Human resources Flashcards

1
Q

Fair labor and standards act

A

Crested to establish minimum wage in overtime, pay standards and regulate employment of minors

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2
Q

Workweek

A

Seven consecutive regularly recurring 24 hour period totaling 168 hours

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3
Q

Exemptions to Fair labor standards act (flsa)

A

Full-time students apprentices handicap workers

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4
Q

Youth work restrictions

A

—3 hours per school day
—8 hours per non-school day
—start after7 AM
—cannot work after 7 PM weekday/ 9 PM weekend

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5
Q

How long do you have to keep record of wages after termination?

A

 Three years

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6
Q

Family and medical leave act

A

Protect and preserve the integrity of the family, without adversely affecting employers

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7
Q

When can you use your FML

A

Incapacity due to pregnancy or childbirth
To care for a child after birth or placement for adoption in foster care
To care for family member who has a serious health condition
Any serious health condition that makes the employee unable to perform the job

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8
Q

Military family leave entitlements

A

May use 12 weeks attending certain events, arranging childcare, addressing financial legal arrangements, attending counseling sessions, post deployment, reintegrarion briefings

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9
Q

Notice for FMLA

A

One month notice

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10
Q

Who can use FMLA

A

Worked for 12 months, at least 1250hrs during those 12 months

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11
Q

Uniformed services employment and reemployment rights act

A

Protect the rights of employees who voluntarily or involuntarily leave an employment position to undertake any military service

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12
Q

Immigration reform and control act

A

Prohibits employer discrimination against any employee or potential employee because of national origin

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13
Q

Employee polygraph protection act

A

Prohibits most employers from using lie detector test for either preemployment or screening during the course of employment

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14
Q

Equal employment opportunity policy

A

 Prohibits discrimination against employees on the basis of race, color, sex, religion, or national origin employers, cannot deny promotion, terminate, or not hire for any of these reasons. Also protects people with disabilities.

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15
Q

Age discrimination, in employment act of 1967

A

Protects against in employees over the age of 40 from discrimination on the basis of age and hiring promotion, discharge and compensation

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16
Q

Title VII of the civil rights act of 1964

A

Prohibits sex discrimination in payment of wages to men and women performing substantially equal work in the same establishment

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17
Q

Pregnancy and risks

A

Employers cannot prohibit pregnant employees from working when risks associated with her position has been discussed

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18
Q

Required posters requirements

A

OSHA it’s the law, equal employment opportunity, family and medical leave act of 1993, employee polygraph, protection act, immigration, reform in control act, uniform services employment and reemployment rights, act fair labor act

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19
Q

Employee retirement, income, security act

A

Government act that regulates, retirement funds

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20
Q

Intangible property

A

Something that a person or corporation can have ownership of and can transfer ownership to another person or corporation, but has no physical substance

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21
Q

Psychological harassment

A

Bullying, gossiping, and creating a hostile work environment. behaviors that are not sexually related

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22
Q

Key factors to consider before deciding to hire

A

Veterinary/staff ratio, veterinary production,
team members production, hospital flow,
staff payroll percentages

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23
Q

Pre employment testing reliability

A

How dependably or consistently a test measures a characteristic.

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24
Q

Pre employment  testing validity

A

Degree to which the test actually measures what is claims to measure

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25
Q

Three. Details of individual development plans.

A

Development, training, career management

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26
Q

Ideal ratio of staff to veterinarians

A

4.2:1

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27
Q

Halo effect

A

Interviewing mistake referring to allowing a candidates good qualities to overshadow the challenges they present one more moment as a candidate

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28
Q

When must OSHA safety training be completed for each new hire?

A

Before the new employee is released from onboarding to train with the team

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29
Q

Name two bonding philosophies

A

Bond to the practice; bond to the doctor

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30
Q

Staff time off requests

A

Written and 30 days in advance

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31
Q

Per Diem scheduling

A

scheduled one day at a time as needed by the practice, common among relief veterinarian

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32
Q

High density schedule

A

Anytime, a doctor has access to more than one exam room at a time

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33
Q

Emergency appointment regarding schedule

A

When no doctor is really available, and one must be pulled from another room to see the patient. (Review)

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34
Q

Risks associated with bonding clients to the entire practice

A

Lack of continuity of patient care, and client may not like all the doctors

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35
Q

Delegation

A

Authorizing subordinates to make sure decisions

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36
Q

Empower

A

The act of sharing material power with subordinates

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37
Q

Five parts about effectively delegating tasks

A

Specific, measurable, agreed, realistic, time bound

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38
Q

Staff leveraging

A

Assigning for scheduling the number of support staff needed to enable the doctor to perform as effectively as possible

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39
Q

Cross training

A

Training that cover several tasks with the department or multiple departments within an organization

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40
Q

When it comes to management of daily work, assignments, ____and _____ are the key to a successful veterinary practice

A

Delegation and empowerment

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41
Q

Benefits of cross training

A

Increase employee knowledge of the practice as a whole; when team members are ill or absent, client service and wait times do not decline, another level of accountability to prevent fraud

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42
Q

Name five types of interviews

A

Telephone prescreen, direct one on one, panel, video, working

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43
Q

How do you use the job description to guide the interview process?

A

The job description creates a list of competencies, and that drives a list of questions for an interview

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44
Q

What are the three areas to consider when interviewing?

A

Fit, impact and potential

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45
Q

What is fit? and how is it measured?

A

How a candidate complement the culture of the hospital
Measured using behavioral drivers of the individual.

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46
Q

What is impact?

A

The measure of results, the candidate has achieved in the past, as likely to achieve in the future

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47
Q

What is potential? (Interview)

A

The measure of growth, the individual would be expected to experience the increase in impact the individual might be able to experience overtime

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48
Q

What is the purpose of a rating scale in the interview?

A

To can pair candidates consistently, even if different people are performing the interview

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49
Q

What is the purpose of preemployment testing?

A

Gain a deeper understanding of behavior, such as knowledge skills abilities

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50
Q

If a background check provides negative results, what is the process?

A

First a pre-adverse action letter is sent to inform the candidate of it first action as possible. This gives them the opportunity to dispute the claims if nothing changes in the first passion letter to inform them that the first action is imminent

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51
Q

When do you perform background checks?

A

Only after a contingent offer has been made

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52
Q

What is the purpose of a confidentiality agreement?

A

To protect the employers, tangible interests from disclosure

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53
Q

How does the courts consider reasonableness of a noncompete?

A

Relationship among employers and employees, scope of activity, restricted, time, limitation, geographic, restraints, adequacy of consideration (compensation)

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54
Q

Onboarding four Cs

A

Compliance, clarification, culture, connection

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55
Q

On boarding with ease

A

Encouragement, align, solve, and end

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56
Q

Four Cs of onboarding

A

Compliance, clarification, culture, connection

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57
Q

What is a phase training list?

A

Outlines the progressive steps in the training for a specific position in the practice

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58
Q

What is a reasonable training investment?

A

1 to 2% of the hospitals annual revenue

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59
Q

The most common reasons why staff members leave the practice or profession

A

Lack of positive feedback,
lack of training opportunities, Ffailure of management to include them in the larger strategic vision of the practice

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60
Q

Five ways to enhance employee development

A

Shared purpose, tools to do the job, standard operating procedures, performance standards, engage and Empower, recognizing reward, physical fitness, personal focus, team focus

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61
Q

What is an IDP?

A

An employee development system based on mutual commitment between practice leader ship and it’s staff members

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62
Q

What percentage of learning should be from all the job training

A

70

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63
Q

Other than on the job training, same to other types of learning opportunities

A

Coaching and mentoring (20%)
Actual courses lectures, informal training (10%)

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64
Q

How long can staff tolerate video training?

A

20 minutes

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65
Q

What are the goals of effective appointment scheduling?

A

Eliminate client waste time and maximize the efficiency of the doctors support staff and facility by minimizing downtime between clients or procedures

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66
Q

What is a 10 minute flex scheduling option?

A

Appointments are scheduled in 10 minute increments as needed for the type of appointment

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67
Q

What is the preferred bonding rate for tenured doctors? New doctors

A

Tenured 70%
new doctors 25%

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68
Q

If a large number of clients arrive to early or late to an appointment what do you need to look at?

A

Time management problems of ongoing appointment, scheduling

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69
Q

What does management goal in regards to scheduling?

A

To redirect and re-organize appointment scheduling protocol as needed to get to work flowing smoothly

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70
Q

When should you set a reminder notifications for an appointment?

A

24 hours prior is best practice

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71
Q

Rotating schedule

A

The staff their duties and shift rotate

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72
Q

Skill-based scheduling

A

Based on the known skill set of the employee and needs to the practice. The greater the skill set, the employee develops the most flexible their scheduling options.

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73
Q

Split scheduling

A

When an employee works for more than one business unit within a single work, that example reception in the morning and surgery in the afternoon

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74
Q

Four steps of the management process

A

Planning, organizing, directing, evaluating

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75
Q

What is the total cost of the veterinary practices labor force?

A

38 to 45% and
up to 45 to 55 including benefits and taxes
This includes veterinarians and support staff compensation

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76
Q

Five aspects of emotional intelligence

A

Internal motivation, self regulation, self awareness, empathy, and social awareness

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77
Q

What are the four viewpoints that businesses should use to evaluate success?

A

Financial, customer/client, internal business processes, learning and growth

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78
Q

What is action center leader ship?

A

The leader, accomplishes goals through the actions of the team

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79
Q

What is leadership fatigue?

A

An extreme experience of stress associate with managing expectations regarding policies and procedures in the hospital

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80
Q

Name three elements to help motivate employees

A

Autonomy, mastery, and purpose

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81
Q

How are the mission statement and vision statement related?

A

Mission statement is why they come to work every day and vision statement is where the practice will be in the future

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82
Q

Who developed the mission statement?

A

Usually the owner

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83
Q

How do you use a mission statement and core values?

A

They are tied in to every job, description, training program, and performance evaluation

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84
Q

Three elements must exist for intrinsic motivation to occur. What are they?

A
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85
Q

What are the five levels of emotional intelligence?

A

Self awareness, self-control, Self motivation, empathy, effective management of relationships

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86
Q

12Cs of team building

A

Clear expectations, context, commitment, competence, charter, control, collaboration, communication, creative innovation, consequence, coordination, cultural change

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87
Q

Another name for confidentiality agreement

A

 Nondisclosure agreement

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88
Q

Purpose of confidentiality agreement

A

1– to protect sensitive information from disclosed to other, 2– to maintain patent rights, 3– to prevent specific information for being used outside of the business relationship

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89
Q

What are the five components to drug-free workplace

A

1– a written DFW policy
2– supervisor training
3– staff education
4– employee assistance
5– drug testing

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90
Q

Name three benefits that might be required by law

A

Cobra, family leave, sick time

91
Q

Factors to consider when creating a benefits plan

A

1– the practice budget
2– full-time versus part-time definition
3– IRS regulations regarding taxable benefits

92
Q

What is the most expensive employee benefit the practice will offer

A

Health insurance

93
Q

Fee for service plan

A

Patient visit the physician of their choice and are reimbursed

94
Q

HMO

A

Health maintenance organization; visit physicians within the network, must have a referral for a specialist or out of network

95
Q

PPO

A

Preferred provider organization, network is provided, but you may go outside the network but it is more costly

96
Q

POS

A

Point of service plan, must see physicians in net work, but do not need a referral to visit a specialist

97
Q

Two types of section 125 plans

A

Health savings account and flexible spending account

98
Q

What are two scenarios in which an FSA might be used after the one year time

A

If the employer offers to roll over $500 or the employer offers to give an additional 2 1/2 months to use the benefit

99
Q

Which tax savings plan is owned by the employer

100
Q

Who enforces retirement plans

A

The department of labor
The employee retirement income security act

101
Q

Name three types of retirement plans

A

SIMPLE IRA, 401(k), employee pension plan

102
Q

Which retirement plans in the employee contribute to?

A

Simple IRA and 401(k)

103
Q

Which retirement plan is the employer required to contribute?

A

Simple IRA but they may contribute to 401(k), but are not required

104
Q

Health insurance is required for businesses that have more than how many employees?

A

50 full time employees or more

105
Q

What health plan is a make mixture of fee for service, and HMO

A

Preferred provider organization plan

106
Q

Why are employee medical documents stored separately for the employee file?

A

1–The ADA and FMLA require them to be separate
2– it may be appropriate for a direct supervisor to view the file, but not appropriate for them to know about the medical history

107
Q

Can employee wage garnishment paperwork or credit reports be filed with the payroll records and/or with the main employment records?

108
Q

Which entity requires detailed records to be kept of payroll and benefits

A

The internal revenue code, and
Fair labor standards act

109
Q

Section ____ of the IRS code allows health insurance to be paid pre- tax

110
Q

What healthcare plan operates on the use it or lose it rule at the end of the year

111
Q

Who enforces the employee retirement Income security act

A

Department of labor

112
Q

What form needs to be filed separately from the employees other files?

113
Q

How long should records of job related injuries be kept

A

Three years

114
Q

At the core of every safety plan or manual is _____

A

Right to know law

115
Q

True or false A section of chemotherapy should be included in your safety manual even if you do not perform chemotherapy.

116
Q

One way to begin to create an operation manual is to look where?

A

Job descriptions

117
Q

What are the top three things that cause conflict in the workplace

A

Gossip, lack of training, lack of communication

118
Q

After meeting with employees are having a conflict. How long do you wait before discussing with them their plans for resolution?

A

One to two days

119
Q

True or false
Raises should be tied to performance evaluation

120
Q

What are the three most common types of reviews?

A

360
Job satisfaction survey
Self review

121
Q

What is the best time to confront conflict?

A

 Immediately

122
Q

If an employee is performing poorly due to a death in the family, what actions are appropriate

A

Have a discussion with the employee and hold him accountable while still being sensitive to the recent situation

123
Q

And what type of employment relationship Requires Sufficient reason for termination?

A

Just cause

124
Q

What is a negligent referral?

A

A referral in which you do not mention an ex employee’s propensity for violence or illegal behavior.

125
Q

True or false
An employment contract that details a specific length of employment is an exception to at will employment

126
Q

What is the A B C D E F?

A

A
b
Consequences
Decision confirmed
E
F

127
Q

Name three goal setting categories

A

1-learn a new skill
2-teach a new skill
3-upgrade and existing skill or attend a class
4-improve customer service
5-improve client education
6-improve practice profitability
7-develop a marketing program for a service or product
8-simplify a process or procedure

128
Q

What three elements must exist for intrinsic motivation

A

Autonomy, mastery, and purpose

129
Q

When is the TEAM approach used?

A

Model to facilitate discussions about medical errors

130
Q

What is the TEAM approach?

A

T—truth, teamwork, transparency
E—empathy
A—apology and accountability
M—management

131
Q

What pre-employment question, may you ask about their criminal background?

A

In the last five years, Have you been convicted of a felony or within the past two years of any misdemeanor or are you presently formally charged with committing a criminal offense?

132
Q

What exclusions to the criminal background should you make?

A

Do not ask questions about traffic, violations, juvenile offenses, or military convictions, except by general court martial

133
Q

What question may you ask preemployment regarding narcotics?

A

In the past three years, have you ever knowingly used narcotics, amphetamines, or barbiturates other than those prescribed to you by your physician?

134
Q

What is passive income

A

Income not brought in directly by the dvms

135
Q

What %of income should
Be active vs passive?

136
Q

What is the job retention average?

137
Q

Name 5 different types of interview

A

Telephone pre screen
One on one
Panel
Video
Working

138
Q

What is fit?

A

How the candidate compliments the hospital culture

139
Q

What is impact?

A

The measure of results a candidate has achieved in the past and is likely to achieve in the future

140
Q

Potential

A

Measure of growth the individual would be expected to experience and the increase in impact the individual might be able to experience over time

141
Q

How do courts consider the reasonableness of a non-compete?

A

—relationship among employers/buyers and employee/sellers
-scope of activity restricted
-time limitation
-geographic restraints
-adequacy of consideration

142
Q

Where does learning and development come from?

A

70% on the job training
20% coaching and mentoring
10% courses, lectures, formal training

143
Q

Goals of an effective appointment schedule

A

1-eliminate client wait time
2-maximize efficiency of the doctors, support staff, and facility by minimizing downtime between clients or procedures

144
Q

If using paper scheduling what format works best?

A

Week at a glance

145
Q

High density scheduling

A

Dvm as access to more than one exam room at a time

146
Q

When should you give advance notice of a scheduled appointment?

147
Q

5 key favors involved when considering to hire

A

Veterinary staff ratio
Veterinary production
Team member production
Staff payroll
Hospital work flow

148
Q

____ refers to a he degree to which the test actually measures what it claims to measure

149
Q

A pre-adverse action letter should be used when?

A

When considering not hiring a candidate due to details revealed ina pre-employment background check

150
Q

When it comes to enhancing employee productivity which is the following is NOT one of the suggestions?
A engage and empower
B personal focus
C accountability and acceptance
D performance standards

A

Accountability and acceptance

151
Q

What are the three main details to address in and Individual development plan?

A

Development, training, career management

152
Q

On board with Ease. What do each letter stand for?

A

Encouragement
Align
Solve
End

153
Q

Regarding the practice schedule, what is the definition of an emergency

A

When no doctor is immediately available, and one must be pulled from another client

154
Q

Your practice has decided that they want clients to bond with the entire practice. What are the risks associated with that Bonding philosophy?
A the clients may not like all the doctors
B lack of continuity of patient care
C doctors find it an unrewarding way to practice

155
Q

When empowering a team member, it is important to define the task with clarity which part of the smart system will do that?

156
Q

When it comes to management of daily work assignments ___ and ____ are the keys to a successful veterinary practice
A  delegation and instruction
B delegation and empowerment
C delegation and responsibility

A

Delegation and empowerment

157
Q

Name three benefits of cross training

A

— employee knowledge of the practice as a whole, in the roles of others, and in the practice grows
— when team members are ill or absent client service, and wait times do not have to decline
— places, another level of employee accountability into the system, helping to reduce occurrence of fraud and theft

158
Q

Roll of staff meeting facilitator

A

-create agenda
-start and end meeting in time (45min max)
- control topics and prioritize topics
- facilitate positive discussion
-review accomplishments

159
Q

When do we use the ABCDEF approach?

A

Corrective action discussions

160
Q

If there are no conflicts, what are the three options?

A

-staff members may be afraid to speak up
-practice culture is one where team members are trained to do what they are told
-the team thinks so much alike that there is little creative tension to promote innovation or change

161
Q

Top issues that cause conflict in the workplace

A

Gossip
Lack of training
Lack of communication

162
Q

Conflict management intervention steps

A

1-confront the behavior
2-talk it out
3-hold team members accountable for solutions
4-follow up and feedback

163
Q

What is the rule of 3?

A

—take notice
—mentally take note and see if start of a pattern
—conversation

164
Q

Disciplinary action procedure

A

-Verbal warning with documentation and supervision signature
-written warning(s) documented and signed by both employee and supervisor
-final warning with next step as termination

165
Q

What are the two types of employment relationship

A

Just cause and at will

166
Q

T/F. Training meeting should be 20-40 mins long for attendees to remain engaged

A

False 20 mins

167
Q

Employee performance review should include
A-conversations about wage and compensation
B-clarity about goals and direction
C- addressing team member accomplishments
D-address concerns over policy and procedures

168
Q

One potential management review pitfall is ——
A management pre-conceived ideas or expectations
B measuring the trivial
C not giving employee all the time they need to discuss their concerns

A

B measuring the trivial

169
Q

Which element is not part of the ABCDEF formula?
Accountability
Decision making
Consequences

A

Accountability
A stands for awareness

170
Q

Avoidance of the other person, personal attacks, hurtful gossip,, barbed humor and lack of cooperation are all the potential symptoms of what dynamic within the practice?
A vague guidelines/policies regarding conflict resolution
B-symptoms of conflict within the practice
C lack of accountability and leadership

A

B symptoms of conflict within the practice

171
Q

T/F an employment contract that details a specific length of employment is an exception to at will employment.

172
Q

What are the federal retention laws for applicant document such as resumes and employment?

A

One year from filling the position unless you suspect the applicant is over 40 years of age and it is recommended to keep records two years

173
Q

List the four elements necessary to hold working interviews

A

—must be paid at least minimum wage
— must be in payroll
— must be eligible to work in the US
— must be covered under Workmen’s Compensation

174
Q

FIT is how a candidate will complement the culture, and POTENTIAL is the measure of growth the new hire would be expected to experience. Define IMPACT

A

The measure of results, the candidate has achieved in the past is likely to achieve in the future

175
Q

As it relates to interviewing candidates, what are the benefits of using a rating scale?

A

Can compare candidates equally it consistently, especially if there are multiple members interviewing candidates

176
Q

T/F. Information revealed in the background checks can be helpful with hiring decisions and should be conducted on all candidates who make it to the final hiring pool to choose from

A

False.
Background checks should only be made after a contingent employment offer has been made

177
Q

What are phase training lists and what are the four benefits of using them?

A

Define the progressive steps in the training for a specific position within the practice
1-helps ensure team members are trained properly
2- aids in titrating information to the employee to avoid overloading them early in the process
3- provide a resource for training preparation for the Trainer
4- provide reference and review material for the new employee in phase training can accommodate a new employee that already has some experience

178
Q

What is a reasonable budget to spend on training annually?

179
Q

New employees must have immediate knowledge of what five safety details

A

1-location of PPE and instructions on their use
2-location of all mandatory posters
3-location of first aid kit, eye wash stations, and exits
4– location of safety manual
5– copies of all applicable OSHA standards

180
Q

Name the four elements of enhancing employee productivity

A

1-shared purpose
2- tools to do the job
3- standard operating procedure
4- performance standards
5- engage and empower
6- recognize and reward
7- physical fitness
8- personal focus
9- team focus

181
Q

The —- and —— of the practice help to find a core competencies that should be expected of employees

A

Mission
Values

182
Q

Why are core competencies important in staff development?

A

Because they can be tiered to beginner intermediate an expert.
they can be considered in terms of reward based compensation

183
Q

Name four elements that should be considered in virtual team training

A

1– put your training on a diet
2– gain attention from the start
3– establish relevance
4– present information with a twist
5– ask compelling questions
6– conduct, realistic demonstration
7– provide discussion
8– employ interactive activities
9– end with a bang
10– prepare, prepare, prepare

184
Q

In the 70/20/10 learning and development model define the elements involved

A

70 hands on learning
20 mentoring/coaching
10 lectures/courses/formal traininf

185
Q

An effective appointment system should have what two goals

A

-Reduction in downtime between appointments or procedures
-eliminate client wait time

186
Q

In the example of death scheduling list the breakdown of 3. 5 minute sections for a 15 minute annual wellness appointment

A

First five minutes history/vitals
Second five minutes physical exam/answer questions/discuss preventative care/gather information
Third five minutes collect lab samples, fill prescriptions, vaccinate

187
Q

What are three ways to try to avoid appointment problems with clients?

A

— appt cards given while in clinic
— advanced reminder 24hrs ahead (confirmation calls)
—proper hospital protocols that prepare the team for unexpected appointment challengea

188
Q

Name at least five of the nine details to consider regarding appointment scheduling criteria for making appointments schedules

A

—physical space (#of exam rooms)
—#of doctors available at a particular period
—relative efficiency if doctors
—time allotted for each appointment
— # of patients presented by each client
—types of cases seen
—hrs of hospital operation
—-favored client times
—vet tech appointments

189
Q

An unusual number of established clients arriving early or late to the appointment may be a sign of what?

A

Ongoing appointment scheduling and time
Management problems at the hospital

190
Q

When it comes to staff scheduling—- is one of the most desired employee benefits; therefore, it is an important component in staff morale, productivity and retention

A

Flexibility

191
Q

Name and define the force potential employee scheduling options

A

—rotating schedule—staff, duties and shifts rotate
—hybrid schedule—- mix of fixed and variable days
—skill based schedule—based on the known skill set of the employee and needs of the practice
—split scheduling—employee works for one business unti for a set period then moves to another ex sx in am, rooms in on
—per diem—scheduled one day at a time as needed by the practice.

192
Q

Ultimately -___ is responsible for the efficiency, function and flow of the practice

193
Q

When it comes to managing daily work assignments; what does SMART stand for and what are the definitions?

A

S—specific—define the task
M—measurable—how is the task going to be measured
A—agreed—both parties agree in the importance and how results will be achieved, what resources are needed
R—realistic—task is realistic with the time constraints that are in place
T—time bound—how and when will results be expected

194
Q

When lending a controlled drug to another practitioner, what step is unnecessary for schedule 3, 4, 5, but is necessary for schedule 2 drugs?
A: using the DEA 222 form, copy 3 of the form stays with the vet who receives a drug, copy 1 stays with the registered practitioner supplying the drug
, copy 2 copy is sent to the DEA
B. It is illegal to land a schedule two drug.
C. Using the DEA 222 form, although both receiving DVM and spying DVM should log copies know copy needs to be sent to the DEA

195
Q

T/F. Regarding vets who work at more than one location; they may administer, dispense, and prescribe control drugs, providing they have a current DEA registration at a central place of business.

A

False. They may only prescribe controlled drugs.
To administer or dispense, they must be classified as an employee of the registered, or they must register at each facility, where they are employed

196
Q

Under what circumstances can a DVM, dispense an adulterated drug?
A when all ingredients are FDA approved
B under no circumstances
C as long as there are no more than two drugs combined and both are FDA approved

197
Q

In regards to a DEA inspection, what can the inspector copy without the consent of the practice owner or representative?
A all records and reports involved in control drugs
B all records, reports, and financial information regarding control drugs
C they cannot copy any documents without consent

A

A all records and reports involving control drugs

198
Q

Which plan enables employees to make their medical insurance premium payments before taxes are deducted from their paycheck, and can also meet substantial pretax saving for employers

A

Section 125 plans

199
Q

Regarding evaluating medical insurance; name at least four ingredients that should be included when creating a checklist to aid evaluation

A
  1. Basic type of plan.
  2. Details of coverage.
  3. Size of providers and related services in facilities within the net work.
  4. Cost to employer employees, dependence, and deductibles and co-pays.
  5. Employee eligibility.
  6. Simplicity of administration.
200
Q

Name at least five documents that should be in a personnel file

A
  1. Application, résumé, interview, notes, background check.
  2. Job description.
  3. Offer of employment letter.
  4. Performance, evaluation, education, and training.
  5. Disciplinary documents.
  6. Emergency contact information.
  7. Tax withholding forms.
  8. Copy of degrees, diplomas and certifications.
  9. Contracts agreements and noncompete agreements.
  10. Employee actual forms such a change of wage position and department.
    11 leave of absence in attendance record, except FMLA
201
Q

What is one personal file document that should be stored separate from all other similar documents

202
Q

Name, at least for documents that might be without an employee medical personnel file

A
  1. Health and life insurance forms.
  2. Position notes, return to work notice, limited duty, notice or accommodations.
  3. Insurance or Worker’s Compensation claims
  4. Physical exam results.
  5. FMLA documentation
203
Q

How can a job description help you avoid hiring someone who is unable to perform essential duties of the position?

A

Listing was considered an impediment to satisfactory performance, such as being afraid of aggressive pets

204
Q

What specifics should be included in the accountability section of a job description?

A
  1. Where does this position reside in the hierarchy of the practice?
  2. Who do they report to?
  3. Who evaluates their performance
  4. How much authority does this position have?
205
Q

T /F job descriptions are required by federal law

206
Q

How often should job descriptions be evaluated for accuracy?

A

Annually, but more often in the case of staff reduction or growth

207
Q

What’s three purposes do hospital manual serve

A
  1. A reference tool for standards of care and practice guidelines.
  2. Training and instructional tool
  3. They defined a standard to which employees can be held accountable to reach.
208
Q

Explain the difference between the hospital operations and procedures manual, and the employee, policies, procedures, and guidelines manual

A

The operations manual is a comprehensive text that details every aspect of specifically how you want work to be done
The policies, procedures, manual details, clarity and purpose to the practice mission and values and also details expectations, compensation and benefits, legal disclaimers, and other details surrounding employee specific policy and procedures

209
Q

Where should you keep the hospital safety manual?

A

A central location

210
Q

What helps facilitate keeping staff meetings on track?

211
Q

What are the five responsibilities in the role of the facilitator in a staff meeting?

A
  1. Starting and ending on time.
  2. Controlling topics.
  3. Preventing negativity from overcoming the team.
  4. Prioritizing topics
  5. Tactfully preventing a team member from dominating the meeting
212
Q

List several ways to engage employees during a staff meeting

A
  1. Use visual aids.
  2. Tasteful appropriate humor
  3. Publicly praise work, well done and celebrate successes.
  4. Do not allow meetings to turn into Gripe sessions
  5. Share important information, changes in progress towards goals so that people want to be at the meeting and not miss out on the announcements.
  6. Require/ request team members to present topics.
  7. Learning games or icebreaker exercises.
213
Q

What detail should be included in meeting minutes?

A
  1. Record decisions and assignments.
  2. Designate responsible parties.
  3. Record the deadline agreed-upon during the meeting.
  4. Who was present
  5. What topics if any will be revisited in the next meeting
214
Q

What is the best way to end a staff meeting?

A

On a positive note

215
Q

Employee performance reviews should be developed from the —-

A

Job description

216
Q

What renders an employee performance review useless

A

Lack of clear performance expectations in the job description, because without them team members cannot be held accountable

217
Q

What are the three most common types of employee performance reviews?

A

360, self review, job satisfaction survey

218
Q

What are the four this one’s necessary for an effective employee review?

A
  1. Hold all employees accountable for their local performance outcomes.
  2. Teach all employees to identify, deploy, and develop their strengths.
  3. Align our performance, appraisals and review systems around identifying, the plane, and developing employee strengths.
  4. Design and build each role to create world class performers in the role
219
Q

The most successful employees performance review programs typical combine what four elements

A
  1. Regular informal feedback from supervisors.
  2. Performance goals that are set by the employee and a supervisor.
  3. Action plans to address performance or disciplinary problems.
  4. Formal reviews that document the “big picture “
220
Q

What are the potential risks of delaying a discussion once an issue is known

A

May result in additional conflict
May be interpreted that management is not interested in the problem

221
Q

What is the fourth step method for successful intervention regarding conflict management?

A
  1. Confront the behavior.
  2. Talk it out.
  3. Hold team members accountable for solutions.
  4. Follow up and feedback.
222
Q

Define at will employment

A

Form of employment in which the employee is serving the employer at the wheel of both parties,
this allows employer to terminate its employees with or without cause

223
Q

What is the suggested protocol for an employee who is performing poorly due to a short term personal life stressor

A

They should be advised that it is unsatisfactory, and if not for these problems, they would be terminated, but will be given the opportunity to improve once the short term problems are resolved.
reevaluate at that time

224
Q

Name for Xpress exceptions to at will employment

A
  1. Collective bargaining agreement.
  2. Specific contracts, to indicate a specific length of employment.
  3. Dismissals based on race, sex color, etc..
  4. Dismissal because of pregnancy.
  5. Dismissal based on age if over 40.
  6. Dismissal, because an employer refuses to work in a workplace, they consider unsafe.
  7. Dismissal do the bankruptcy.
  8. Dismissal due to service on federal jury.