pathogens (e.g. infectious viruses) into the products, that were isolated from natural sources (e.g. animals, plants). Produces safer biopharmaceuticals

3) An alternative way of manufacturing biopharmaceuticals

4) As some genes are synthetic, allows for engineered mutations to produce more desirable products (better efficacy, stability, longer circulation half-life etc)

24
Q

List some of the protocols/measures taken in quality control (for me to skip)

A

1) Bioassays -> measure the biological activity of product
2) Immunoassays -> quantify product
3) Mass spectrometry -> quantify proteins, determine purity
4) Peptide mapping -> identify proteins, determine purity
5) Amino acid analysis -> useful to characterise small products
6) N-terminal sequencing -> identify proteins
7) Isoelectric focusing -> determine sialic content in glycoproteins

25
Q

List some of the measures taken as part of safety testing of biopharmaceuticals. (me to skip)

A

1) SDS-PAGE -> separate proteins based on molar mass and native folding. Determine product variability
2) Colorimetric assays -> separate proteins based on isoelectric point. Combined w SDS-PAGE to add an additional layer of separation
3) DNA hybridisation -> identify any DNA contaminants
4) Rabbit pyrogen test -> identify any pyrogens
5) LAL test -> identify any endotoxins
6) Viral assays -> identify viral contaminants
7) In-vivo bioassays -> determine product safety in living animals

26
Q

How are therapeutic proteins generally degraded? (2 paths)

A

o Recognized as alien proteins and get taken up via endocytosis and end up in lysozymes that degrade them

OR

o Recognised as normal intracellular proteins (for those that resemble natural proteins) and get degraded by ubiquitin proteasomes at the end of their natural lifespan

27
Q

What is the minimum number of Ubiquitin monomers required for a functioning tag?

A

4

28
Q

Explain the process of FcRn RECYCLING

A
  1. IgG and albumin dissolved in blood (pH 7.4) taken up by endothelial cells by pinocytosis to form early endosomes.
  2. Acidic endosomes containing internalized FcRn fuse with endosomes containing IgG and albumin -> at acidic pH 5-6, FcRn binds to Fc domain of IgG or albumin to form FcRn-IgG or FcRn-albumin complex.
  3. FcRn-IgG or FcRn-albumin complexes recycled to cell surface -> exocytosis of IgG and albumin.
  4. Neutral pH of blood disfavors FcRn binding to IgG/albumin -> IgG/albumin dissociate from complex and released into blood. FcRn recycled as being re-expressed on cell surface.
  5. Proteins not bound to Fc sorted to lysosomes for degradation.
29
Q

Explain the process of FcRn mediated transcytosis.

A
  1. At apical side of mucosal epithelial cell, acidic pH allows binding of FcRn (expressed on apical surface) to ligands (IgG, albumin). Binding between FcRn and ligands can also occur within acidified endosomes (like in IgG and albumin recycling).

2 & 3. Further processing of FcRn-IgG and FcRn-albumin complexes.

  1. Endosomes fuse with basolateral side of epithelial cell (transcytosis), leading to exposure of complexes to neutral pH in interstitium -> release of IgG and albumin. FcRn recycled as being re-expressed on cell surface.
30
Q

What feature of liquid chromatography is able to tell you how heterogenous/ homogenous the glycosylation pattern is?

A

Multiple peaks reveal the highly heterogeneous pattern of glycosylation (less heterogenous = less peaks)