Ian Mayne 1 Flashcards

1
Q

List the mechanism of action of Nitrogen containing bisphosphonates and provide an example:

A
  • Inhibits osteoclast farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase enzyme
    Example
  • alendronate
  • risedronate
  • pamidronate
  • zolendronate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List 8 Dystrophic Scoliosis Changes associated with Neurofibromatosis Type 1:

A
  • Vertebral scalloping (depth >3 mm in the thoracic spine or >4 mm in the lumbar spine). This is associated with
    either dural ectasia or neural tumor.
  • Rib penciling (present when the width of the rib is smaller than that of the narrowest portion of the second rib)
  • Transverse process spindling
  • Vertebral wedging
  • Short curve with severe apical rotation
  • Intervertebral foraminal enlargement
  • Widened inter-pedicular distances
  • Dysplastic pedicles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List the return of nerve function after injury from earliest to latest:

A
  • Sympathetic
  • Pain
  • Temperature
  • Touch
  • Proprioception
  • Motor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What surgical procedure is used to correct a 1st MT claw toe deformity in Charcot-Marie-Tooth patients?

A

Modified Jones Procedure

(eliminate overactive EHL and correct claw toe deformity)
* Perform EHL tenotomy as distal as possible and tag
* IP arthrodesis: deformity correction of IP joint and fusion
* EHL tendon transfer through bone tunnel in distal 1st MT (head-neck jxn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List two absolute indications for an emergent Thoracotomy:

A
  • Chest Tube drains >1500cc immediately after insertion
  • Chest tube output >200cc/hr for 3 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List 5 “Tetanus Prone” wounds:

A
  • Devitalized tissue
  • > 6 hr
  • Burns, frostbite
  • Soil, manure
  • Puncture wound
  • Signs of sepsis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List 5 indications for a Shoulder Arthrodesis:

A
  • Failed revision shoulder arthroplasty
  • Anterior poliomyelitis
  • Brachial plexus injury (upper cervical)
  • Axillary Nerve Paralysis
  • Recon after tumour resection
  • Failed Shoulder stabilization procedures (Ex/ Multidirectional Instability)
    The patient retains approx. 1/3 of normal shoulder motion after arthrodesis à Scapulothoracic motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List 4 important technical steps in a Tibial Tubercle Osteotomy for increased exposure during TKA:

A

Skin exposure: *must be extended inferiorly for 8-9 cm so that the patellar tendon insertion can be completely
visualized.

Osteotomy: extends from the top of the tubercle to 6 to 8 cm distally. Approximately 2 cm wide and of variable
depth, (8-10mm proximally to 5-7mm distally

Lateral soft tissue hinge is left intact to preserve its blood supply

Fixation: screws or wires**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List 3 contra-indications to a Knee Arthrodesis:

A
  • Ipsilateral Hip OA
  • Contralateral knee OA
  • Debilitating back pain
  • Infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the ideal position of a knee fusion:

A
  • 7° ± 5° valgus
  • 15° ± 5° flexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Differentiate between Dystrophy vs Myopathy
A

Dystrophy:
* progressive deterioration of muscle
* Any boy who is not walking by 18 month should be screened for Duchenne’s Musc Dystrophy with a serum CK
level (5,000-15,000u/L)
Myopathy:
* abnormality of muscle that may impair function but is not progressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What is the definition of a true AP of the pelvis?
A

x-ray centered over the symphysis pubis and aligned with the coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What is the most reliable radiographic method of determining whether one should opt for Proximal humerus ORIF or
    hemi-arthroplasty?
A

Combined cortical thickness is the average of the medial and lateral cortical thickness at the two levels
* Cortical thickness <4 mm: Nonsurgical treatment or hemiarthroplasty
* Cortical thickness ≥4mm: ORIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List the steps in a Rapid Sequence Intubation:

A
  • Pre-oxygenate with 100% O2
  • Apply cricoid pressure
  • Succinylcholine 1-2mg/kg IV
  • Insert ETT, inflate cuff
  • Confirm placement with ETCO2
  • Release cricoid pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List the 5 stages of the Wagner Classification for Diabetic Foot Ulcers:

A
  • 0 - Intact Skin
  • 1 - Superficial ulcer of skin or subcutaneous tissue
  • 2 - Ulcers extend into tendon, bone, or capsule
  • 3 - Deep ulcer with osteomyelitis, or abscess
  • 4 - Gangrene of toes or forefoot
  • 5 - Midfoot or hindfoot gangrene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List 5 common characteristics to a congenital hypoplastic thumb:

A
  • 1st webspace contracture
  • CMC joint instability
  • MCP joint instability
  • IP joint stiffness/contracture
  • Thumb is more distal
  • Thenar muscles usually absent
  • Bilateral (approx. 60%)
  • Associated anomalies (TAR, Holt-oram, VACTERL, Fanconi Anemia)
17
Q

Describe the position of fusion for the 1st CMC Joint (3):

A
  • 35° radial abduction
  • 30° palmar abduction
  • 15° pronation
18
Q

What percentage of hindfoot motion decrease occurs with fusion of the TN, CC, and ST joints?

A

TN Joint
* 90%
ST
* 40%
CC
* 25%

19
Q

Describe the Ranawat Classification for Myelopathy:

A
  • I: pain, no neuro deficit
  • II: subjective weakness, hyper-reflexia
  • IIIA: objective weakness, long tract signs, still ambulatory
  • IIIB: objective weakness, long tract signs, non-ambulatory
  • IV: quadriparesis
20
Q

Regarding an Os Trigonum:
Where is its anatomical location?

A

Posterolateral tubercle of the talus – impingement between posterior malleolus and calcaneal tuberosity

21
Q

Regarding an Os Trigonum:

What is the exacerbating movement?

A

Forced plantar-flexion of the ankle (eg. Ballet – en Pointe position)

22
Q

Regarding an Os Trigonum:

List 2 Surgical options for management of an Os Trigonum with posterior ankle impingment:

A
  • Posterior ankle endoscopy
  • Posterior lateral/medial open approach and excision