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FDN2 I AM FREAKING OUT > i hate med school > Flashcards

i hate med school Flashcards

1
Q

phenytoin

A

zero order kinetics

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2
Q

malformation

A

poor formation of tissue

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3
Q

ex of incomplete morphogenesis

A

spina bifida

cleft palate

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4
Q

ex of recurrent morphogenesis

A

having 18 toes (polydactyly)

ear tags

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5
Q

ex of aberrant morphogenesis

A

ectopic thyroid

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6
Q

deformation + examples of it

A

unusual forces on normal tissue

club foot

potter sequence (stockings over face disease)

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7
Q

disruption + examples of it

A

breakdown of normal tissue

digital amputations

vascular accidents that cause ischemia/necrosis

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8
Q

are deformations lethal

A

rarely

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9
Q

what is a sequence?

A

when one anomaly triggers a sequence of other anomalies

(spina bifida triggers something downstream, i dont know what)

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10
Q

what does TORCH stand for

A

T oxoplasmosis
O h no, I have syphillis!
R ubella
C ytomegalovirus

H erpes

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11
Q

memantine

A

open channel blocker

glutamate NMDA

(for glutamate-gated Ca2+ channel)

tx alzheimers

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12
Q

AMPA/kaitine channel for what NT?

inh or excitatory?

A

glutamate

excitatory

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13
Q

ondasteron

molec mechanism

what does it treat

A

5HT3 serotonin blocker

anti emetic after cancer

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14
Q

benzos

A

allosteric activators of GABA-A

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15
Q

penicillin effect on NT channel

what does it cause?

A

open channel blocker of GABA-A

causes seizures

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16
Q

strychnine

A

comp inh of glycine receptor

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17
Q

tetanus toxin

A

inh glycine release

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18
Q

hyperekplexia

A

familial startle disease

glycine channels mutated, no inh stimulus

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19
Q

competitive inh

A

decrease potency, incr EC50

no change in efficacy

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20
Q

non-comp inh

A

EC50/potency same

decreased efficacy

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21
Q

uncomp inh

A

decrease efficacy

decr EC50 (incr potency)

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22
Q

ex of receptor that follows constrained subunit model

A

Nicotinic ACh

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23
Q

ex of receptors that follow sequential change model

A

ionotropic glutamate receptors

GPCRs

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24
Q

EPSPs/EPPs

A

activation of NT receptor permeable to Na/Ca causes depolarization

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25
Q

IPSPs

A

activation of NT receptor permeable to Cl- causes membrane hyperpolarizaiton

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26
Q

what is resting membrane potential established by?

A

Na/K ATPase

k+ leak channels

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27
Q

describe neuronal action potential + refractory period

A
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28
Q

for cardiac AP, blocking Na+ channels does what?

A

blocks upstroke

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29
Q

for cardiac AP, blocking K+ channels does what?

A

longer AP duration (incr repol time)

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30
Q

for cardiac AP, blocking Ca2+ channels does what?

A

shorter AP duration (decreased repol time)

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31
Q

terfenadine

A

off target effect blocked hERG K+ channels –> long QT

people died

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32
Q

sulfonylurea

A

tx diabetes by binding to and inh KATP channels

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33
Q

what causes KATP channels to close?

what happens when they are closed?

A

ATP binding, or sulfonylurea binding

causes depol of membrane + opening of Ca2+ channels

vasoconstricition or insulin release

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34
Q

minoxidil

A

anti HTN

vasodilation

activates & opens KATP channels

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35
Q

tropine/tropium drugs

A

muscarinic Ach antagonists

increase HR

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36
Q

what histologic change happens during breastfeeding?

A

lobular hyperplasia

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37
Q

B1 vs B2 effects

A

one heart (b1) two lungs (b2)

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38
Q

what pathway for growth factors?

A

RAS/MAPK

(MAPk = mitogen activated protein kinase)

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39
Q

what pathway for insulin?

(RTK)

A

PI3K/AKT/mTOR

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40
Q

what pathway for cytokines (RTK)

A

JAK/STAT

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41
Q

explain RTK pathway (general) for RAS/MAPK and PI3K/AKT/mTOR

A

ligand binds

receptors dimerize

receptors transphosphorylate on Tyr residues

scaffold binds

kinase cascade initiated

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42
Q

explain RTK pathway for JAK STAT

A

ligand binds STAT

JAK proteins bind and phosphorylate Tyr residues, also serve as scaffold

pSTATs go into nucleus and do things

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43
Q

what do allosteric activators do in regard to receptor desensitization?

A

decrease likelihood

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44
Q

do ligand channels desensitize

A

yes, rapidly to orthosteric agonistsf

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45
Q

do GPCRs desensitize?

A

yes

cytoplasmic tail gets phosphorylated by GRKs

p tail binds b-arrestin

singaling gets arrested

receptor gets internalized

46
Q

ex of biased ligand…

A

angiotensis II biased agnoists for cytoprotection

47
Q

ex of continuous epithelium

A

blood brain barrier

48
Q

fenestrated endothelium ex

A

GI tract, endocrine glands, capillary

49
Q

sinusoidal epithelium ex

A

spleen, BM, liver

50
Q

is p-glycoprotein an ABC or SLC

A

ABC

51
Q

what are 3 major roles of p-glycoprotein

A

eliminate drugs from the brain

reduce GI absorption

excrete drugs in bile and urine

52
Q

SLC6s do what?

A

reuptake NTs at synapse

53
Q

apparent volume of distribution (Vd)

A

total amt of drug administered/ plasma conc

54
Q

weak acids bind which blood protein?

A

albumin

55
Q

weak bases bind which blood protein?

A

alpha-acid glycoprotein

56
Q

what bad thing does H2 blocker cimetidine do?

A

inhibits lots of CYPs

57
Q

prototypical exampls of metabolism via CYP3A4 = these drugs

A

azolam benzos (midazolam)

58
Q

caffeine and theophylline are…

A

competitive inh of adenosine (adenosine receptor antagonists)

59
Q

what happens when you have TPMT polymorphisms that cause TPMT deficiency?

A

TPMT normally puts brakes on thiopurine –> thioguanine rxn

no TPMT = accumuation of toxic thioguanine

60
Q

azolam CYP?

A

3A4

61
Q

azepam CYP?

A

3A4, 2C19

62
Q

furanocoumarins do what?

A

grapefruit juice, inh CYP3A4

63
Q

St Johns wart does what?

A

induces CYP3A4

induces CYP2C19

induces CYP2C9

induces CYP2E1

induces p glycoprotein

64
Q

echinacea does what?

A

induces CYP3A4

65
Q

what drug metabs are affected by having CYP2D6 polys?

A

metoprolol

opioids (codeine)

CNS drugs

66
Q

prazole CYP?

A

2C19

67
Q

ginkgo does what?

A

induces CYP2C19, 2C9

68
Q

warfarin CYP

A

2c9

69
Q

NSAID CYP

celecoxib

A

2c9

70
Q

what does high dose of EtOH induce ?

A

CYP2E1

71
Q

tetrodotoxin does ?

A

blocks voltage gated Na+ channels in nerve and muscle

72
Q

local anesthetics do what?

A

block voltage gated Na+ channel, preventing AP

preferentially bind to inactivated state of channel

73
Q

clopidogrel

A

anti clotting

prodrug

susceptible to CYP2C19 variants

74
Q

when should we collect blood for therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

pre-dose (trough conc)

peak conc

once randomly

75
Q

would we do TDM for warfarin?

A

no, we can look at INR

76
Q

theophylline

A

competitive inh of adenosine

77
Q

lateral plate becomes…

A

body cavities, gut wall

78
Q

intermediate mesoderm becomes…

A

urogenital

79
Q

paraxial mesoderm becomes..

A

somites for muscles, bone, and connective tissue

80
Q

somatopleure

A

body wall, ecto side of meso

81
Q

splanchnopleure

A

visceral wall, endo side of meso

82
Q

when does EC50 = Kd for BIOLOGICAL response?

A

for partial agonists and ligand gated channels

83
Q

zolpidem

A

positive allosteric modulator of gaba-a, binds to benzo binding site

84
Q

cimetidine

A

histamine H2 blocker, inh all CYPs except for CYP2E1

85
Q

quinidine-digoxin interaxn

A

quinidine impairs digoxin renal clearance by competing for p-glycoprotein in proximal tubule

86
Q

quinidine-loperamide interaxn

A

quinidine impairs loperamide efflux from BBB leading to risk of resp depression

87
Q

ritonovir tenofivir interaxn

A

ritonovir inhibits MRP2 and MRP3 efflux transporters in proximal tubule and impairs elimination of phospho-tenofivir

88
Q

probenecid oseltavivir penicillin intraxns

A

probenecid impairs renal elimination of penicillin and oseltavivir

(GOOD- delays excretion of valuable drugs)

89
Q

CYP for tacrolimus

A

CYP3A5

90
Q

albuterol

A

B2 agonist, relaxes airway smooth muscle

91
Q

metoprolol

A

anti-HTN, selective B1 blocker

92
Q

N-acetylcysteine

A

GSH analog, saves liver from evil NAPQI

93
Q

why shouldn’t you drink and take acetaminophen?

A

EtOH induces CYP2E1 —- NAPQI

EtOH reduces GSH, no rescue

:(

94
Q

lorazepam what type of drug?

why give it to old people?

A

benzodiazepine

give it to old people because it’s only metabolized by glucuronidation

(CYP function declines in the elderly so drugs that are substrates for CYPS are not good candidates)

95
Q

where are microvilli?

A

intestinal brush border

kidney PCT

96
Q

where are stereocilia?

A

male reproductive

97
Q

where are cilia?

A

epithelial lining of respiratory tract

female repro sys

98
Q

tight junctions made of

A

claudins and occludins

99
Q

adherens junctions made of

A

cadherins

100
Q

what is macula adherens?

what’s it made of?

A

desmosome

made of cadherins

101
Q

what are gap junctions made of

A

connexons

102
Q

deep body wall nerves consist of

A

somatomotor neurons

general sensory neurons

sympathetic neurons

103
Q

superficial body wall nerves consist of

A

general sensory neurons

sympathetic neurons

104
Q

sympathetic does:

A

prepares the body for exertion: contracts arteries, raises BP, increases HR, dilates airway and pupils

105
Q

parasympathetic does:

A

rest and digest

lowers BP/HR, constricts airway/pupils/GI smooth muscle to trigger peristalsis, triggers glandular secretion

106
Q

cell body of somatomotor neuron

A

ventral horn of spinal cord

107
Q

cell body of sensory neuron (general + visceral)

A

DRG

108
Q

cell body sympathetic neuron

A

1 is in lateral horn T1-L2

2 is either in sym trunk (spinal nerves, thorax) or collateral ganglia (abdominal viscera)

109
Q

cell body parasympathetic neuron

A

1 is either in brain or lateral horn

2 is in wall of organ innervated

110
Q
A

FDN2 I AM FREAKING OUT (1 decks)

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