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HWE-MA Flashcards

1
Q

*MA
31. For the IPv6 address 2000:002A:0000:0000:0000:000A:020C:023D, which of the following comply with the IPv6 address abbreviation rules?

A. 2000:2A:0:0:0:A:2C:23D
B. 2000:2A: A:20C:23D
C. 2000:2A:0:0:0:A:20C:23D
D. 2000:2A::A:2C:23D

A

B. 2000:2A: A:20C:23D
C. 2000:2A:0:0:0:A:20C:23D

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2
Q

*MA
32. ACLS are used to match and distinguish packets. Which of the following information can be used to define ACL rules?

A. VLAN ID
B. Source and destination MAC addresses
C. Protocol type of Ethernet frames
D. Source and destination IP addresses of IPv4 packets

A

A. VLAN ID
B. Source and destination MAC addresses
C. Protocol type of Ethernet frames
D. Source and destination IP addresses of IPv4 packets

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3
Q

*MA
33. Refer to the following configuration on the VTY user interface 0. When a user logs in to the system through VTY 0, which of the following statements are true? <HUAWEI> system-view
[~HUAWEI] user-interface vty 0
[~HUAWEI-ul-vty0] user privilege level 2</HUAWEI>

A. The user can use some display commands.
B. The user can use the ping and tracert commands.
C. The user can use service configuration commands, including routing configuration commands.
D. The user can use the debugging command to diagnose service faults.

A

A. The user can use some display commands.
B. The user can use the ping and tracert commands.
C. The user can use service configuration commands, including routing configuration commands.

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4
Q

*MA
34. When troubleshooting a spanning tree network fault, an administrator obtains the spanning tree status information of interface GE0/0/1 on a switch, shown as follows:
—-[Port1 (GigabitEthernet0/0/1)][FORWARDING]—-
Port Protocol :Enabled
Port Role:Designated Port
Port Priority :128
Port Cost(Dot1T):Config=100 / Active=100
Designated Bridge/Port :32768.4c1f-cc4f-26df/ 128.1
Port Edged :Config=default / Active=disabled
Point-to-point :Config=auto/Active=true
Transit Limit :147 packets/hello-time
Protection Type: None
Port STP Mode:STP
Which of the following statements are true?

A. The default priority of the switch running the spanning tree protocol is 32767.
B. The switch uses the default priority.
C. The administrator has changed the path cost of the port by running the stp path cost command.
D. The standard for calculating the path cost of the port is legacy standard.

A

B. The switch uses the default priority.
C. The administrator has changed the path cost of the port by running the stp path cost command.

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5
Q

*MA
35. Which of the following statements about IP addresses and MAC addresses are true?

A. MAC addresses are assigned based on vendors.
B. MAC addresses are unchangeable.
C. IP addresses are unchangeable.
D. IP addresses are assigned based on the network topology.

A

A. MAC addresses are assigned based on vendors.
B. MAC addresses are unchangeable.
D. IP addresses are assigned based on the network topology.

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6
Q

*MA
36. Which of the following are IPv6 address types?

A. Anycast address
B. Broadcast address
C. Multicast address
D. Unicast address

A

A. Anycast address
C. Multicast address
D. Unicast address

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7
Q

*MA
37. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. For convenience, IPv6 addresses can be abbreviated. For the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:1234:FB00:0000:5000:45FF, which of the following comply with the IPv6 address abbreviation rules?

A. 2001:DB8:0:1234:FB00:5000:45FF
B. 2001:DB8:0:1234:FB00:5:45FF
C. 2001:DB8: 1234:FB00:0:5000:45FF
D. 2001:0DB8:0:1234:FB00:0:5000:45FF

A

A. 2001:DB8:0:1234:FB00:5000:45FF
C. 2001:DB8: 1234:FB00:0:5000:45FF
D. 2001:0DB8:0:1234:FB00:0:5000:45FF

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8
Q

*MA
38. As shown in the following networking, the interfaces connecting R1, R2, R3, R4, and R5 are running OSPF, and are all in area 0. The routing table of R1 has two equal-cost routes to the destination 10.1.35.0/24. In order for the forwarding path R1&raquo_space; R4 -> R3 to be preferentially selected, which of the following configuration should be performed?

A. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/3 of R2.
B. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/1 of R2.
C. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/3 of R3.
D. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/1 of R1.

A

A. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/3 of R2.
D. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/1 of R1.

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9
Q

*MA
39. The Domain Name System (DNS) protocol is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses. Which of the following elements constitute a complete domain name?

A. Root domain name
B. Top-level domain name
C. Host name
D. Second-level domain name

A

A. Root domain name
D. Second-level domain name

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10
Q

*MA
40. The concept of Network Functions Virtualization (NFV) was proposed by a group of network service providers to solve problems such as too much telecom network hardware, complex deployment and O&M, and difficult service innovation. Which of the following components are included in the standard NFV architecture?

A. OS
B. MANO
C. VNF
D. NFVI

A

B. MANO
C. VNF
D. NFVI

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11
Q

*MA
41. Which of the following statements about static and dynamic routes are true?

A. Dynamic routing protocols can automatically discover and generate routes and are more suitable for large-scale networks.
B. Dynamic routing protocols can be classified into distance-vector routing protocols and link-state routing protocols based on their working mechanism and routing algorithms.
C. When creating a static route, you must specify both the outbound interface and next hop.
D. Static routes have low requirements on the system and are applicable to simple, stable, and small-sized networks.

A

A. Dynamic routing protocols can automatically discover and generate routes and are more suitable for large-scale networks.
B. Dynamic routing protocols can be classified into distance-vector routing protocols and link-state routing protocols based on their working mechanism and routing algorithms.
D. Static routes have low requirements on the system and are applicable to simple, stable, and small-sized networks.

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12
Q

*MA
42, PPP over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a link layer protocol that encapsulates PPP frames into Ethernet frames. Which of the following statements about PPPoE are true?

A. PPPoE client can terminate a PPPoE session in unicast mode.
B. PPPoE is often used by home users and enterprise users to dial up for Internet access.
C. PPPoE session establishment involves three stages: PPPoE discovery, session, and termination.
D. PPPoE client broadcasts a request for the required service information.

A

A. PPPoE client can terminate a PPPoE session in unicast mode.
B. PPPoE is often used by home users and enterprise users to dial up for Internet access.
C. PPPoE session establishment involves three stages: PPPoE discovery, session, and termination.
D. PPPoE client broadcasts a request for the required service information.

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13
Q

*MA
43, A WLAN is a network that uses wireless signals such as radio waves, lasers, and infrared rays to replace the traditional media used for transmission on a wired LAN. Which of the following devices are commonly used on a WLAN?

A. Fit AP
B. Fat AP
C. Wireless access controller (AC)
D. Cloud AP

A

A. Fit AP
B. Fat AP
C. Wireless access controller (AC)
D. Cloud AP

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14
Q

*MA
44, Network Address Translation (NAT) translates the IP address in an IP packet header into another IP address. Which of the following methods can implement NAT?

A. Dynamic NAT
B. Static NAT/NAPT
C. NAT Server
D. Easy IP

A

A. Dynamic NAT
B. Static NAT/NAPT
C. NAT Server
D. Easy IP

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15
Q

*MA
45. Which of the following statements are false about the forwarding behavior of access ports on a switch?

A. When an access port of the switch receives a data frame carrying the same tag as the default VLAN ID of the port, the port discards the frame.
B. When an access port of the switch sends an untagged data frame, the port adds its default VLAN ID to the frame.
C. When an access port of the switch receives an untagged data frame, the port adds its default VLAN ID to the frame.
D. When an access port of the switch receives a data frame carrying the same tag as the default VLAN ID of the port, the port accepts the frame.

A

A. When an access port of the switch receives a data frame carrying the same tag as the default VLAN ID of the port, the port discards the frame.
B. When an access port of the switch sends an untagged data frame, the port adds its default VLAN ID to the frame.

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16
Q

*MA
46. Which of the following parameters can be specified when an administrator configures an advanced ACL?

A. Source and destination IP addresses
B. Source and destination port numbers
C. Source and destination MAC addresses
D. ICMP protocol type

A

A. Source and destination IP addresses
B. Source and destination port numbers
D. ICMP protocol type

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17
Q

*MA
47. Which of the following statements about OSPF router IDs are true?

A. router ID can be manually configured or automatically selected by a device.
B. The router ID of every device in an OSPF area must be unique.
C. device uses the smallest IP address configured on loopback interfaces as its router ID. If no loopback interface is configured, the device uses the smallest IP address configured on interfaces as its router ID.
D. To ensure protocol stability, it is recommended that the network administrator manually configure a router ID for an OSPF process.

A

A. router ID can be manually configured or automatically selected by a device.
B. The router ID of every device in an OSPF area must be unique.
D. To ensure protocol stability, it is recommended that the network administrator manually configure a router ID for an OSPF process.

18
Q

*MA
48. Which of the following statements about Layer 2 and Layer 3 loops are true?

A. The TTL field in the IP packet header can prevent Layer 2 loops.
B. Layer 2 loop may occur if cables are incorrectly connected.
C. If redundant links are deployed on the network, Layer 2 loops may occur.
D. The Layer 2 frame header does not contain any information that can prevent data frames from being forwarded endlessly.

A

B. Layer 2 loop may occur if cables are incorrectly connected.
C. If redundant links are deployed on the network, Layer 2 loops may occur.
D. The Layer 2 frame header does not contain any information that can prevent data frames from being forwarded endlessly.

19
Q

*MA
49. In OSPF, which of the following network types require the election of a DR and BDR?

A. P2MP
B. BMA
C. NBMA
D. P2P

A

B. BMA
C. NBMA

20
Q

*MA
50. Interfaces GE1/0/1 and GE1/0/0 on both switches CE1 and CE2 shown in the figure have the following configurations: interface GE1/0/1 undo shutdown port link-type access # interface GE1/0/0 undo shutdown port link-type trunk port trunk pvid vlan 2 #
Which of the following statements are true?

A. Each port of a switch connects to a collision domain.
B. Each port of a router connects to a broadcast domain.
C. The Ethernet uses CSMA/CD to avoid collisions in collision domains.
D. All devices connected to the same hub belong to the same collision domain.

A

A. Each port of a switch connects to a collision domain.
B. Each port of a router connects to a broadcast domain.
C. The Ethernet uses CSMA/CD to avoid collisions in collision domains.
D. All devices connected to the same hub belong to the same collision domain.

21
Q

*MA-B
31. For the IPv6 address 2000:002A:0000:0000:0000:000A:020C:023D, which of the following comply with the IPv6 address abbreviation rules?

A. 2000:2A:0:0:0:A:2C:23D
B. 2000:2A: A:20C:23D
C. 2000:2A:0:0:0:A:20C:23D
D. 2000:2A::A:2C:23D

A

B. 2000:2A: A:20C:23D
C. 2000:2A:0:0:0:A:20C:23D

22
Q

*MA-B
32, ACLS are used to match and distinguish packets. Which of the following information can be used to define ACL rules?

A. VLAN ID
B. Source and destination MAC addresses
C. Protocol type of Ethernet frames
D. Source and destination IP addresses of IPv4 packets

A

A. VLAN ID
B. Source and destination MAC addresses
C. Protocol type of Ethernet frames
D. Source and destination IP addresses of IPv4 packets

23
Q

*MA-B
33. Refer to the following configuration on the VTY user interface 0. When a user logs in to the system through VTY 0, which of the following statements are true?
34. <HUAWEI> system-view
[~HUAWEI] user-interface vty 0
[~HUAWEI-ul-vty0] user privilege level 2</HUAWEI>

A. The user can use some display commands.
B. The user can use the ping and tracert commands.
C. The user can use service configuration commands, including routing configuration commands.
D. The user can use the debugging command to diagnose service faults.

A

A. The user can use some display commands.
B. The user can use the ping and tracert commands.
C. The user can use service configuration commands, including routing configuration commands.

24
Q

*MA-B
34. When troubleshooting a spanning tree network fault, an administrator obtains the spanning tree status information of interface GE0/0/1 on a switch, shown as follows:
—-[Port1 (GigabitEthernet0/0/1)][FORWARDING]—-
Port Protocol :Enabled
Port Role:Designated Port
Port Priority :128
Port Cost(Dot1T):Config=100 / Active=100
Designated Bridge/Port :32768.4c1f-cc4f-26df/ 128.1
Port Edged :Config=default / Active=disabled
Point-to-point :Config=auto/Active=true
Transit Limit :147 packets/hello-time
Protection Type: None
Port STP Mode:STP
Which of the following statements are true?

A. The default priority of the switch running the spanning tree protocol is 32767.
B. The switch uses the default priority.
C. The administrator has changed the path cost of the port by running the stp path cost command.
D. The standard for calculating the path cost of the port is legacy standard.

A

B. The switch uses the default priority.
C. The administrator has changed the path cost of the port by running the stp path cost command.

25
Q

*MA-B
35. Which of the following statements about IP addresses and MAC addresses are true?

A. MAC addresses are assigned based on vendors.
B. MAC addresses are unchangeable.
C. IP addresses are unchangeable.
D. IP addresses are assigned based on the network topology.

A

A. MAC addresses are assigned based on vendors.
B. MAC addresses are unchangeable.
D. IP addresses are assigned based on the network topology.

26
Q

*MA-B
36. Which of the following are IPv6 address types?

A. Anycast address
B. Broadcast address
C. Multicast address
D. Unicast address

A

A. Anycast address
C. Multicast address
D. Unicast address

27
Q

*MA-B
37. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. For convenience, IPv6 addresses can be abbreviated. For the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:1234:FB00:0000:5000:45FF, which of the following comply with the IPv6 address abbreviation rules?

A. 2001:DB8:0:1234:FB00:5000:45FF
B. 2001:DB8:0:1234:FB00:5:45FF
C. 2001:DB8: 1234:FB00:0:5000:45FF
D. 2001:0DB8:0:1234:FB00:0:5000:45FF

A

A. 2001:DB8:0:1234:FB00:5000:45FF
C. 2001:DB8: 1234:FB00:0:5000:45FF
D. 2001:0DB8:0:1234:FB00:0:5000:45FF

28
Q

*MA-B
38. As shown in the following networking, the interfaces connecting R1, R2, R3, R4, and R5 are running OSPF, and are all in area 0. The routing table of R1 has two equal-cost routes to the destination 10.1.35.0/24. In order for the forwarding path R1&raquo_space; R4 -> R3 to be preferentially selected, which of the following configuration should be performed?

A. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/3 of R2.
B. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/1 of R2.
C. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/3 of R3.
D. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/1 of R1.

A

A. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/3 of R2.
D. Run the ospf cost 10 command on GE0/0/1 of R1.

29
Q

*MA-B
39. The Domain Name System (DNS) protocol is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses. Which of the following elements constitute a complete domain name?

A. Root domain name
B. Top-level domain name
C. Host name
D. Second-level domain name

A

A. Root domain name
B. Top-level domain name
C. Host name
D. Second-level domain name

30
Q

*MA-B

    1. The concept of Network Functions Virtualization (NFV) was proposed by a group of network service providers to solve problems such as too much telecom network hardware, complex deployment and O&M, and difficult service innovation. Which of the following components are included in the standard NFV architecture?
      A. OS
      B. MANO
      C. VNF
      D. NFVI
A

B. MANO
C. VNF
D. NFVI

31
Q

*MA-B
41. Which of the following statements about static and dynamic routes are true?

A. Dynamic routing protocols can automatically discover and generate routes and are more suitable for large-scale networks.
B. Dynamic routing protocols can be classified into distance-vector routing protocols and link-state routing protocols based on their working mechanism and routing algorithms.
C. When creating a static route, you must specify both the outbound interface and next hop.
D. Static routes have low requirements on the system and are applicable to simple, stable, and small-sized networks.

A

A. Dynamic routing protocols can automatically discover and generate routes and are more suitable for large-scale networks.
B. Dynamic routing protocols can be classified into distance-vector routing protocols and link-state routing protocols based on their working mechanism and routing algorithms.
D. Static routes have low requirements on the system and are applicable to simple, stable, and small-sized networks.

32
Q

*MA-B
42, PPP over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a link layer protocol that encapsulates PPP frames into Ethernet frames. Which of the following statements about PPPoE are true?

A. PPPoE client can terminate a PPPoE session in unicast mode.
B. PPPoE is often used by home users and enterprise users to dial up for Internet access.
C. PPPoE session establishment involves three stages: PPPoE discovery, session, and termination.
D. PPPoE client broadcasts a request for the required service information.

A

A. PPPoE client can terminate a PPPoE session in unicast mode.
B. PPPoE is often used by home users and enterprise users to dial up for Internet access.
C. PPPoE session establishment involves three stages: PPPoE discovery, session, and termination.
D. PPPoE client broadcasts a request for the required service information.

33
Q

*MA-B
43, A WLAN is a network that uses wireless signals such as radio waves, lasers, and infrared rays to replace the traditional media used for transmission on a wired LAN. Which of the following devices are commonly used on a WLAN?

A. Fit AP
B. Fat AP
C. Wireless access controller (AC)
D. Cloud AP

A

A. Fit AP
B. Fat AP
C. Wireless access controller (AC)
D. Cloud AP

34
Q

*MA-B
44, Network Address Translation (NAT) translates the IP address in an IP packet header into another IP address. Which of the following methods can implement NAT?

A. Dynamic NAT
B. Static NAT/NAPT
C. NAT Server
D. Easy IP

A

A. Dynamic NAT
B. Static NAT/NAPT
C. NAT Server
D. Easy IP

35
Q

*MA-B
45. Which of the following statements are false about the forwarding behavior of access ports on a switch?

A. When an access port of the switch receives a data frame carrying the same tag as the default VLAN ID of the port, the port discards the frame.
B. When an access port of the switch sends an untagged data frame, the port adds its default VLAN ID to the frame.
C. When an access port of the switch receives an untagged data frame, the port adds its default VLAN ID to the frame.
D. When an access port of the switch receives a data frame carrying the same tag as the default VLAN ID of the port, the port accepts the frame.

A

A. When an access port of the switch receives a data frame carrying the same tag as the default VLAN ID of the port, the port discards the frame.
B. When an access port of the switch sends an untagged data frame, the port adds its default VLAN ID to the frame.

36
Q

*MA-B
46. Which of the following parameters can be specified when an administrator configures an advanced ACL?

A. Source and destination IP addresses
B. Source and destination port numbers
C. Source and destination MAC addresses
D. ICMP protocol type

A

A. Source and destination IP addresses
B. Source and destination port numbers
D. ICMP protocol type

37
Q

*MA-B
47. Which of the following statements about OSPF router IDs are true?

A. router ID can be manually configured or automatically selected by a device.
B. The router ID of every device in an OSPF area must be unique.
C. device uses the smallest IP address configured on loopback interfaces as its router ID. If no loopback interface is configured, the device uses the smallest IP address configured on interfaces as its router ID.
D. To ensure protocol stability, it is recommended that the network administrator manually configure a router ID for an OSPF process.

A

A. router ID can be manually configured or automatically selected by a device.
B. The router ID of every device in an OSPF area must be unique.
D. To ensure protocol stability, it is recommended that the network administrator manually configure a router ID for an OSPF process.

38
Q

*MA-B
48. Which of the following statements about Layer 2 and Layer 3 loops are true?

A. The TTL field in the IP packet header can prevent Layer 2 loops.
B. Layer 2 loop may occur if cables are incorrectly connected.
C. If redundant links are deployed on the network, Layer 2 loops may occur.
D. The Layer 2 frame header does not contain any information that can prevent data frames from being forwarded endlessly.

A

B. Layer 2 loop may occur if cables are incorrectly connected.
C. If redundant links are deployed on the network, Layer 2 loops may occur.
D. The Layer 2 frame header does not contain any information that can prevent data frames from being forwarded endlessly.

39
Q

*MA-B
49. In OSPF, which of the following network types require the election of a DR and BDR?

A. P2MP
B. BMA
C. NBMA
D. P2P

A

B. BMA
C. NBMA

40
Q

*MA-B
50. Interfaces GE1/0/1 and GE1/0/0 on both switches CE1 and CE2 shown in the figure have the following configurations: interface GE1/0/1 undo shutdown port link-type access # interface GE1/0/0 undo shutdown port link-type trunk port trunk pvid vlan 2 #
Which of the following statements are true?

A. Each port of a switch connects to a collision domain.
B. Each port of a router connects to a broadcast domain.
C. The Ethernet uses CSMA/CD to avoid collisions in collision domains.
D. All devices connected to the same hub belong to the same collision domain.

A

A. Each port of a switch connects to a collision domain.
B. Each port of a router connects to a broadcast domain.
C. The Ethernet uses CSMA/CD to avoid collisions in collision domains.
D. All devices connected to the same hub belong to the same collision domain.

HW (3 decks)

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