I-1 Ethics and Responsibility in Tax Practice Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the IRS’ rule that governs CPAs?

A

Circular 230.

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2
Q

What does Circular 230 do?

A

Censure, fine, suspend or disbar tax advisors from practice.

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3
Q

What does “practicing” entail?

A

Preparing and filing documents, communicating and meeting with IRS reps on behalf of a taxpayer, rendering written advice, presenting a client.

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4
Q

What does Subpart A of Circular 230 cover?

A

Rules governing authority to practice before IRS.

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5
Q

Who can practice before the IRS?

A

Those who are not under suspension or disbarment.
Attorneys, CPAs, Enrolled agents, Enrolled actuaries, Enrolled retirement plan agents (limited to issues related to employee plans etc), Registered Tax Return Preparers (RTRP).

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6
Q

What does Subpart B of Circular 230 cover?

A

Rules that govern tax practitioners.

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7
Q

What does Subpart C and D of Circular 230 cover?

A

C: Sanctions for violations.
D: Procedural rules for disciplinary proceedings.

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8
Q

Subpart B: What does furnishing information mean?

A

Practitioner must promptly submit properly/legally requested info unless he believes in good faith the info is privileged.

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9
Q

Subpart B: What does client’s omission mean?

A

Section 10.21 - practitioner must notify the client when an error or omission on a previous return is found, but not need to notify IRS and may not do so without the client’s permission.

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10
Q

Subpart B: What does due diligence and reliance on others mean?

A

Must exercise due diligence. Reliance on others’ work is permitted if the practitioner used reasonable care in engaging, supervising, training, and evaluating them with the exception of aggressive tax shelters.

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11
Q

Subpart B: What does delays mean?

A

May not unreasonably delay the response to IRS.

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12
Q

Subpart B: What does assistance from the disbarred mean?

A

May not knowingly accept even indirect assistance from disbarred.

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13
Q

Subpart B: What does practice by former IRS agents mean?

A

Prevent conflict of interest. They may not assist or represent a client (they had knowledge of) for 2 yrs after leaving IRS.

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14
Q

Subpart B: What does notaries mean?

A

A practitioner must not act as a notary public before IRS in which he/she is involved or interested.

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15
Q

Subpart B: What are 2 types of fees?

A

Unconscionable fees and contingent fees.

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16
Q

Subpart B: what must a practitioner do re: unconscionable fees?

A

may not charge for representing a client before IRS.

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17
Q

Subpart B: Is contingent fees allowed in general?

A

No.

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18
Q

Subpart B: What are 3 situations contingent fees are allowed?

A
  1. Services in connection with IRS examination of or challenge to either (1) an original tax return or (2) an amended return or claim for refund that were filed within 120 days of the notice.
  2. A claim for refund is filed solely in connection with determination of statutory interest or penalties.
  3. A practitioner is representing the client at court.
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19
Q

Subpart B: Return of client records: what’s the general rule? Exceptions?

A

Must return promptly.
If applicable state law permits retention in the case of a fee dispute, only those record that must be attached to the taxpayer’s return must be returned.

20
Q

Subpart B: Conflicts of interest: what’s the general rule? Exceptions?

A

May not represent the client before IRS.
Yes he can, if the practitioner reasonably believe that he can provide competence and diligent representation to the client, the representation is not prohibited by law, and the affected client gives informed consent in writing (must keep it on file for 3 yrs).

21
Q

Subpart B: Check negotiation?

A

May not endorse or negotiate any check issued to a client by IRS.

22
Q

Subpart B: 5 Best practices?

A
  1. Communicate clearly re: terms, purpose, use, scope and form of the advice.
  2. Establish facts, evaluate relevance, reasonableness, relating to laws. Conclusions must be based on facts/laws.
  3. Advise the client re: the import of conclusions, including whether taxpayers may avoid accuracy related penalties if they rely on the advice.
  4. Act fairly and with integrity
  5. Exercise firm supervisory powers to ensure that firm employees act in accordance with best practices.
23
Q

Subpart B: Tax return standards?

A

Not to advise clients to take frivolous positions and inform them penalties related to them.
Can rely in good faith on info provided by client, but not ignore inconsistent information.

24
Q

Subpart B: what is competence?

A

Appropriate level of knowledge, skill, thoroughness, and preparation necessary.

25
Q

What had many provisions that relate solely or largely to Tax Return Preparers (TRPs)?

A

The Internal Revenue Code (IRC).

26
Q

IRC: Who is a TRP?

A

Anyone who prepares for compensation or employs people to prepare for compensation all or a substantial portion of any tax return or claim for refund under IRC.

27
Q

IRC: What are TRP subtypes?

A

Signing TRPs: bear primary responsibility for the overall accuracy.
Nonsigning TRPs: other than signing TRPs who prepares all or a substantial portion.

28
Q

IRC: What is an example of substantial portion nonsigning TRP are liable for?

A

When they give advice re: just one large deduction on a return unless the deduction involves either (a) less than $10,000 or (b) less than $400,000, which is also less than 20% of the gross income indicated on the return.

29
Q

IRC: People are not TRPs when?

A
  1. Furnish typing, reproducing, or other mechanical assistance.
  2. Prepare as a fiduciary a return or claim for return.
  3. Prepare taxes as part of a volunteer income tax assistance or a low income tax clinic program.
  4. Prepare with no explicit or implicit agreement for compensation even if the person receives an insubstantial gift, return service or favor.
  5. Prepare for refund of the employer by whom he is regularly and continuously employed.
30
Q

IRC: Who is a TRP when a firm employs only one TRP?

A

He is the sole signing TRP.

31
Q

IRC: Who is a TRP when there are multiple people working on a return?

A

The one who is primarily responsible for the position giving rise to an understatement

32
Q

IRC: Who is a TRP when it’s unclear?

A

The one with overall supervisory responsibility for the return.

33
Q

IRC: Civil provision: When does a penalty imposed against a TRP?

A

When an unreasonable position causes an understatement.

34
Q

IRC: Civil provision: is a position unreasonable? When the position is related to a tax shelter?

A

If there is no substantial authority (less than 40% chance of being sustained) for the position.
If it is disclosed yet there is no reasonable basis (less than 20% of being sustained) for it.

It’s unreasonable unless it is more likely than not (more than 50% chance) that the position will be sustained.

35
Q

IRC: Civil provision: (b) of 6694 imposes harsher penalties when?

A

negligent conduct, for willful and reckless understatements. Ex: TRP fabricates deductions or ignores information provided by taxpayer.

36
Q

IRC: Civil provision: does the section 6695 cover?

A

Punishments on TRPs for, among other things:

  1. Failure to furnish copy of return to taxpayer
  2. Failure to sign return and show own identity
  3. Failure to furnish preparer’s identifying number to IRS
  4. Failure to keep copy of return
37
Q

IRC: Civil provision: is a defense for a TRP?

A

Reasonable cause defense - TRP had reasonable cause (an objective stds) for the position and acted in good faith (a subjective stds)

38
Q

IRC: Civil provision: are other civil provisions punish TRPs and others for?

A
  1. Organizing and promoting abusive tax shelters
  2. Aiding and abetting understatement
  3. Disclosing client’s info for any purpose other than to prepare a return
39
Q

IRC: what is the burden of proof for Civil and Criminal provisions:

A

Civil: a mere preponderance of the evidence
Criminal: the burden of proof is on the government to establish the crime beyond a reasonable doubt

40
Q

IRC: Criminal provisions: what does tax evasion include?

A

Failure to file a return
Falsifying income
Falsifying amounts that reduce taxable income

41
Q

IRC: Criminal provisions: tax evasion: what must the government prove?

A
  1. An affirmative act constituting an attempt to evade or defeat payment of a tax
  2. Willfulness, and
  3. Existence of a tax deficiency
42
Q

IRC: Criminal provisions: what does tax fraud include?

A
  1. Willfully making and subscribing to any documents made under penalty of perjury that the CPA does not believe to be true as to every material matter
  2. Willfully aiding the preparation of any tax related matter that is fraudulent as to any material matter
  3. Removing or concealing a client’s property with intent to defeat taxes
43
Q

Who is the solo authority of CPA licensing?

A

State Boards of Accountancy

44
Q

What is the licensing requirements?

A

Education, Examination, Experience (1 yr - a least 2,000hrs).

45
Q

What is the area of service one can’t perform without a license?

A

Attest related service:

  • Any audit or other engagement in accordance with SAS (Statements on Auditing Standards).
  • Any review of financial stmts based on SSARS (Stmts on Stds on Accounting and Review Services).
  • Any examination of prospective financial information based on SSAE (Stmts on Stds for Attest Engagements).
  • Any engagement based on stds of PCAOB (Public Company Accounting Oversight Board).
46
Q

What kind of service one can perform without a license?

A

Non-attest services:
Preparation of tax returns.
Management advisory services (Consulting).
Preparing FS without issuing a report.

47
Q

What are AICPA disciplinary mechanism?

A
  • Professional Ethics Division: investigate violations and sanctions minor cases.
  • Joint Trial Board: more serious cases and has power to admonish, suspend or expel.
  • Joint Ethics Enforcement Program (JEEP): State handles minor cases. AICPA handles national concern, issue involving more than one state, and in litigation.