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T-1A Systems 4 > Hydraulics > Flashcards

Hydraulics Flashcards

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1
Q

What systems does the hydraulic system provide hydraulic pressure to?

A

Landing gear, flaps, speed brake, power brakes

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2
Q

How is the landing gear system controlled and operated?

A

electrically controlled, hydraulically operated

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3
Q

What are the primary flight controls?

A

Rudder, elevator, spoilers

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4
Q

What are the secondary flight controls?

A

Speed brakes, flaps, trim system

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5
Q

What does lowering the landing gear handle do?

A

Sends an electrical signal to initiate gear extension

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6
Q

Where are the brake pedals located?

A

The upper portion of both the pilot’s and copilot’s rudder pedals

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7
Q

What is used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoir?

A

Filtered bleed air (15 psi) from the engines

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8
Q

What does bleed air from the engines do for the hydraulic reservoir?

A

Prevents fluid from foaming and also ensures a constant supply of hydraulic fluid to the pumps

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9
Q

When does the HYD LEVEL LO annunciator illuminate?

A

When the fluid level in the reservoir drops to 0.6 gallons or less

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10
Q

What is normal operating pressure of the hydraulic pump

A

1500 psi

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11
Q

What drives the engine driven hydraulic pumps?

A

Accessory gearbox

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12
Q

What are the flow rates of the engine driven hydraulic pumps?

A

0 to 3.9 gallons per minute for each pump

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13
Q

When does the L or R H PRESS LO annunciator illuminate?

A

If pump pressure falls below 750 psi

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14
Q

What happens if a filter becomes clogged?

A

Hydraulic fluid bypasses these filters at 50 psi

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15
Q

When does the pressure relieve valve open automatically?

A

If the system pressure exceeds 1650 psi

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16
Q

When must the crew manually intervene by opening the bypass valve in the hydraulic system?

A

1850 psi

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17
Q

What is the normal hydraulic system range?

A

1350-1550 psi

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18
Q

When full, how much fluid does the hydraulic reservoir contain?

A

1.1 gallons

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19
Q

Where are the shutoff valves located?

A

Between the reservoir and pumps

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20
Q

What switch controls the shutoff valves?

A

Position switchlights on the shroud panel- L or R H/V OPEN/CLOSE

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21
Q

The flow of hydraulic fluid from the reservoir to a pump can be stopped by closing what valve?

A

Shutoff valve

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22
Q

The hydraulic valve package consists of valve assemblies for which three systems?

A

Landing gear, flaps, speed brake

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23
Q

The system relief valve starts to open at what psi?

A

1650 psi

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24
Q

At what pressure does the hydraulic system redline?

A

1850 psi

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25
Q

When does a red UNLOCKED gear indicator light illuminate?

A
  • landing gear is in transit
  • 1 or more gear is not down and locked
  • the main gear fuselage doors are not closed and locked
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26
Q

When does the landing gear warning horn sound?

A
  • Flaps are at 0- or 10-deg position and either throttle is at 70% N2 (or below)
  • Flaps are extended beyond the 10-degree position (regardless of throttle position)
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27
Q

What is the purpose of the shimmy damper?

A

Installed on the nose gear and acts to dampen vibrations, especially during high-speed ground operations (like T/O and landing roll)

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28
Q

How are the inboard main gear doors held in position?

A

Mechanically

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29
Q

How long does gear extention/retraction take?

A

approximately 7 seconds

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30
Q

How long does the emergency gear extention take?

A

30 seconds

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31
Q

How long does it take to close the main inboard gear doors using the emergency nitrogen system?

A

3 seconds

32
Q

What is the landing gear limiting speed?

A

200 KIAS

33
Q

What is the emergency landing gear extention speed?

A

150 KIAS

34
Q

What are the limits for the nitrogen storage bottle?

A

1350-1650 psi

35
Q

What is the normal strut extension for the nose gear?

A

3.5 inches

36
Q

What is the minimum strut extension for the main gear?

A

1.1 inches

37
Q

During normal operation, the T-1A landing gear are _________ controlled and _____ operated.

A

electrically controlled and hydraulically operated

38
Q

Where is the landing gear HORN CUT button (used to silence the landing gear warning tone) located?

A

on the outboard grip of both control yokes

39
Q

What is used to raise the landing gear if the landing gear downlock release level fails to release in flight?

A

Downlock release button

40
Q

When turning the aircraft on the ground, you can cause the nose wheel to caster beyond 25 degress (up to _____ deg) by applying rudder, differential power, and differential braking.

A

45 degrees

41
Q

During the gear extension sequence, when does the main landing gear lower?

A

After the inboard gear doors are fully open

42
Q

How are the uplock assembles released during emergency gear extension?

A

Mechanically

43
Q

What is the maximum allowable altitude for inflight gear extension?

A

20000 feet MSL

44
Q

What must be true for the anti-skid system to operate?

A

The power brake system must be functional and the anti-skid control switch must be in the ON position

45
Q

What does a transducer do?

A

Electrically sense a change in wheel rotation speed and provides data to anti-skid control box

46
Q

Locked wheel protection is available above what tire speed?

A

14 knots

47
Q

What three positions does the anti-skid control switch have?

A

ON, OFF, TEST

48
Q

At what temperature will the thermal fuse plugs located in the wheels soften and blow out?

A

430 deg F

49
Q

At what brake energy will the thermal fuse plus blow out?

A

8.1 million ft-lbs

50
Q

When should you assume you have hot brakes?

A

Any braking effort between 8.1 and 14.8 million foot-lbs

51
Q

How long does it take for the max temperature to reach the outer surface?

A

15 minutes

52
Q

What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?

A

Dampen pressure fluctuations from the hydraulic system

53
Q

Which component of the brake system permits braking from either pilot position?

A

Mixing valves

54
Q

If normal hydraulic pressure is not available to the power brake anti-skid control valve, the brake system automatically reverts to what mode?

A

Manual

55
Q

Parking brakes prevent aircraft movement by what?

A

Trapping hydraulic pressure

56
Q

When does the ANTISKID FAIL light illuminate?

A

Landing gear extended, anti-skid control switch ON, and loss of electrical power to the anti-skid control valve or the control box
gear is extended and anti-skid control switch is in the OFF position
dump command is received for an extended period of time

57
Q

The amount of energy absorbed when stopping the T-1A is a factor of what variable?

A

Ambient temperature, pressure alititude, aircraft weight, speed at which brakes are applied, headwind/tailwind componenet

58
Q

When will brake damage and failure occur?

A

14.8 million ft-lbs of brake energy are absorbed

59
Q

What are the indications of hydraulic pump pressure low?

A

L or R H PMP PRESS LO annunciator illuminates along with MASTER CAUTION RESET (hydraulic pressure on gauge should be normal)

60
Q

What are the indications of high hydraulic pressure?

A

the only indication is on the hydraulic gauge iteself

61
Q

What does moving the hydraulic pressure bypass switch to the REL position do?

A

Opens the bypass valve, diverting all hydraulic fluid back to the reservoir and dumping system pressure and essentially forcing hydraulic system failure

62
Q

What are the indications of low hydraulic pressure?

A

Pressure gauge reads below 1350 psi, possibly H PMP PRESS LO and HYD LEVEL LO

63
Q

If all hydraulic pressure is lost, which systems will you lose?

A

Normal gear extension, flaps( if extended, they will remain in that position), speed brake (if extended, will blow down), power brakes and antiskid

64
Q

In the event of loss of total hydraulic pressure, what should you do?

A

Emergency gear extension, no-flap landing, expect landing distance to increase 90% over computed 30-flap landing distance, consider reducing ross weight to lower approach and landing speeds

65
Q

If a tire failure occurs prior to S1, should you abort the T/O?

A

Yes

66
Q

If you a tire failure occurs after T/O what should you do?

A

Do not change configuration

67
Q

What is the maximum rudder deflection?

A

30 degrees each side)

68
Q

What is the max elevator deflection?

A

12 degrees down, 25 degrees up

69
Q

How does the aft flap move?

A

mechanical linkage

70
Q

What is the max airspeed to extend the flaps past 10 deg?

A

170 KIAS

71
Q

What is the max airspeed to fly with the flaps past 10 deg?

A

165 KIAS

72
Q

What is the max airspeed to extend the flaps to 10 deg?

A

200 kias

73
Q

What is the max airspeed to fly with the flaps at 10 deg?

A

200 kias

74
Q

G limits with flaps up?

A

-1.0 to 3.2 G’s

75
Q

G limits with flaps extended?

A

0 to 2.0 G’s

76
Q

What conditions must be met for the speed brakes to extend?

A

both throttle below NORM T.O position, flaps not extended beyond 10 degrees

T-1A Systems 4 (1 decks)

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