IC1 Flashcards

1
Q

lab diagnostics - culture medium - MacConkey agar

A
  • contains bile salts
  • for enteric gram -ve bacteria
  • differentiate lactose fermenting and non-lactose fermenting gram -ve bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

timeline from specimen collection to identification, culture, and susceptibility results

A

day 1: gram stain
day 2-3: culture bacteria
day 3-4: identify bacteria
day 3-5: Abx susceptibility testing (AST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bacterial identification & microscopic classification - macroscopic appearance

A

1) shape
2) size (diameter)
3) elevation (Side view)
4) margin of border/edge of colony
5) surface of colony (smooth, glistening, rough, dull)
6) opacity
7) colour of pigmentation
8) breakdown of blood cells in blood agar

  • complete haemolysis: beta-haemolytic streptococcus
  • partial haemolysis: alpha-haemolytic streptococcus
  • no haemolysis: gamma-haemolytic streptococcus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

bacterial identification & microscopic classification - microscopic

A
  • gram stain: +ve, -ve (pink cuz counterstain)
  • cocci, rod, curved, spiral
  • diplococci, cocci in cluster/chain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

bacterial identification & microscopic classification - growth environment

A

aerobic, anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

bacterial identification & microscopic classification - need for specific nutrients

A

1) fermenter: ability to ferment carb/sugar
2) non-fermenter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

bacterial identification & microscopic classification - produce specific enzyme

A

1) Catalase
2) coagulase
3) oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram positive - MRSA, MSSA

A

skin, bone, joint, IV lines, blood stream, implants, heart valves, lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram positive - streptococcus (group A, B, C, G)

A

skin, bone, joint, bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram positive - streptococcus pneumoniae

A

brain, ENT, joint, bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram positive - enterococcus pneumoniae

A

brain, ENT, joint, bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram positive - enterococcus fecalis

A

bloodstream, heart valves, abdomen, GI, urinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram positive - anaerobe

A

1) finegoldia magna: skin, mouth, upper repi tract
2) clostridiodes difficile: abdomen, GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram negative - anaerobe

A

bacteroids fragilis: abdomen, GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram negative - haemophilus influenzae

A

ENT, lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram negative - E.coli, Klebsiella sp, P. Mirabilis

A

abdomen, GI, urinary tract, blood stream, DM foot (community acquired)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram negative - ESBL-producing E. coli, Kleb

A

hospital acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram negative - enterobacter (AMP-C producing GNR)

A

abdomen, urinary tract, bloodstream, DM foot

18
Q

common bacteria pathogen & location - gram negative - pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

lung, urinary tract, bloodstream, device-related DM foot

19
Q

description of bacteria - staphylococcus aureus

A
  • gram pos
  • cocci
  • aerobic
  • catalase +ve
  • clusters
  • coagulase +ve
20
Q

description of bacteria - coagulase -ve staphylococcus

A
  • gram pos
  • cocci
  • aerobic
  • catalase +ve
  • cluster
  • coagulase -ve
21
Q

description of bacteria - enterococcus faecalis, enterococcus faecium

A
  • gram pos
  • cocci
  • aerobic
  • catalase -ve
  • pairs/chains
  • enterococci (Group D)
22
Q

description of bacteria - beta haemolytic streptococcus

A
  • gram pos
  • cocci
  • aerobic
  • catalase -ve
  • pairs/chains
  • streptococci
23
Q

description of bacteria - different types of beta haemolytic streptococcus and their groups

A
  • streptococcus pyogenes: group A
  • streptococcus agalactiae: group B
  • streptococcus suis: group C
  • streptococcus bocis: group D
24
description of bacteria - types of viridians type streptococci
streptococcus anginosa streptococcus constellatus streptococcus intermedius streptococcus salivarius streptococcus sanguis
25
description of bacteria - viridians type streptococci characteristics
- gram pos - cocci - aerobic - catalase -ve - streptococci - alpha haemolytic - optochin resistant
26
description of bacteria - streptococcus pneumoniae
- gram pos - cocci - aerobic - catalase -ve - pairs/chains - streptococci - alpha haemolyic - optochin sensitive
27
description of bacteria - neisseria gonorrhoeae
- gram neg - cocci/coccobacilli - strict anerobic growth - oxidase positive
28
description of bacteria - acinetobacter spp.
- gram neg - cocci/coccobacilli - aerobic/facultative growth - oxidase negative
29
description of bacteria - pseudomonas aeruginosa
- gram neg - rods - strict aerobic growth
30
description of bacteria - bacteriodes spp.
- gram neg - rods - strict anaerobic growth
31
description of bacteria - escherichia coli
- gram neg - rods - aerobic facultative growth - simple growth requirements - oxidase negative - lactose fermenters
32
description of bacteria - all oxidase positive bacteria
neisseria gonorrhoeae (gram neg) pseudomonas aeruginosa (gram neg)
33
description of bacteria - all oxidase negative bacteria
e. coli (Gram neg) acinetobacter spp. (gram neg)
34
description of bacteria - coagulase positive bacteria
staph aureus (Gram pos)
35
description of bacteria - coagulase negative bacteria
coagulase-negative staphylocci (Gram pos)
36
description of bacteria - catalase positive bacteria
- staph aureus (gram pos) - coagulase-negative staphylococci (gram pos)
37
description of bacteria - cocci/coccobacilli
neisseria gonorrhoeae (gram neg) acinetobacter spp (gram neg) staph aureus (gram pos) enterocci (gram pos) coagulase-negative staphylococci (gram pos) enterocci (gram pos) beta haemolytic streptococcus (gram pos) viridans type streptococci (Gram pos) streptococcus pneumoniae (gram pos)
38
description of bacteria - rods
pseudomonas aeruginosa (gram neg) E. coli (Gram neg)
39
factors affecting in vivo activity of antimicrobial
1) immune system 2) drug protein binding 3) ability of drug to reach infection site 4) drainage/removal of infected foci 5) drug interactions 6) some bacteria only express enzymes that inhibit antibiotic in vivo
40
how does each types of antimicrobial susceptibility testing work
1) agar/broth dilution method - uses MIC 2) Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion method - agar plate swabbed w standardised conc of microorganism - filter paper disc containing set conc of Abx - Abx diffuse outwards - diameter of zone of inhibition correlated to antimicrobial activity 3) E-test - agar based w graduated Abx concentrations layered on plastic strip - MIC where growth intersect w plastic strip
41
how to use MIC/zone of inhibition to predict therapeutic response
* utilises breakpoints - concentration that predicts susceptibility/resistance - interpret S, I, R 1) S: susceptibility/susceptibility dose dependent - likely therapeutic success - infection can be treated w dosage of antimicrobial agent recommended 2) I: intermediate - uncertain response - infection treated if drug physically concentrated or if high dose used - buffer zone that prevent small, uncontrolled, technical factors from causing major discrepanices 3) R: resistant - therapeutic failure - X inhibited by drug
42
what is antibiogram and its uses
- cumulative susceptibility results - antimicrobial susceptibility of common bacterial isolates collected in a hospital/institution - uses: 1) assess local susceptibility rate 2) monitor resistance over time 3) guide selection of antibiotic treatment (empiric therapy) when culture & susceptibility results X available
43
how does antimicrobial resistance occur
mutation/gene transfer → selection pressure → drug resistant bacteria multiply & thrive