Hypersensitivity Flashcards

1
Q

What is Type I hypersensitivity mediated by?

A

IgE, mast cells and eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the reaction time for Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Minutes- it is very fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Examples of Type I hypersensitivities

A
  • Respiratory tract allergies (hay fever, asthma)
  • Skin reactions (urticaria, hives, insect bites
  • Gastrointestinal tract allergies (vomiting, diarrhea, shellfish, eggs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 4 events in Type I hypersensitivity?

A
  1. Sensitization phase
  2. Activation phase
  3. Immediate effector phase (mast cells)
  4. Late Effector Phase (eosinophils)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the sensitization phase of type I hypersensitivity

A

Activation of Th2 cells help produce IgE, production of IL-4 and activates B lymphocytes and it generates memory
- Big picture: building up IgE level so that there is enough to activate mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the activation phase of Type I hypersensitivity

A

IgE will bind to high-affinity receptors and receptors cross-linked by allergens. IgE activates basophils and mast cells that are located in (gut lining, lung, nasal, conjunctiva, CT, and around BV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the immediate effector phase of Type I hypersensitivity

A

Activate the mast cells and basophils to produce an immediate reaction.

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What activates the mast cells?

A

Calcium influx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Activation of tyrosine kinase will do what?

A

Lead to production of cytokines and chemotactic factors and recruitment of neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Degranulation of mast cells will lead to what?

A

A release of histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prostaglandins lead to

A

Vascular dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Leukotrienes lead to

A

Smooth muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cytokines (TNF) lead to

A

Inflammation (leukocyte recruitment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Proteases lead to

A

Tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vasoactive amines lead to

A

Vascular dilation, smooth muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Intradermal challenge with allergens leads to what?

A
  • Erythema
  • Dilation of BVs = flare edema
  • Swelling
  • Release of serum into tissue = Wheal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are common characteristics of anaphylactic shock?

A
  • Dizziness
  • Swelling of lips and tongue
  • Swelling of larynx
  • Wheezing and other asthmatic type difficulties
  • Heart attacks and arrhythmias and severe drop in blood pressure
  • Shock
  • Nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps
    -Skin erruptions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the late effector phase of type I hypersensitivites

A
  • 6-24 hours with production of cytokines
  • Mast cells produce eosinophils chemotactic factor that recruits eosinophils
  • Reaction will persist for days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do eosinophils release?

A

Cytokines and chemokines and ribonuclease (antiviral activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe how eosinophils have anti-parasitic activity

A
  • Major Basic protein will destroy parasites
  • Eosinophilic cationic protein can form ROS to destroy the worms
  • Leukotrienes from mast cells cause smooth muscle contractions to expel the worms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the pharmacological intervention for anaphylaxis?

A

Epinephrine (Causes vascular smooth muscle contraction and increases cardiac output and relaxes the airway, it also inhibits the mast cell degranulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a pharmacological intervention for bronchial asthma?

A

Corticosteroids and leukotriene antagonists or phosphodiesterase inhibitiors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do corticosteroids do?

A

Reduce inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do leukotriene antagonists do?

A

Relax bronchial smooth muscle and reduce inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What do phosphodiesterase inhibitors do?

A

Relax bronchial smooth muscle

26
Q

How does densisitzation work and what does it do?

A

Its repeated administration of low doses of allergens and works by possibly inhibiting IgE production and increasing production of other Ig isotypes

27
Q

How do antihistamines work?

A

Block actions of histamine on vessels and smooth muscles

28
Q

How does cromolyn work?

A

Inhibits mast cell degranulation

29
Q

How does anti-IgE antibody work?

A

Neutralize and eliminate IgE

30
Q

What is Type II hypersensitivity mediated by?

A

Soluble IgG and IgM antibodies

31
Q

What are examples of Type II hypersensitivities?

A

Blood transfusion reaction where IgM will bind and hemolytic disease of the newborn (IgG)

32
Q

What do environment carbohydrates induce the production of?

A

IgM in a T-independent manner

33
Q

What is IgM good at?

A

Agglutination and activating the complement system- it will help destruct donor cells during transfucsions with the wrong blood type

34
Q

What are the symtpoms of mismatched blood transfusions?

A

Fever, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, back and chest pain and RBC debris damages to the kidney

35
Q

Hemolystic disease of the newborn is also known as

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

36
Q

What immunoglobulin passes the placenta to destroy RBCs of Rh+ fetus?

37
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn symptoms include what?

A

Enlargement of the liver and spleen, and hemorrhages and elevated bilirubin

38
Q

What test is used to determine whehter mother’s serum contains anti-RH antibody (IgG)?

A

Indirect Coombs test

39
Q

How is the indirect Coombs test performed?

A

Mother’s serum is added to Rh-positive RBC, the RBCs are washed and then the Coombs Reagan is addedW

40
Q

What is a prophylactic treatment for a mother who is Rh- having a Rh+ baby?

A

Rhogam, given after delivery to prevent sensitization

41
Q

How does Rhogam work?

A

Removes fetal red cells before the mother can produce an immune response

42
Q

How is Type III hypersensitivity mediated?

A

By antibody complexes

43
Q

Why do antigen and IgG complexes form?

A

Due to persistent microbial infection or chronic exposure to extrinsic antigens (molds)

44
Q

What do immune complexes activate?

A

The complement cascade

45
Q

What does adhesion molecules expression increase?

A

Extravasation

46
Q

What are macrophages and neutrophils activated to produce?

A

Cytokines (TNF and IL-1)

47
Q

What are examples for Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Arthus reaction (localized) and serum sickness (systemic)

48
Q

Why may arthus reactions present?

A

From repeated injection of antigens, high levels of antibodies present and they bind witht he introduced antigen and form complexes that activate complement

49
Q

What is Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by?

A

Th1 cells (Delayed- Type Hypersensitivity)

50
Q

How long does the reaction for Type IV hypersensitivity take?

A

24-28 hours after contact

51
Q

What are the 3 types of DTH?

A
  1. Contact dermatitis
  2. Tuberculin Reactions
  3. Granulomatous Reactions
52
Q

What can contact dermatitis be caused by?

A

Poison ivy, metals, chemicals, and infection with viruses

53
Q

Describe posion ivy dermatitis activation

A

Pentadecacatechol on the dermis by skin contact. Activates a cutaneous reactiona nd antigen binds to host proteins, then the moleulce is presented by Langerhan’s cells and keratinocytes to Th1 cells. The activated Th1 cells produce cytokines and IFN gamma activate macrophages to produce tissue destructive enzymes and activate Th1 cells and then form the blister

54
Q

What is tuberculin skin test used for?

A

Determining previous exposure to mycobacterium tuberculosis

55
Q

Examples of granulomatous reactions

A

Tuberculosis, visceral leishmaniasis and hansen disease

56
Q

Describe mechanism of tuberculosis

A

Macrophages infiltrate and ingest the bacteria, bacteria not digested and macrophages fuse with giant cells. The macrophages will recruit and activate Th1 cells and fibroblasts encase these cells to form a granuloma. Bacteria may die in the center, which is walled off, developing a cheesy center in the granuloma

57
Q

What is leishmaniasis?

A

Parasite that lives inside macrophages. Development of the granuloma around the infected Kupffer cells in the liver

58
Q

Hansen Disease (Leprosy)

A

Mycobacteria lepra is a very tough to destroy etiological agent

59
Q

What are some novel therapies for hypersensitivity?

A
  • Block costimulatory molecules CD28:CD80/86
  • Block signal transduction
  • Block cytokines and cytokine receptors (IL-1, IL-2, IL-17A, IL-12(p40), TNF, RNF receptor)
  • Block adhesion molecules (integrins)