human resource management Flashcards

1
Q

what is an organisational chart

A

This is a diagram that shows the hierarchy in a business

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2
Q

what is included in an organisational chart

A

hierarchy, span of control, communication, line of management, chain of command and accountability.

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3
Q

what is an organisational structure

A

the way in which a business is organised.

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4
Q

what is span of control

A

number of employees under a manager.

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5
Q

what is a wide span of control compares to a narrow

A

wide- manager responsible for many employees
narrow manager responsible for relatively few employees

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6
Q

how many people involved in the span of control depends on what?

A

personality of manger
the skills and experience of employees
size of business
if the business is centralised
degree of competition in market
extent to which business has agreed and well defined objectives- if all clear of direction less supervision necessary so wider span of control can be used.

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7
Q

what is chain of command

A

the way in which responsibility for employees is organised within a business.

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8
Q

what is meant by levels of hierarchy

A

refers to numbers of levels or layers in a business organisation.
levels depend on structure, horizontal/ flat had less level than vertical/ tall

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9
Q

what is delayering

A

reducing the number of levels in the hierarchy of an organisation.

If the business is in a competitive market, it needs to ensure that its costs are kept under control, and one way to reduce costs is to remove a layer or tier of management.

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10
Q

what is the advantages of delayering

A

provides an opportunity for employees to have more responsibility, which may be beneficial in terms of motivation.

the decision-making process is quicker, as there are fewer layers for decisions

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11
Q

what are the disadvantages of delayering

A

the span of control in the business will increase cost implications in the short term, as redundancies may be necessary.

demotivate employees as they fear job loss- less sense of security.

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12
Q

what is delegation & it’s impacts

A

giving someone authority to act for another, reduces costs, give more responsibility, span of control increases

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13
Q

what does how much delegation takes place depend on

A
  • Leadership style: a democratic style will mean more delegation.
  • How busy the manager or leader is: if the leader is very busy, delegation is more likely to occur.
  • Ability and willingness of employees to take on additional responsibility.
  • Type of task that is to be delegated.
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14
Q

what is empowerment & one impact

A

giving employees responsibility for tasks they perform.

enriching employees’ jobs, it is hoped that they will be more motivated.

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15
Q

what are the main types of organisational structure

A

system, product, matrix

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16
Q

what is organising the business by system

A

split into specialist areas which operate together to make the business function efficiently.

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17
Q

problems with organising the business by system

A

tendency of each department to operate as separate entity or treat itself as most important part of business- managers in department fail to operate with strategic objective.

without integration and co-ordination business will become fragmented with each department working towards its own agenda. damage overall productivity

difficult to evaluate performance & identify if a particular product is stressful since several departments impacted performance.

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18
Q

what is organising the business by product

A

each product has its own team, can create conflict but helps to motivate employees.

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19
Q

benefits of organising the business by system

A

Each part of the system (i.e department) contains specialist who can concentrate on what they do best.

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20
Q

what are the benefits of organising business by product

A

easier to see which products are performing well. Each profit centre can be easily evaluated.

Managers of each product can concentrate their energies on one product rather than several.

Each centre has considerable autonomy, which can increase motivation.

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21
Q

what are the problems of organising the business by product

A

Different products compete for resources (such as finance); this can create winners and losers and so can lead to conflict.

less likely to achieve managerial economies of scale

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22
Q

what is the organistic (horizontal or flat) structure

A

The organistic structure is flat and has a large span of control. Each manager is responsible for a large number of employees (subordinates).

Delegation encouraged, allowing for a more motivated workforce.

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23
Q

what is the mechanistic ( vertical or tall) structure

A

is more vertical than the organistic and consequently has a smaller span of control.

As there are a large number of layers in the structure, it is also more bureaucratic.

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24
Q

is vertical or horizontal structure associated with democratic style leaderhsip?

A

horizontal

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25
Q

what is a centralised (entrepreneurial) structure

A

the decision making process takes place at the top of the hierarchy.

all decisions are made by senior managers at the top of the business structure. all communication goes through them.

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26
Q

are centralised or decentralised structures associated with autocratic leaders

A

centralised

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27
Q

what is a decentralised structure

A

allows the decision-making process to take place away from further down the hierarchy.
span of control wide.

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28
Q

are centralised or decentralised structures associated with democratic leaders

A

decentralised

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29
Q

what are the advantages of a centralised structure

A

quicker decisions as no need to consult all other branches.
if crisis will be strong leadership
standardised approach in way business operated.
less duplication of resources, can reduce costs

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30
Q

what are the disadvantages of a centralised structure

A

decisions made without benefit of local knowledge
lack of involvement in decision making process- demotivating
experts in a region may be ignored= mistakes
loss of goodwill in regions as consumer needs not met by centralised decisions

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31
Q

what are the advantages of a decentralised structure

A

local regions better informed for some decisions
make decisions= motivator
opportunities for local initiatives to be used
less time spent on communication
more flexible approach as decisions can be made for individual areas or products rather than standardised approach.

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32
Q

what is Martix organisational structure

A

is where employees with similar skills are put together to complete tasks or projects, but with more than one manager supervising.
will have several lines of communication and reporting

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33
Q

what is an organisational culture

A

the system of shared beliefs and values that develops within an organisation and guides behaviour of it’s members.

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34
Q

what are the main components of good organisation or corporate culture

A
  • Vision- starting with a mission statement.
  • Values- the values of a business are the core of its culture.
  • Practices- actually acting and operating in such a way as to match its values.
  • People- employees who share the values of the business.
  • Narrative- viewing the history of the business and it’s heritage.
  • Place- locating a business. also refers to layourt. e.g open plan offices
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35
Q

The corporate or organisational culture of a business can be seen within a business bu the manner in which it?

A
  • Conducts it’s business.
  • Treat its customers.
  • Reacts or shows concern for its local community.
  • Allows its employees to be involved in the decision-making process.
  • Communicates within the organisation.
  • Views the commitment of all within the business, the values, objectives and mission statement.
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36
Q

what is the value of having an organisational structure

A

then plain to see who is responsible for whom, and who reports to whom; the lines of responsibility and communication are clear for all to see and may be of benefit within an induction programme.

allow the business to plan for the future; can it expand

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37
Q

what are the main impacts of organisational culture

A

impacts operation, customer treatment, communication, employee involvement, building layout and dress code.

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38
Q

why is communication important for a business

A

will ensure that the number of mistakes made within the business is reduced. mistakes reduced= costs and time reduced.
if clear and effective, then the employees within the business will feel a sense of belonging (Maslow’s theory) and involvement (Mayo’s theory).
can take place quickly and effectively, enhance the decision-making process. The business will be able to progress and be more competitive
effective- marketing tool, if communication reaches target market successfully via higher sales= more income.

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39
Q

what is one way communication

A

message that does not require a response from receiver.

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40
Q

what are the advantages of one way communication process

A

easy to use
cheaper than two way
no pressure on the sender to justify what is being communicated.

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41
Q

what are the disadvantages of one way communication

A

less reliable as no way to check message (no feedback)
may cause frustration for receiver.

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42
Q

what is two way communication

A

information flows in two directions- the reciever provides feedback, and the sender is receptive of feedback

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43
Q

what are the advantages of two way communication

A

More effective/ reliable, because the receiver is able to gain clarification (feedback). Receiver feels more involved because he or she is able to seek clarification.

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44
Q

what are the disadvantages of two way communication

A

Takes more time and is therefore more expensive.
Puts the sender of the information under pressure to justify/ explain the information being sent.

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45
Q

what is formal communication

A

the system of official channels that carry organisationally approved message and information has set rules and procedures.

The formality may refer to the type of language that is used, to whom one speaks or the media that is used to communicate.
Contracts between businesses will also use formal language.

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46
Q

what is an example of formal communication

A

Information stored by a business such as sales figures or employee’ details

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47
Q

what is informal communication

A

Little or no established rules for how communication takes place.
this is when information is sent and received casually using everyday language.
setting usually takes place outside work.

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48
Q

in most cases if informal communication written or verbal?

A

passed on verbally
exceptions- email or text

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49
Q

what is open communication

A

communication that’s free of technical jargon, use for shareholders outside of the business
understood by vast majority of population.

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50
Q

why is open communication true with marketing

A

Often a clear, simple message will yield better results than a detailed, complicated and technical message.

Using language that is not easily understood will reduce the number of people who can understand

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51
Q

what is closed communication

A

a business may have its own language for activities and procedures. slang or abbreviation which is hard to understand from outside the business.

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52
Q

what is vertical communication

A

communication from manager to worker, provides an opportunity for the employee to feel involved.
can take place in an upward direction as well.
Employees at the lower end of the business hierarchy may pass on vital information to the management about difficulties with production. This type of communication may just involve the day-to-day discussion

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53
Q

what is the benefit of vertical communication

A

it provides an opportunity to feel involved (Mayo’s theory) and helps alleviate any frustrations within the working environment (Herzberg, hygiene factors).

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54
Q

what is horizontal communication

A

communication between people on the same level of the organisational structure.
could be employees on same level discussing marketing plan for advert.

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55
Q

what is communication media

A

refers to methods of delivering and receiving data using telecommunications

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56
Q

why do channels of network vary

A
  • the type of leader.
  • Size of the business.
  • Experience of the employees.
  • Type of organisational structures.
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57
Q

what is the chain channel communication network?

A

associated with a formal and vertical hierarchy, information can be communicated up and down the hierarchy, although more likely much of the communication will be sent down the hierarchical structure

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58
Q

what type of organisation is chain associated with

A

large organisation, such as the civil service.
likely lack of opportunity for employees at lower end of hierarchy to be able to communicate with higher level of hierarchy directly.

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59
Q

problem with chain communication

A

likely lack of opportunity for employees at lower end of hierarchy to be able to communicate with higher level of hierarchy directly.

information becoming distorted as it travels through several layers of the hierarchy.

problem in terms of the length of time it takes, any message has to travel through every level of the hierarchy will take time, costly for the business.

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60
Q

what is wheel communication network

A

has the leader, chief executive, or board of directors at the centre.
All communication goes through the leader (centralised structure), and this type of network enables the leader to keep in touch with everything that is taking place

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61
Q

problems with wheel communication

A

discourage employee initiative and responsibility as leader is involved with all communication. This is not associated with delegation.

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62
Q

what is circle communication network

A

restricted network for communication, which can take place between employees, usually within a department or on the same level of a hierarchy.

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63
Q

problems with circle communication

A

time-consuming and therefore expensive.

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64
Q

what are the barriers to effective communication

A

technical- ability to receive information.
systematic- receivers ability to understand.
effectiveness- has the information been acted upon appropriately.
skill of sender- is sender inexperienced & used wrong media.
ability of receiver
body language- can’t be contradictory. also tone of voice
inappropriate medium used
cultural differences- words/ tone misunderstood by received
size of business- larger more difficult communication.
amount of information- a lot and verbal greater error risk. once particular media popular- tendency to communication overload. emailers guilty.

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65
Q

what are group norms

A

set of rules which may be written, unwritten, spoken or even just implied. The rules will vary according to the type of group, the setting/ environment, and the type of people involved.
The rules or guidelines or standards that are expected in terms of behaviour within the group can vary enormously.

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66
Q

what are implicit norms

A

where there is an assumption that there is a set way to behave, operate or interact with members within the group.

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67
Q

what are explicit norms

A

where there is a written set of rules of such matters as to how to answer the phone, respond to customer, or the manner and language that ought to be used when addressing a superior.

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68
Q

whether there is consensus in group norms or individual conforms to group norms depend on what

A
  • Whether there is a shared view within the group.
  • The extent to which the individual needs the group.
  • The purpose of the group.
  • The formality of the group- a formal work group will have a heavier influence on an individual than an informal group.
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69
Q

what are the importance of HR objectives

A

Clear human resource objectives are necessary because ‘the people element’ underpins what every functional area in the business is trying to achieve.

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70
Q

what’s involved in human resource objectives

A

recruitment, induction, ongoing training, pay rates, appraisal, change in employment law and customer service.

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71
Q

what are the problems of not setting HR objectives

A

managers find themselves ‘firefighting’ problems- lack of employees with right skills=
increased overtime working or the use of agency staff, problems in reputation and cash flow.
also problems with not following legislations set= breach of law and bad publicity

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72
Q

there must be a balance in the workforce in terms of what

A

balance of age. if all over 50- some may be planning to retire & will be no one to replace them.
if entire workforce under 25- lack of experience.
innovation- while good to have experienced long term members of staff, may be problems of no new employees to bring enthusiasm, fresh ideas.
skills- range.
providing right training and having high retention rates- help reduce turnover.

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73
Q

what are the factors that affect Human resource needs

A

changing needs of the business. e.g sales trends may mean increase production of one product. need for workers of particular skill.
when staff leave, need to be replaced.
increase sales= more staff needed.
improved technology= less need for human labour/ existing workforce trained work with new technology
changing method of production
level of budget- alter employees can be employed- problems with cash flow may result in less employees.
unforeseen circumstances. e.g natural disaster.
state of economy effect labour demand
changes to legislation- affect business ability to take on employees.

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74
Q

factors affecting the ability of a business to meet its human resource needs

A

Availability of potential workers, sufficient numbers?
skills of workers
demand for workers from other businesses. affect availability and level of wage.
location of business. attractive?
cost of living in locality of the business
government legislation could make harder/ more expensive to take on workers.

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75
Q

what is outsourcing

A

refers to the contracting jobs to external labour.

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76
Q

what are the advantages of outsourcing

A

saves a business the difficulty of hiring staff.
saves money by not having permanent staff
Staff can therefore be used as and when required- important where trade irregular.

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77
Q

what is flexible working hours

A

have a set number of hours with some flexibility as to when they can take them.
can be operated as ‘core time’ where employees have to be present, and then there is flexibility allowing employee to work to fit lifestyle.

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78
Q

what is a disadvantage of flexible working hours

A

may be more expensive to operate and administer, as place of work may need to be open for more hours.

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79
Q

what is an advantage of flexible working hours

A

may save money by gaining or keeping good staff and won’t need to spend money on recruitment and training.

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80
Q

what is term time working

A

where the working hours mirror term-time days. The employee will work as normal during term time, but will not work during the school holidays

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81
Q

what is structured time off in lieu

A

part of flexible working practices.
Employees may be asked to work longer hours during busy periods with the number of additional hours being recorded to enable the employee to take time off in compensation (in lieu) during less busy periods.

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82
Q

what is job sharing

A

both employees work times that suit them and split pay.
sharing jobs on a morning-afternoon basis, while others share on a day-to-day basis.

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83
Q

what are the advantages of job sharing

A

Employees are able to work the hours or days that suit them and so a business can gain the staff it needs.

If one of the job sharers is absent, the business still has some of the tasks covered by the other job sharer

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84
Q

what are the disadvantages of job sharing

A

are additional administrative costs of employing two people instead of one.

Careful planning may be required to ensure the job sharers take a similar approach to tasks= consistency.

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85
Q

what is remote working

A

employees get to work at home as its easier due to technology.

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86
Q

what are the disadvantages of remote working

A

It is harder to check that employees are actually working.

There is the initial set up cost of providing the necessary technology

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87
Q

what are the advantages of remote working

A

that the productivity of employees has increased, as there are fewer distractions and interruptions than at the place of work.

employees to work at home saves valuable commuter time and allows the employee to choose when to work.

A lower level of absenteeism has been recorded

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88
Q

what are zero hour contracts

A

Allows employees to hire staff with no guarantee of work. Staff only work when they are needed, which can be at short notice.

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89
Q

what are the advantages of zero hour contracts

A

reduces the administrative costs of employing labour on a full-time basis.
more cost efficient for employers as labour is only hired and paid when needed. Employees have units of labour readily available when required.
It is easier for employees to have breaks between jobs. Not having to accept offers of work allows employees greater flexibility.

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90
Q

what are the disadvantages of zero hour contracts

A

It is harder to check that employees are actually working.
There is the initial set up cost of providing the necessary technology

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91
Q

what are compressed hours

A

work the same number of hours in a week but less days in office.

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92
Q

what are the advantages of compressed hours

A

Working one day less potentially reduces commuting costs for the employees.
It may ease congestion on roads.
It allows employees greater flexibility.
There are reduced costs of childcare.
It may enable employers to reduce costs.
Staff morale may improve due to ‘extra’ day off.
Productivity increases

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93
Q

what are the disadvantages of compressed hours

A

Means a longer working day for employees.
Productivity may fall as the working day is longer.
A greater loss of production/ service provision if staff have a day off.

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94
Q

what are annualised hours

A

set number of hours for the year and set an amount of ‘on call’ hours for a week, flexible but restrictive when on call.

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95
Q

what are the advantages of annualised hours

A

Allows employees to use the workforce when needed.
There is no need for employers to pay expensive overtime rates, therefore reducing costs and thus helping the business to remain competitive.
Allow employees flexibility.

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96
Q

what are the disadvantages of annualised hours

A

Being ‘on call’ may be restrictive for employee.
There is some uncertainty when the employees may be called.
The opportunity for employees to do overtime is usually lost.
There is an additional administrative cost for employers to calculate and operate such a system.

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97
Q

what Is a job description

A

a written description of be basic tasks, duties, and responsibilities required of an employee.

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98
Q

what is a person specification

A

once there is a job description, the business can start to look at the ideal characteristics of the person to undertake the job.

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99
Q

what may be included in a person specification

A

Qualifications.
Previous experience.
Ability to work with a team.
Willingness to travel.
Able to work under supervision or independently.
Ability to use initiatives.
Flexibility.

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100
Q

what are the benefits of internal recruitment

A

take less time because the prospective candidate is already known to the business.
no need to spend money on costly advertisements.
will be less need for induction training.
ways in which the business works will already be known to the candidate.
less risk of being impressed by someone at interview who then turns out to be a poor appointment.
opportunity of promotion within a company may encourage good workers to stay rather than look for promotion elsewhere.

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101
Q

what are the benefits of appointing an external candidate

A

likely bring new ideas and enthusiasm to the job
The field of applicants will be bigger.
It might cause less resentment than choosing an internal candidate.

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102
Q

what is needed for job advertisement

A

need enough information to attract people
needs to be in the right place to attract the right people. Certain vital information must be included, such as the title of the job and any required qualifications.

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103
Q

what are the main types of selection methods

A

applications
tests
interviews
curriculum vitae
letter of application

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104
Q

what is the purpose of applications

A

narrow down applicants before interview stage or next step.
may ask basic information on experience and qualifications
there may be more complex form- asks about past experience

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105
Q

what information does a CV have

A

overview in brief of an individual’s experience, qualifications, Job history and other interests.

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106
Q

what factors are important to the business in the interview process

A

Having the right number of people on the interview panel.
Deciding beforehand what information is to be gathered.
Making sure that the interviewee is put at ease and is not interrogated.
Allowing adequate time for the interview to take place.
Giving the interviewee the opportunity to ask questions.

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107
Q

what other tasks can be conducted in recruitment process

A

Team tasks and activities.
Presentations on a requested topic to the selection team.
Personality tests.
References from previous employers and academic bodies.
A work task or work trial, e.g. teaching a class lessons from a prospective teacher.

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108
Q

what are the main methods of training

A

induction
on the job
off the job
learning and watching
apprenticeships
e- learning courses
academic
vocational
government

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109
Q

what is the definition of training

A

the process of increasing the knowledge and skills of the workforce to enable them to perform their jobs effectively.

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110
Q

what does effective training consist of

A
  • Higher quality.
  • Better productivity.
  • Improved motivation- through greater empowerment.
  • More flexibility through better skills.
  • Less supervision required (cost saving in supervision)
  • Better recruitment and employee retention.
  • Easier to implement change in the business.
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111
Q

what are the common reasons of underinvestment in training

A
  • A desire to minimise short term costs.
  • They cannot make a justifiable investment case.
  • Training takes time to have the desired effect.
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112
Q

what is induction training

A

Induction training is offered to new employees when they join an organisation and usually includes: a tour of the premises. health and safety information.

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113
Q

what factors should be included in induction training

A

disciplinary procedures
salary/ wage information
health and safety requirement
finding way around
expectation for the job
basic rules and regulations
meeting line managers
meeting colleagues

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114
Q

what could some problems be with induction training

A

discourage new workers rather than making them enthusiastic about the job. New workers are often more concerned about finding their way around the building, following correct procedure and avoiding making silly mistakes.

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115
Q

what is on the job training

A

training at the workplace that lets the employee learn by doing or by watching others for a while and then imitating them.

116
Q

what are the advantages of on the job training

A

easier to do a series of shorter training sessions where the worker is released for part of the day.

likely to be much cheaper, especially if it is to be provided by the business’s staff

tailored to the specific requirements of the business.

117
Q

what are the disadvantages of on the job training

A

It may be regarded as less valuable, especially if it is delivered by people who work within the business.

It can be regarded as tedious, unimportant and a waste of time

118
Q

what is off the job training

A

training takes place away from workplace

119
Q

what are the advantages of off the job training

A

For many workers this may be regarded as a perk, involving time away from work in pleasant surroundings.

Being away from the workplace may encourage employees to think more seriously about training issues.

It is an opportunity to spend time with colleagues in a different environment, which may change perceptions and break down barriers between managers and other workers.

120
Q

what are the disadvantages of off the job training

A

More expensive than on the job training.

May be regarded as a waste of time and money by employees.

121
Q

what is learning by watching and doing

A

This type of training depends on the business having spare capacity so that an experienced member of staff can deliver the training.

122
Q

what are apprenticeships

A

This involves training, both on the job and in college on a day release system. it is a method that is used in skilled trades.

123
Q

what is distance and e- learning

A

Individuals take responsibility for their own work under the supervision of a mentor or tutor who will give feedback and assistance as required, in addition to making assignments.

124
Q

what are courses

A

can be used in different ways.
new system training
if business feels certain employees underperforming

125
Q

what is academic training

A

attend academic courses to gain necessary qualifications to practice

126
Q

what is vocational training

A

for practical jobs. often part of apprenticeship scheme.

127
Q

what is training needs analysis

A

business ensures that its workers are given the skills that they need to do their job effectively
the business will collect information from workers, customers, managers and suppliers, as well as observing the way in which jobs are performed in different areas.

128
Q

what should training needs analysis do?

A

should help to resolve the problems by highlighting such problems in particular areas of the business.
This feedback will be analysed, to make sure that training is appropriate and not a waste of money or time. The end result should be a better trained workforce,

129
Q

what factors need to be considered as part of TNA

A

what the firm wants to achieve in future
from initial research, decision on who trained and how
involve people who are to be trained so they can have input in type.
decisions on how training to be delivered
external training chosen carefully, to match business style and budget.
cost of training solution considered
consider of number needing to be trained

130
Q

what is an appraisal

A

An assessment of an employee’s performance.
Usually a formal meeting between an employee and his or her line manager once a year, during which an employee is encouraged to reflect upon achievement

131
Q

what is essential for an appraisal to be effective

A

introduced and operated with as much co- operation from employees as possible, without may be regarded as a waste of time and irrelevant.

132
Q

what do you need to consider when doing an appraisal

A

what to achieve
what employee wants to achieve from their job
workload
how work is performed

133
Q

what are the benefits of an appraisal

A

identify an employee’s strengths and weaknesses.
linked to a training programme in order to make the employee more effective. Potential for promotion can be considered.
Such investment in career development is likely to be motivating as it is helping to meet self- esteem and achievements needs.

134
Q

what makes appraisals ineffective

A

lack of commitment by senior managers. they cannot treat it as a cost to be minimised.
inconsistent approach by line managers. if some are negative, employees feel treated differently.
inadequate time allowed for process.
failure to respond to employee concerns and aspirations= lack of confidence in process.
unrealistic target being set
use of ambiguous language= employees unsure if they are being praised or not.

135
Q

what makes appraisals effective

A

senior managers ensure all managers are committed to process
consultation with employees
ensuring employees understand the system
ensuring line managers are adequately trained to perform.
allowing on employees to comment on outcome of appraisal.

136
Q

what is a self assesment

A

set on focused questions to ask the employee before their meeting with the manager to gain an understanding of how they feel.

137
Q

what are the issues of self assessments

A

how objective the person is likely to be when doing this. Are they supposed to judge themselves against others in the department or against their own previous performance?

is the likelihood of objectivity if a pay increase or a bonus depends on the self-assessment. lie.

138
Q

what is a 360 degree appraisal

A

where you receive feedback from several people you work with to gain several perspectives on the employee.

139
Q

what are benefits of 360 degree appraisals

A

useful for employee development since the feedback gives an insight into how others perceive them, it can be useful to judge management styles in terms of issues such as consultation and communication.

140
Q

what are problems with 360 degree appraisal

A

concern that employees use this process to get their own back if the appraisal comments are anonymous or, if they are not, they make the comments positive because they think they’ll get a benefit themselves.
They are time consuming and complicated and are unlikely to be appropriate for all employees
can be raised

141
Q

what is a peer assesment

A

asks employees peers specific questions about their team role and performance

142
Q

benefits of peer assessment

A

should work well due to the nature of the working relationship; peers have a clear idea of exactly what needs to be done and how well some is performing in that respect and how well they are contributing to the team.

143
Q

problems with peer assesemtn

A

can be biased- peers may dislike so purposefully are negative.
could be positive if want to be considered themself for promotion

144
Q

what is labour turnover

A

a measure of the number of employees who have left the business (usually over the past year), relative to the number employed in that period.

A high percentage is an indicator of poor morale and motivation.

145
Q

how do you calculate labour turnover

A

number of employees leaving during the year/ average number employed during the year X 100

146
Q

what are the problem with labour turnover calculation

A

does not explain why so many employees are leaving.
It could be due to retirement or personal reasons rather than dissatisfaction.

147
Q

why can a certain level of labour turnover be desirable

A

a workforce that has a zero rate of labour turnover is likely to become resistant to change.

148
Q

what should you do with. labour turnover result

A

compare it to previous results
compare to similar businesses
consider bigger picture as can be out of their control

149
Q

what is long term absence

A

This is where an employee is off work for a lengthy period, usually due to illness. A high number of absence is due to illness or injury could be symptomatic of an unsafe and unhealthy working environment.

150
Q

what is short term absence

A

an employee is absent from work for a day (or a few days) because of a minor ailment such as a headache.

151
Q

what is the calculation of absenteeism useful for

A

overall picture of lost time in the business. It should also be undertaken for all areas of the business because it can show up problems in departments.

152
Q

how do you calculate absenteeism

A

total days absent in the month/ total available working days in the month X 100

153
Q

what is lateness

A

employees are late to work, sometimes for valid reasons. However persistent lateness is a clear indication of low motivation

154
Q

why would you calculate lateness

A

calculation could be done by a department or selection to see if the lateness is a general or a localised problem.

155
Q

how do you calculate lateness

A

total number of Late arrivals X 100/ total number of scheduled absences

156
Q

what is productivity

A

a measure of output per employee in a particular period of time. Productivity is a key indicator of employee performance.

157
Q

how do you calculate productivity

A

output (per week/ month/ year) / average number of employees

158
Q

benefits to employees of improving performances

A
  • job security.
  • Higher pay.
  • A bonus.
  • An improvement in conditions of service e.g an increased holiday entitlement.
  • An improvement in conditions of work e.g a subsided canteen.
  • Financial assistance for career development.
159
Q

constraints which impinge upon any leader or manager. what are they?

A

leaders skills or strengths
ability to make decisions
nature of market business operates
state of the economy
organisation structure
objectives of business
competition in market
budget of business

160
Q

what is Lewin’s style of leadership

A

In 1939 Lewin and his co- workers identified three styles of leadership decision making: the autocratic, the democratic, and the laissez- faire.

161
Q

what is an autocratic leader

A

a leader who makes decisions for the group, doesn’t involve employees in decisions, assumes employees are motivated by money.
believed in top down communication, strict, close supervision.

162
Q

what is a democratic leader

A

encoruages employee input into decisions, lets employees use their initiative in tasks
encourage two way communication, motivation of employees not simply financial

163
Q

what is a laissez faire leader

A

hands off leader, let them get on with it approach, remote.

164
Q

what is a paternalistic leader

A

wants workforce to be involved in decisions, consults and persuades them to accept view regardless of own views.

165
Q

what are the traits theories for leadership

A

McGregors theory X and Y

166
Q

how do theory X managers view employees

A

inherently lazy, dislike work
lack will and ability to work unsupervised
lack initiative
motivated by money

167
Q

how is a manger adopting theory X view likely to work

A

manage in an autocratic manner, offering little scope for employee input. Communication will be limited. The way in which work is carried out will take little account of job satisfaction, as it is assumed the employees driving force is money.

168
Q

how do theory X managers view employees

A

enjoy their work
willing to accept responsibility and changes
creative and willing to contribute
able to self discipline
not just motivated by money

169
Q

how Is a manager adapting theory Y likely to work

A

view employee as assets, rather than a cost to be minimised. style will be democratic with employees to set own goals.
employees encouraged to develop skills.
McGregor viewed this as more likely effective.

170
Q

problem with theory Y

A

However, this view might become a self- fulfilling prophecy; autocratic treatment and poor motivation may bring the very response from employees

171
Q

what is the behavioural leadership theory

A

Blake and Moultons grid

172
Q

what are task needs

A

the opposite of people needs. A manager who has an overriding desire to ‘get the job done’ will be orientated towards the task rather than employees’ needs.

173
Q

what are people needs

A

the needs of employees. A manager who concentrates on people needs will try to make employees concentrated and keep them in high spirits. This may be at the expense of getting work done.

174
Q

what is Blake and Moultons grid

A

low task need low people need- impoverished
low task need high people need- country club
high task need low people need- authoritarian
high task need high people need- team leader
middle of the road

175
Q

what is country club leadership

A

manager is concerned about the wellbeing and feelings of the team of people, rather than completing the required tasks.
While morale may be high, some employees may take advantage, and if deadlines are missed, they may be repercussions on other areas of the business which depend on the completion of a task by a certain date.

176
Q

what is authoritarian leadership

A

concerned with the task rather than the employees.

Leadership will be authoritarian and motivation very much a secondary consideration. A lack of attention to employees’ needs can lead to resentment,

177
Q

what is impoverished leadership

A

manager will have a lack of concern for either task or people needs
unable to devise procedures to ensure that work is completed to the required standard or on time, or to motivate employees

leadership is very ineffective at everything, morale and productivity are both low

178
Q

what is team leadership

A

This manager will have a strong and equal regard for both employee and task.
if employees are treated as genuine stakeholders, then their needs and the business’s task needs will be in harmony.

High level of motivation will be accompanied by high productivity.

179
Q

what is middle of the road leadership

A

Compromises between the two sets of needs.
neither set of needs is truly met, and less that optimal outcomes for each are achieved. Such leaders may be indecisive and timid.

180
Q

what is Carlyle and Galton trait theory

A

concentrates on the traits exhibited by successful leaders or, the characteristics required of a leader.

suggested that the characteristics of a good leader were attributes that such leaders had; they were not learnt.

181
Q

what did Carlyle and Galton believe the key characteristics of an effective leader were

A

motivational
integrity- ethical approach
self confidence
creative- new ideas
intelligent- able to reason

182
Q

who created the contingency leadership theory

A

Tannenbaum & Schmidt

183
Q

what is the contingency leadership theory

A

highlighted the degree of trade- off between the control exerted by the leader and how this affected the interaction between the leader and the employees.
uses 4 styles, tell, sell, consult, participate.

184
Q

what is the tell style of the contingency theory

A

the leader/ manager just informs the employees of decision and seen as an autocratic approach, as focus is on the leader.
employee expected to comply
employee can’t be involved in decision making process.

185
Q

what is the sell style of the contingency theory

A

leader or manager makes a decision but attempts to ‘sell’ the decision to the employees.

some consideration of the employees rather than just telling them what to do.
A degree of persuasion Is taken place. There is also opportunity for feedback.

186
Q

what is the consult style of the contingency theory

A

step further than ‘sell’, as the leader will present his or her ideas to the employees and invite discussion. slightly more collaborative.
listen to the ideas of the employee and ‘two way’ communication will be the norm.

187
Q

what is the participate style of the contingency theory

A

that the focus is now on the employees. The leader or manager will ask the employees to make a decision, although usually within defined limits.

188
Q

who created the functional leadership theory

A

Adair

189
Q

what is Adairs’ theory

A

highlights the three elements for all leadership situations, which are the:

achievement of task
team involved in task
individual members involved in task
has to try and balance the needs of all three elements; a failure to consider all three elements is more likely to lead to failure.

190
Q

what is acknowledged in Adairs theory

A

that all three elements can conflict with each other,
Ensuring the task is the key focus may be at the expense of the individual.

too much time spent on considering the welfare of the group or individual may be to the detriment of completing the required task.

191
Q

what is a senior manager

A

top of the organisation. usually CEO who work close with board of directors.
concerned with long term planning.

192
Q

what is a middle manager

A

more operational (i.e. day-to-day) control than senior executives, and are responsible to them for implementing their strategy.

set objectives consistent with top managers goals and for implementing strategies.

193
Q

what is a junior manager

A

either:
to management trainees (destined for higher positions) and those in supervisory positions who have a degree of authority.

will involve some of the functions of a manager outlined above

194
Q

what is a line manager

A

manage employees who have direct input in to or are responsible for the delivery of products or services.
employees immediate superior or boss.

195
Q

what is a staff manager

A

to provide advice and support to the line managers.
no line authority over those whom they support.

196
Q

what are the differences between a manager and a leader

A

A really effective manager will almost certainly be a successful leader. Managers ‘manage’ via their organisational skills, whereas a leader is more inspirational.

197
Q

what is a production manager

A

involves more than just making the products.
concerned with a variety of issues including production scheduling, purchasing, stock control, quality control and maintenance.

198
Q

what is a marketing manager

A

involves issues such as market research, the development of pricing policies, promotional campaigns and ensuring that the distribution of the product reaches the customers when they want it.

199
Q

what is a personnel manager

A

is concerned with organising people.
issues such as recruitment ,training, performance appraisal, offering advice on motivation, dismissal, and so on, to the line managers, ensuring that employee records are correct,

200
Q

what is a financial manager

A

concerned with the housekeeping of the business accounts.
All receipts and payments, however small, need to be recorded in order to ensure that the business is solvent and able to meet its overall financial objectives. It is also concerned with raising finance and the analysis of costs.

201
Q

what is motivation

A

a strong desire to act in a particular way and to achieve a certain result.

202
Q

what is morale

A

‘spirit’; if morale in an individual, group or team is high then there exists a spirit of confidence and purpose an vice versa.

203
Q

why is motivation important to a business

A

employees less prone to absenteeism & lower labour turnover rates- help lower costs.
these employees see themselves as true stakeholders & more productive
more committed and more willing to ‘go the extra mile’ for the business.
make change easier to implement.
present a better image of the business to external bodies

204
Q

what are monetary methods of motivation

A

linking employee performance to pay in some way such as piecework, commission profit sharing, share ownership, or a bonus.

205
Q

what are non- monetary methods of motivation

A

being given work that is interesting and challenging, working as part of a team, being given responsibility, and receiving praise from management for work successfully completed.

206
Q

who are the main motivation theories

A

McClelland
Herzberg
Maslow
Vroom
Locke
Drucker
Peter

207
Q

what is McClelland’s motivation theory

A

need for achievement
need for affiliation
need for power

208
Q

what is the need for achievement (N- Ach)

A

Prefers challenging (but realistic) goals in order to feel as sense of achievement.
projects where results are based on their efforts.
receive regular feedback in order to progress to achieve goals.
likes to work with other driven by N- Ach.

209
Q

what is the need for affiliation (N- Aff)

A

enjoy working as part of a team as they like to be accepted and liked by others.
people orientated rather than task.
Prefers a collaborative/ co- operative approach to work.
a team player, enjoys social interaction, and is unlikely to challenge the business’s cultural norms

210
Q

what is the need for power (N-pow)

A

Likes to influence, encourage or dominate others.
Places a high value on his or her position in the business’s hierarchy.
Enjoys recognition and status.
Likes to win.
seeks management positions. works best in charge.

211
Q

what are the limitations of McClellands theory

A

Cannot be assume that just because an employee exhibits a particular need that the need can always be used to benefit of organisation.

That person might be ‘right’ for the role in the sense that their needs technically match the role but their behaviour in achieving those needs may negatively affect the motivation of others.

212
Q

what is Herzberg motivational theory

A

Interested in factors that caused job satisfaction and job dissatisfaction. Found factors, interesting work, responsibility, and the opportunity of self-development as motivating for employees.
hygiene and motivating factors.

213
Q

what is hygiene factors

A

Hygiene factors do not motivate employees no matter how ‘good’ they are. This, does not mean that they are of no significance; claimed that the absence of them causes job dissatisfaction and a negative attitude to the job.

factors such as pay pensions, working conditions and the relationship with the line manager did not result in job satisfaction

214
Q

what are motivating factors

A

relate to the job itself and not the working environment.
They are factors such as responsibility, recognition, meaningful and rewarding work, and the opportunity for promotion. Jobs need to be designed with these in mind if motivation is to occur.

215
Q

what are the limitations of Herzbergs theory

A

his work was originally conducted amongst white collar employees, it may not be applicable to all employees, especially front line blue collar workers.

People have different personality traits: one might consider pay as a hygiene factor e.g executive. a shop assistant may regard pay as a motivation factor.

216
Q

what is Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A

originally worked with animals and observed that some needs were fulfilled before others.
Employees have a variety of needs at work that have to be satisfied and until the lower order needs are met, the higher ones cannot be. lower order needs are not satisfied then an employee will no longer be concerned about achieving higher order.

217
Q

what are Maslow’s hierachy of needs

A

physiological- (shelter, food, water)
safety- humans seek security
social- love and belonging need
esteem- recognition of efforts
self- actualisation- personal growth and full potential

218
Q

what are the limitations of Maslow’s theory

A

was not specifically designed for use in business world. cant identify every employee needs.

219
Q

who created the expectancy theory

A

Victor Vroom

220
Q

what is Vrooms motivational theory

A

mental processes an employee goes through when making a decision on a choice of action.
expectancy
valence

221
Q

what is the expectancy element of Vrooms motivational theory

A

can employees actually achieve target?
score from one to zero based on if they can complete the task. if definitely possible- 1

222
Q

what is the valence element of Vrooms motivational theory

A

the value that an employee puts on the reward that is on offer. Valence can be between 0 and 1.
leads to an outcome that is highly desired by the employee, then valence will be near to 1.
higher figure- higher employee values

223
Q

what is the expectancy theory equation

A

Force= (valence x expectancy)

calculations above indicate that an employee will only act in a certain way if there is a fairly high expectation that their actions and behaviour will actually lead to the desired outcome.

224
Q

what is the other component to the expectancy theory

A

instrumentality-. A person will only perform in a particular way if he or she believes that their performance will lead to a desired outcome.

225
Q

what is the expectancy calculation including instrumentality

A

Motivation (force)= I X (valence x Expectancy).

if instrumentality is negative the whole calculation will be negative, so employee will not be motivated to perform the task.

226
Q

what are the limitations of Vrooms expectancy theory

A

One person’s perception of effort and performance can be very different from another’s - placing values on expectancy and valence is subjective.
Employees view rewards differently. Individualising rewards for each employee could be very time consuming and large opportunity cost in terms of manager time.
The cost to organisation of monetary rewards may be very high.

227
Q

what is Peter Drucker motivation theory

A

The most important asset of any organisation is its employees who should be recognised as such and not treated as costs to be minimised.

228
Q

what does Drucker claim are the most important factors for managers if they want an effective and motivated workforce are to:

A

decentralise and delayer- allow managers and employees to respond quickly to customer demands.
take interest in employees and value their contribution.
offer ongoing training
sense of perspective when it comes to reward

229
Q

what is Edwin Locke theory

A

his goal-setting theory in 1968

230
Q

what is Locke goal setting theory

A

setting appropriate goals for employees
if the goal is appropriate they will enjoy the process of working towards it and will be motivated to achieve it.
without a goal feel unimportant and demotivated

231
Q

what does Locke claim the principles that need to be followed if a manager wants to have effective goals

A
  1. Clarity- vague goals are hard to measure
  2. Challenge- goals needs to be challenging. He found ‘do your best’ not effective- as too vague to motivate.
  3. Feedback- essential so that progress can be gauged and if necessary the goal can be altered.
  4. Commitment- employees have to understand and agree to ‘have ownership’ of the goals if they are motivate.
  5. Task complexity- employees must not feel ‘out of their depth’ in terms of what they are being asked to achieve.
232
Q

what are the limitations of Locke goal setting theory

A

mere setting of goals will not motivate alone. employee need to understand ownership. perceived as worth it.
if manager does not ensure goals aligned with business- no point
if employees feel have to focus on goal at all costs- fail to pay attention to other aspects
goal setting require regular feedback. time consuming for managers & negatively viewed by employees who feel checked upon constantly.

233
Q

what is Tom Peters motivational theory name

A

published book in search of excellence

234
Q

what is Tom Peters motivational theory ideas

A
  • Acknowledging employee achievement an effort and also giving praise.(employees gain a sense of recognition)
  • Involving employees in decisions (which gives employees a sense of belonging and self worth).
  • Encourage participation (giving employees a sense of involvement and responsibility).
  • Trying to offer continuous improvement (giving employees a sense of security).
235
Q

what factors affect the choice of motivation methods

A

culture of the business
nature of workforce
a managers people skills and leadership style
resources available

236
Q

what are trade unions

A

an organisation of employees that seek to protect and improve the interests of its members. It does this by negotiating with employers on pay and conditions of work.

237
Q

what is the trade union congress

A

an organisation that brings Britain’s unions together to draw up common policies and lobby the government to implement policies that will benefit employees.

238
Q

what is union recognition

A

employers who recognise a union agree to negotiate with it over members’ pay and conditions.

239
Q

what is a no strike deal

A

This is where a union gives up the right to strike. Some unions are in favour of signing such an agreement on that the grounds that it might encourage a business to recognise a union when it would otherwise be hostile to the idea of doing so.

240
Q

what is employee participation also known as

A

‘industrial democracy’

241
Q

what is employee participation

A

employees have the ability to participate in the decision-making process at work.

242
Q

Participation indicates a willingness to engage in discussions with employees and treat them as stakeholders. This can mean:

A

increased motivation- feel view counts & greater acceptance of decisions as feel they have been involved
better communication- even if business clear set of objectives- won’t guarantee success.
improved quality of decision making- direct experience know where real problems lie- useful to managers
complying with law- consultation now a legal requirement for many issues. e.g redundancy. non compliance would lead to bas publicity

243
Q

strategic benefits of participation could include:

A
  • reduced labour turnover and therefore reduced recruitment costs.
  • fewer days lost through work-related injuries and illnesses, thus minimising lost output, fines and compensation pay-outs.
  • The ability to manage change more effectively, thus giving the business a competitive advantage in a changing environment.
244
Q

what are quality circles

A

regular short meetings of a group of employees during working hours. The objective is to discuss and resolve work- related problems.

245
Q

what are work councils

A
  • a formal meeting of managers and employee representatives to discuss pay and working conditions and to negotiate on issues such as changes in working practices. There is a legal requirement for large multinational companies operating in the EU to set up a European works council.
246
Q

what are the costs to a business of recognising a union

A

likely to increase costs and reduce the business’s profits, at least in the short term. This could mean a reduction in the benefits that other stakeholders in the firm gain such as a fall in dividends for shareholders, a rise in price for customers, or worse terms being imposed on a supplier.

247
Q

what are certain principles that will be useful when unions and managers are negotiating

A
  • Meetings should be at a convenient time to both parties.
  • The personnel attending the meeting should be agreed in advance.
  • Both parties should be allowed to submit agenda discussion.
  • The chairman of the meeting must ensure that all agenda items are raised and that no one party dominates the meeting.
  • A written statement at the end of the meeting on what (if anything) has been agreed is good practice.
248
Q

what could occur if their is failure to resolve a dispute

A

strike action
work to rule
refusal to work overtime

249
Q

what is the main way to avoid conflict between management and employees is for unions and managers to follow what

A

ACAS guideline

250
Q

was does ACAS Stand for

A

Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service.

251
Q

what do ACAS do

A

advice on industrial relations and offers service of conciliation.
decide between two conflicting claims who is right.
end a dispute before escalates= tribunal

252
Q

what is an industrial tribunal

A

special court for hearing matters of employment law

253
Q

what do employment tribunals do

A

hear disputes such as unfair dismissal, redundancy, and discrimination

usually, a claimant must attempt Eart Conciliation before they can make a claim

no longer need to pay a fee to make an employment tribunal claim

254
Q

what are the advantages of employment tribunals

A

low cost
speed
informal
expertise

255
Q

what are the disadvantages to employment tribunals

A

lack of public funding
formality and delay (in regards to other tribunals)

256
Q

what are the employment laws three sections

A

Laws relating to the recruitment process.

Laws relating to employees in the workplace.

Laws relating to the termination of employment.

257
Q

what are the legislations against discrimination

A

Equal Pay Act (1970)

the Sex Discrimination Act (1975)

the Race Discrimination Act (1976)

the Disability Discrimination Act (1995).

258
Q

what is it illegal to discriminate against anyone because of

A

Age
Being married or in a civil partnership.
Being pregnant of having a child.
Disability.
Race, including colour, ethnic or national origin.
Religion.
Sex
Sexual orientation.

259
Q

what is a contract of employment

A

an agreement between a business and an employee, under which each of them has certain obligations.

260
Q

ACAS states what about a contract of employment

A

As soon as someone accepts a job, a contract comes into existence.
Starting work proves that the employee has accepted the terms and conditions offered.
A contract does not need to be in writing; it could be oral or implied, although a written contract is better.

261
Q

what is a written statement of employment

A

document setting out the main aspects of a person’s employment.

The sort of information in a statement would be: the hours of work (including overtime or shift work), pay, sickness entitlement, pension scheme details and the period of notice required

262
Q

what did the health and safety at work act 1974 introduce

A

new issues and hazards such as repetitive strain injury or possible damage to the eye from workplace health and safety risks and to take the steps to manage and minimise them.

263
Q

what are the provisions of the health and safety act

A
  • The place of work.
  • The system of work.
  • The working environment.
  • Any machinery used.
  • The use and storage of substances.
  • Employees.
264
Q

what must a business do in relation to the health and safety act

A

ensure safe building
co- ordinate whole system of work so that it is safe.
temperature is within certain limits
fit guards onto machinery- prevent accidents
provide training in hazards related to work environment
have a written safety policy, states who responsible for safety issues

265
Q

The HSWA also places a duty on employees to comply with the legal provisions regarding health and safety. All employees must:

A

Take reasonable care of their own health and safety and of others who could be affected by their actions.
comply with instructions relating to safety matters- employee who was trained to use equipment cant sue if injury.
don’t misuse. e.g letting of a fire extinguisher for malicious purposes

266
Q

what is the Health and Safety commission (HSC)

A

organisation responsible for health and safety in the UK is the Health and Safety Commission
The HSC’s role is to protect people’s health and safety by ensuring that risk in the workplace is properly controlled

267
Q

what is the health and safety executive (HSE)

A

responsible to the HSC for the regulation of risks to health and safety in organisations such as nuclear installations, factories, farms, hospitals

268
Q

what is the 2010 equality Act

A

reasserted that women and men are entitled to be paid equal amounts for work of equal value.

Managers should ensure that all employees are aware of this policy and its implications; that is, it is unlawful for someone to be discriminated, bullied or harassed on the grounds of sex, race, sexual orientation- disciplinary action occur for behaviour

269
Q

what is an equality policy

A

a policy to ensure fair and consistent treatment of all employees so that they are not discriminated against, bullied or harassed on the grounds of sex, race, sexual orientation, and so on. Managers should ensure that all employees are aware of this policy and its implications.

270
Q

what is the minimum wage Act 1999

A

the minimum level of pay to which employees aged 18 years and above in the UK are entitled. It doesn’t matter if an employee is in part time or full time employment.

271
Q

what is the Maternity/ paternity provision: the work and Families Act 2006

A

Maternity leave was already a legal right, and this Act enshrined the right to paternity leave in law.

introduced rights to paid leave for parents adopting children, and the right for parents of young children to apply to work flexibly

272
Q

what was introduced to maternity/ paternity provision act in 2015

A

employees became legally entitled to new maternity and paternity rights - ‘shared parental leave. The objective is to encourage firms recruiting women of child-bearing age.

parents will be able to share 12 months of leave after the birth of a child.

273
Q

what is the data protection Act

A

Any business will need to keep all sorts of employment-related records on its employees, but it is not allowed to disclose this information to other individuals within the business or another organisation.

act prevent harm of misusing data
All users of personal data must register with the Data Protection Registrar. A business making this registration must detail the nature of the data and the purposes for which it is held

274
Q

what is whistle blowing

A

an employee has evidence, or reasonably believes, that malpractice in an organisation is occurring (and it is in the public interest that it should be disclosed) he or she can bring it to the attention of someone in authority at the business without fear of retribution.

275
Q

what is a grievance

A

exists when an employee has a concern, complaint or problem. It may, for example, relate to their terms and conditions, discrimination, bullying, or the relationship with a colleague or a manager.
dealt with at an early stage, informally, with the employee’s immediate line manager - perhaps by ‘a quiet word’ with those involved.
However, by law all employers must have a written grievance procedure to be followed formally if the grievance cannot be resolved informally.

276
Q

what is the grievance procedure

A
  • Whom to contact in the first instance.
  • A statement that if the matter cannot be resolved informally, there will be a meeting called a formal grievance hearing; the statement should also indicate that an employee can be accompanied in a meeting by a union representative or a colleague if they wish.
  • How the employee can appeal against a decision.
  • The time limits for each stage of the procedure
277
Q

what is a redundancy

A

arises from a situation where the job that used to be performed no longer exists and so the employee is surplus to requirements.

278
Q

employees who are made redundant are entitled to law to what

A

redundancy payment

279
Q

what is a voluntary redundancy

A

that is, employees can put themselves forward to leave. Sometimes a monetary incentive in excess of the statutory amount to be paid is offered.

qualify, an employee must have two years of continuous service with the business.

280
Q

what is an unfair dismissal

A

where an employee is dismissed without a valid reason or the employer fails to follow the proper procedures.

281
Q

what does a dismissal have to be

A

be justified and must be fair if it is to be legal.

282
Q

dismissal is only fair in which two circumstances

A
  • gross misconduct, e.g. an employee physically assaulting a customer.
  • gross negligence a reckless or wilful disregard for the safety of others), e.g. a manager at a theme park allows a ride to remain open when he knows that a safety fault exists.
283
Q

what types of dismissals can be justified

A

repeated poor conduct such as lateness or failing to comply with reasonable requests from a manager.

incapacity, e.g. being too ill to work at all or taking time off work when genuinely ill on a regular basis

capability: repeated inability to do the work required

redundancy: if the employee’s job no longer exists

284
Q

what guidelines are stated that must follow certain stages to be followed if dismissal is to be fair and legal

A

The manager should give at least one verbal warning to the employee.
be followed by at least one written warning.
final written warning. by law employee has to recieve all allegations in writing & attend formal meeting
There also has to be an appeals process. It must be made clear to the employee how to appeal and to whom.

285
Q

what is a wrongful dismissal

A

occurs where there has been a breach of the employment contract.
will therefore vary according to the terms of the individual contract.

286
Q

what is a constructive dismissal

A

happens when the behaviour of a manager or managers forces an employee to leave the job.

result for example from bullying or changing the conditions of employment without consent; for example, forcing the employee to work at weekends when their contract states weekday