Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATPL - Module 1 > Human Performance > Flashcards

Human Performance Flashcards

1
Q

Biggest cause of aircraft accidents and most common type of accident.

A

Human factors major cause (73%)
CFIT (Controlled Flight into Terrain) most common event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Human error rates, before and after training

A

1 in 100 before training (simple tasks)
1 in 1000 after training (complex tasks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most significant flight safety equipment

A

GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System)
and EGPWS (Enhanced…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Components of a Safety Management System (SMS)

A

1) Safety policy & objectives
2) Safety risk management
3) Safety assurance
4) Safety promotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SHELL model

A

S - software (manuals, procedures)
H - hardware (equipment)
E - environment
L - Liveware (other people)
L - Liveware (pilot)
Pilot liveware is central to the other 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 components of liveware considerations

A
  • Psychological
  • Physiological
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Nervous system components

A

Central - Brain & spinal cord
Peripheral - Networks of nerves (sensory and motor) and ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Division of peripheral nervous system

A

Autonomic: Organs and non-voluntary functions such as heart beat, sweating, digestion (uses hormones).
Sensory-somatic: Everything under voluntary control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Purpose of brain components
- Medulla Oblongata
- Hypothalamus
- Pituitary Gland
- Cerebellum

A

Medulla Oblongata: Autonomic functions (breathing, heart rate)
Hypothalamus: Water balance & temperature
Pituitary gland: hormonal controls (growth, blood pressure, blood sugar etc.)
Cerebellum: Balance and posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Endocrine system
- description
- 4 components

A

Glands which release hormones to control systems of the body (master gland is the pituitary at base of the brain).
Thyroid/parathyroid glands - Metabolism/growth
Adrenal glands - adrenaline
Pancreas - blood sugar
Testes/ovaries - sexual hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Body temperature
Range acceptable

A

37C
35C - 39C maximum range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Boyle’s law

A

Pressure is inversely related to volume
[or pressure x volume = constant]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Charles’ law

A

Pressure is proportional to temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dalton’s law

A

The pressure of a mixture of gasses is equal to the sum of partial pressures of the constituent gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fick’s law

A

Gas will diffuse from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

General gas law

A

Pressure x volume / temperature
is constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Henry’s law

A

The amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas over the liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cardiovascular system components

A

Heart
Blood vessels
Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Plasma

A

Straw coloured liquid component of blood which carries the blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Blood cell types (3)

A

Red - Contain haemoglobin and carry oxygen (no nuclei to maximise haemoglobin)
White - Produce antibodies to fight bacteria and anti toxins. Large nuclei to fight infection.
Platelets - Assist in clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Types of blood vessel

A

Arteries: Thick, carry blood from heart
Veins: Carry blood back to heart
Capillaries: Smaller vessels joining arteries to veins, travelling in networks through organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Two parts of blood circulation

A

Systemic circulation: From left side of heart, through organs, back to right side of heart.
Pulmonary circulation: From right side of heart, through lungs, to left side of heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Auricles/atria vs ventricles

A

Atria take inflow first and have weak force to move blood around heard.
Ventricles are stronger and provide main pumping force around lungs/body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Aorta

A

Large artery, where oxygenated blood gets pumped from left ventricle, on into larger and gradually smaller arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

2 significant named blood vessels

A

Dorsal aorta: Oxygenated blood from heart to the body, runs along the spin (thus dorsal)
Vena cava: Vein returning from body to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Coronary arteries/veins

A

Provide blood supply to the heart itself. Blockages in these is the principal cause of heart disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cardiac output (& typical amount at rest)

A

Amount of blood pumped by left ventricle per minute (stroke volume * heart rate).
Typical 5 to 5.5 litres per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hypertension
- definition
- consequence
- cause
- can you fly?

A

High blood pressure (above 140/90, either number being high)
Can lead to heart attack. Caused by lifestyle factors.
Can fly with appropriate medicaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hypotension

A

Low blood pressure
Likely to disqualify from flying due to higher chance of fainting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does CO2 get carried in blood?

A

Some dissolved in blood, but mostly in combination with water as carbonic acid
(H2CO3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Importance of carbonic acid in blood

A

Acidity of blood aids absorption of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Angina

A

Pain in the chest and arms resulting from lack of oxygen reaching heart muscles, due to exercise or stress.
Gradual reduction of blood flow through coronary arteries, unlike heart attack which is a sudden blockage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Coronary Heart Disease

A

Fatty layer building up in coronary arteries.
Bits breaking off can form blood clots, blocking the coronary artery.
Caused in part by lifestyle factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Myocardial Infarction

A

Heart attack
Total blockage of a coronary artery leading to death of the heart muscle or a part of it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cardiac arrest

A

Abnormal heart rhythm following heart attack, failure of electrical impulses to control heart beat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ventricular fibulation

A

A type of cardiac arrest that can be corrected with a defibrillator.
Heart massage can keep patient alive for up to 4 minutes before defibrillator arrives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Factors of predisposal to heart attack in importance order

A

i) Family history
ii) Age
iii) Previous history
iv) Hypertension
Then smoking, raised cholesterol, lack of exercise, diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Respiratory system functions

A

i) Gas exchange
ii) Immune defence (infection entering lungs)
iii) Talking
iv) Release of chemicals, proteins & enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Carbon Monoxide poisoning symptoms
[+ common description]

A

i) Headache, tight forehead, dizziness, nausea
ii) Impaired vision
iii) Lethargy/weakness
iv) Impaired judgement & memory
v) Personality change

Then weak pulse/breathing/muscles, flushed cheeks & cherry red lips.

[Can be described as “flu like”]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Increase susceptibility to Carbon Monoxide (5)

A

Altitude
Smoking
Age
Obesity
General health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Reduction in oxygen carrying ability from 1 pack of cigarettes per day

A

5-8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Blood pressure designations (typical figures)
(+ units)

A

Systolic pressure / Diastolic pressure
Diastolic is permanent arterial pressure, systolic is pressure when heart contracts.
120/80 typical
Measured in mm of mercury (mm Hg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Causes of hypertension

A

Stress
Smoking
Dietary factors (e.g. salt)
Age
Obesity
Lack of exercise
Narrowing/hardening of arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

3 types of respiration

A

External (breathing)
Internal (exchange of gases in lungs or organs)
Cellular (oxygen being used by cells to create energy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pressoreceptors

A

In wall of carotid sinus of neck, detect blood pressure and increase/decrease heart rate to maintain homeostasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does the body use to determine respiration rate?

A

CO2 levels (carbonic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Components of respiration system

A

Trachea - reinforced with cartilage
Bronchi - 2 of them split to each lung
Alveoli - Tiny sacks where gas exchange occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Tidal volume
Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Expiratory Reserve Volume
Residual Volume

A

Tidal - Normal breath volume (500ml)
Inspiratory reserve - Extra inhalation possible on top of normal breath (3000ml)
Expiratory reserve - Extra exhalation after normal breath (1100ml)
Residual volume - Air in lungs that can’t be forced out (1200ml)
Females 20-25% less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Normal breathing rate

A

10-15 per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Time of useful consciousness at altitude
20k, 30k, 35k, 40k

A

At rest
20k feet: 30 mins [5 mins mod. activity]
30k feet: 90 secs
35k feet: 60 secs
40k feet: 20 secs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Altitude at which body reacts to decreasing pressure

A

7,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Altitude at which atmospheric pressure is 0.75, 0.5 and 0.25 of that at MSL

A

75% of MSL @ 8000 ft
50% of MSL @ 18000 ft
25% of MSL @ 36000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Atmosphere composition

A

Nitrogen: 78%
Oxygen: 21%
Other: 1% (only 0.03% CO2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Governing factor for oxygen requirement at altitude

A

Partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli (not in the atmosphere). Alveoli air has much more water vapour and CO2 and less oxygen than external air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Alveolar oxygen percentage and partial pressure @ MSL
Minimum partial pressure

A

MSL: 103 mm Hg (14%)
Minimum level: 55mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Altitude at which:
- Oxygen first required
- 100% oxygen required
- Pressurised oxygen required

A

At 10,000ft partial pressure of oxygen reaches 55mm Hg, so need oxygen to reach 103mm Hg (MSL equiv.)
At 33,700ft 100% oxygen needed for 103mm Hg.
At 40,000ft 100% oxygen only achieves 55mm Hg so need pressurised oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Oxygen saturation levels (in blood/haemoglobin)
- MSL, 10,000ft, 20,000ft

A

MSL: 97%
10,000ft: 87%
20,000ft: 65%
[So around 87% is equivalent to 55 mm Hg, our minimum level]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

3 types of hypoxia

A

Hypoxic hypoxia (insufficient oxygen coming into body)
Anaemic hypoxia (inability of blood to carry oxygen)
Histotoxic (or histoxic) hypoxia (cellular inability to absorb oxygen, typically caused by drug use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Initial symptoms of hypoxia

A

i) Euphoria, aggression, lack of inhibitions
ii) Impaired judgement & memory
iii) Headache
iv) Tingling in hands and feet
v) Hyperventilation
vi) Muscular impairment
vii) Visual sensory loss
viii) Tunnel vision
ix) Cyanosis
x) Formication (ants crawling over skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Hypoxia Zones

A

[5000ft: night vision affected]
7000ft: Reaction Threshold: Performance of complex tasks impaired, increasing breathing & HR
10-12000ft: Disturbance Threshold: Cardiovascular defence mechanisms, impaired judgement, memory, alertness. Drowsiness
22000ft: Critical Threshold: Quick deterioration of mental performance, rapid onset of dizziness/confusion and total loss of consciousness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hyperventilation
- Cause
- Misdiagnosis
- Treatment

A

Caused by FALL in CO2 due to exhaling more of it than we produce (more exhalation than inhalation), increased ALKALINITY. Fall in CO2 triggers increase in breathing rate.
Can be confused with hypoxia which is more serious to treat, more likely explanation at unpressurised high altitude.
Treat by blowing into paper bag, slowing breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Hyperventilation and:
- asthma
- air sickness
- physiological (e.g. exercise)

A

Asthma does NOT cause hyperventilation
Air sickness CAN cause hyperventilation!
Exercise CAN cause hyperventilation (look out for PHYSICAL NEED - might be wrong)!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Hyperventilation symptoms

A

Dizziness (EARLY SYMPTOM)
Tingling (extremities & lips)
Visual disturbances
Hot & cold sensations
Anxiety
Loss of coordination
Increased HR
Muscle spasm
Loss of consciousness
NOT cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Venturi effect during rapid decompression

A

Can create 5,000ft pressure difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Scuba-diving delays

A

12 hours down to 10m
24 hours beyond 10m
[BGS: not within 24 hours?]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Symptoms of decompression sickness
Primary and secondary

A

Pain in joints (bends)
Skin (creeps)
Shortness of breath (chokes)
Loss of mental function (staggers)

Secondary: Post descent collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Decompression risk factors (other than scuba diving)

A

Age
Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Barotrauma

A

Gases trapped in your body (e.g. stomach, inner ear, tooth cavity) causing issues during descent or ascent (depending on the area).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Otic barotrauma

A

Pain caused by expansion of pressure (barotrauma) in eustachian tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Sinus barotrauma

A

Not the same as otic, relates to air in the sinus cavities.
Can cause pain in ascent or descent, although more common in descent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Aerodontalgia

A

Barotrauma of the teeth
Pain in the ASCENT, not descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

6 main eye components

A

Cornea - transparent cap, solid shape
Iris - Coloured area in front of lens
Pupil - Gap in middle of iris allowing light through, changes size to control light.
Lens - Transparent, muscles control its shape to focus light
Retina - Back of the eye, covered in light sensitive cells
Optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

“Most important” component of eye for refracting light

A

Cornea refracts more light than the lens, lens just has the variability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Is pilots license possible with monocular vision?

A

Yes, need medical approval obviously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Depth perception at close and far range

A

Close work (up to 2m) uses binocular vision. Further away monocular vision is acceptable and use other clues for distance perception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

2 types of retina cells

A

Cones: Foveal vision, concentrated in central area of retina, colour sensitive and best in daylight.
Rods: Peripheral vision, further from foveal region, not colour sensitive but work well in the dark and detect movement well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Scotopic vision
Photopic vision
Mesopic vision

A

Scotopic - rods
Photopic - cones
Mesopic - both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Meaning of 20/20 vision

A

You can see at 20 feet what a normal person can see at 20 feet (or 6/6 for metres). 20/10 is better, 30/20 is worse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Reading requirement for pilots

A

Small print from 30cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Autokinesis

A

Illusion of movement when you stare at a static light in darkness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How is false horizon illusion caused?

A

A sloping layer of cloud can be taken as a false horizon leading to adopting a non level attitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Auditory illusion

A

Could come up in exam, refers to things like missed radio calls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Myopia
- Cause
- Correcting glass type
- Where does image tend to focus

A

Short sightedness
Lens is too convex (can’t flatten enough) so light from far away is bent too much and focuses in front of the retina
Concave glass lens to correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Hyperopia/Hypermetropia
- Cause
- Correcting glass type
- where is uncorrected focus point

A

Long sightedness
Lens is not convex enough so light from close up can’t be redirected enough to focus on retina (focus point behind retina)
Convex glass lens to correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Image focus location for myopia & hypermetropia

A

Myopia - in front of the retina
Hypermetropia - behind the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Presbyopia

A

Long sightedness that is common in 40s and beyond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Presbycusis

A

Deterioration in hearing due to age (high tones lost first)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Astigmatism

A

Curvature of cornea or lens is not perfectly round leading to uneven refraction and distorted images.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Glaucoma

A

High pressure in the eye (10-20 mm Hg normal range).
Symptoms are blurred vision, light sensitivity, red discolouration and eventually pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Accommodation

A

The ability to focus on near and far objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Time required to develop night vision (and adapt to bright light)

A

30 minutes (and 10 seconds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Is night vision affected by smoking?

A

Yes!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Disruption of night vision at altitude

A

1100m - 5%
2800m - 18%
4000m - 35%
5000m - 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Optical illusion caused by rain on windscreen

A

Makes objects appear lower than they are (so aircraft appear higher) leading to a low approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Strongest vision area for rods

A

10 degrees off centre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Likely effect of approach to brightly lit runway with no other lights near it?

A

Black hole effect.
Illusion of being too high.
Pilot is likely to descend early leading to a low approach (landing short)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What distance do eyes tend to focus at in the dark with nothing to focus on

A

1-2 metres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Time before flying after cataract or corneal surgery

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Cataract

A

Clouding of the lens
Surgery removes lens entirely (can no longer accomodate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Types of light which can damage eyes (2)
Potential issues caused

A

High energy blue light (retina)
Ultraviolet light (retina, lens & cataracts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Saccade

A

Eye doesn’t move smoothly but in a series of jerky movements of 1/3 second called saccades.
Visual cortex puts these together to create apparent smoothness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Visual scanning technique

A

Movements of 10 degrees
Observe each area for 2 seconds to allow movement to be sensed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

3 components of outer ear

A

External ear: Pinna or Auricle, gathers sound signals
Outer canal: Pressure waves pass through
Eardrum (or tympanic membrane): Vibrates in harmony with pressure waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

2 components of middle ear

A

Ossicles: 3 small bones, forced by eardrum, convert pressure wave energy to mechanical energy.
Eustachian tube: Connects middle ear to nasal passages to allow pressure to match ambient pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

2 components of inner ear

A

Cochlea: Shell shaped part, converts mechanical energy of ossicles to electrical signals
Vestibular Apparatus: Contain fluid and small hairs that detect gravity and acceleration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which part of brain are hearing signals sent to?

A

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Otolith organs

A

Otolith refers to the chalk granules.
Otolith organs are the Saccule which contains the Macula (sac/mac) which detects acceleration and gravity (thus also tilting of the head).
Sit in the vestibule, not in the semi-circular canals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Semi-circular canals

A

Utricle at the base of the semi-circular canals contains cupulas, which detect the angular rotation.
[U as in cup, think of cup tipping over and rotating]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Barotitis

A

Air being trapped in the middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

Failure of the conductive functions, i.e. failure of sounds to be transferred to the inner ear. NOT noise induced hearing loss.
Can include blockage in OUTER ear canal, damage to eardrum, infection affecting ossicles. But NOT auditory nerve damage (since sound would still have been conducted to the inner ear).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How does noise induced hearing damage work?

A

Can affect the sensitive hair cells in the cochlea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Frequency of human hearing and human voices

A

Hearing: 20Hz to 20,000Hz
Voices: 500Hz to 3,000Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Sensory threshold

A

The level at which you become sensitive to stimulus. Raising the sensory threshold reduces sensitivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Coriolis illusions

A

Mistaken sense of direction or acceleration caused by vestibular apparatus.
Caused by moving your head during a turn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Coriolis effect

A

In a steady turn (3 deg/sec) a sudden movement of the head will be detected as a change in rate of turn

116
Q

Somatogyral Illusion

A

AKA the leans, the sense that you are turning when you recover to level attitude from a gentle sustained turn in the other direction.

117
Q

Somatogravic Illusion

A

Impression of climbing/descending due to acceleration/deceleration

118
Q

Kinaesthetic Effect

A

Similar to somatogravic illusion, involves the muscles of the body detecting acceleration/deceleration as climb/descent respectively.
Combines with somatogravic illusion to be very convincing.

119
Q

Oculogyral and Oculogravic illusions

A

Visual versions of somatogyral and somatogravic illusions.
Apparent movement of objects across vision that confirms the somato. illusions.

120
Q

Vertigo
- What is it?
- Potential causes

A

Feeling of rotation when there is none, or vice versa.
- Disease
- Acceleration
- Sudden pressure changes in ear (blowing nose)
- Flicker vertigo from flashing lights
- Pressure vertigo from blocked eustachian tubes

121
Q

Pilots vertigo

A

Dizziness or tumbling sensation caused by conflicting signals to CNS.
Can be caused by flickering light or ear infection causing mismatches between sensory and visual information.

122
Q

Motion Sickness (i.e. airsickness)
- Causes (3)

A
  • Miss-matching signals between ears and eyes
  • Overstimulated inner ear due to turbulence or manoeuvres
  • Psychological factors
123
Q

Motion sickness
- unusual symptoms

A

Hyperventilation
Salivation

124
Q

Blood & bone marrow donation delays

A

Blood: 24 hours
Bone marrow: 48 hours

125
Q

Anaesthetic delays

A

Local - 12 hours
General - 48 hours

126
Q

Requirement if in hospital

A

If in hospital for over 12 hours, require CAA or AME input before flying.

127
Q

Alcohol
- Minimum delay
- Potential time alcohol remains
- Time for 1 unit
- Speeding up alcohol processing

A

At least 8 hours always
Potential remaining after 30 hours
1 unit processed in 1 hour
Rate of processing alcohol CANNOT be sped up!

128
Q

Amount of alcohol removed from blood per hour (% and mg per 100ml)

A

0.01%
15mg per 100ml

129
Q

Weekly alcohol limit

A

21-28 units men (30 units damaging)
14-21 units women (20 units damaging)

130
Q

Max daily caffeine limit

A

200-250mg (2-3 cups of coffee)

131
Q

Alcohol limits for pilots

A

Blood: 20 milligrams per 100ml
[0.2 promille]
Urine: 27 milligrams per 100ml

132
Q

Requirement for glasses wearers

A

Must carry spare pair when flying

133
Q

Requirements to be able to use contact lenses in flight

A

Been worn constantly and successfully for 8 hours a day for at least a month.
Requires medical certificate endorsement from AME.
Still need spare pair of glasses.
Only for NEAR sightedness (need to be able to read instruments)

134
Q

Bifocals

A

Not allowed.
Need to wear half glasses instead.
Can have bifocals for emergency use.

135
Q

Do lit objects at night appear closer or further away than reality?

A

Then appear to be closer than they really are.

136
Q

Stress Model

A

Stress is caused by our perceived abilities compared to perceived demands.
It leads to a psychological response FIRST which causes a physiological response, which feeds into performance, which then feeds back into our perceived abilities and demands.

137
Q

Arousal
- description of too low and too high
- optimal point

A

Low level of arousal associated with fatigue, sleep deprivation -> poor performance.
High level of arousal is fear, panic -> poor performance.
Optimal arousal is slightly on the low side of the peak performance - to enable response to unexpected events.

138
Q

Best arousal level for complex or simple tasks

A

Complex tasks get peak performance with lower level of arousal than simple tasks.
High arousal narrows the span of attention, reducing ability to deal with complex tasks.

139
Q

General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)

A

The mechanism by which we react to a real, perceived or anticipated threat.

140
Q

Two branches of autonomic nervous system (ANS) which participate in GAS

A

Sympathetic branch - Prepares body for physical action (fight or flight)
Parasympathetic branch - Prolongs body’s mobilisation and restores normal function when danger has passed

141
Q

3 phases of GAS

A

Alarm: Adrenaline and glucose released
Resistance: Cortisol released (converts fat to sugar to maintain performance, memory enhanced)
Exhaustion: Waste products of first two phases can result in exhaustion in part or all of body, potentially death

142
Q

Examples of physical or environmental stressors

A

Heat, cold, vibration, turbulence, noise, discomfort, illness, eye strain, flashing lights, concentration, lack of sleep, acceleration, radiation, …

143
Q

3 methods of coping with stress

A

Action coping (do something about the stressor)
Cognitive coping (dealing with stress mentally)
Symptom directed coping (e.g. using drugs)

144
Q

Noise - decibel levels
- Typical cockpit
- Should wear ear protection
- Industry limit
- Causes noise induced hearing loss
- Causing excess stress, eventual permanent hearing loss

A

Typical cockpit: 75-80db
Wear ear protection: 80db
Industry limit: 85db continuous
NIHL: 85db prolonged
Excess stress: 90db

145
Q

Strobing frequency for vertigo

A

4 - 20 hz

146
Q

Melatonin

A

Produced by the brain to aid sleep.
Is used as a supplement but not approved for pilots.
Obtain EXPERT AERO-MEDICAL ADVICE before administering.
Don’t fly within 12 hours.

147
Q

Zeitgeber

A

Clue or reminder as to the true time of day (e.g. daily events, sunrise, sunset).

148
Q

Natural day cycle in hours for a person with no clues as to real time

A

Longer than 24 hours, around 25 hours.

149
Q

Jet-lag worse travelling east or west and reason

A

Worse travelling East
This is because days are shortened and the 25 hour body cycle exaggerates the jet lag by another hour.
Travelling west the 25 hour body cycle reduces the initial effect and brings you back into rhythm quickly.

150
Q

Motor programmes
- description
- in practice

A

AKA skills, actions that at one point required full attention but over time can be carried out more automatically.
In practice need to be MONITORED CONTINUOUSLY as there is a risk of error.

151
Q

2 errors associated with skills behaviour/motor programmes

A

Action slip: Carry out incorrect action
Environmental capture (habituation): Get so used to doing something that don’t notice when it changes/fails (e.g. say you saw green light when you didn’t)

152
Q

Reversion

A

Doing something the way you used to do it (e.g. following SOPs from your last airline)

153
Q

Error of commission

A

If we are preparing to respond to an event (e.g. engine shutdown if engine blows up) there is a risk of carrying out that action in response to different stimulus (e.g. tray falling over).

154
Q

James Reasons Error Model (4)

A

Slip: Actions don’t go according to plan, e.g. dial wrong number
Mistake/Fault: Plan is faulty, e.g. shutting down wrong engine
Lapse/omission: Failure to act due to forgetting or lack of attention
Violation: Deliberate illegal intent
[Silver Fox On Vespa]

155
Q

James Reason Safety Cultures:
- Informed culture
- Reporting culture
- Learning culture
- Just culture
- Flexible culture

A

Informed: Collects and analyses relevant data and disseminates safety info.
Reporting: People encouraged to report errors and near misses.
Learning: About making changes and implementing reforms, not the process of learning itself.
Just: Unintentional errors not punished, reckless or deliberate acts are.
Flexible: Able to reconfigure itself.

156
Q

Most important basis of safety culture

A

Non-punitive reporting system

157
Q

Relevance of national culture to safety culture

A

Strong link, safety culture is a product of organisational, professional and national cultures.

158
Q

What indicates a closed culture?

A

Reluctance to give out information.
Could describe not discussing something that has gone wrong in the cockpit (e.g. captain corrects a mistake but doesn’t discuss it).

159
Q

Zero Defect and Error Cause Removal (ECR) programmes

A

Error management programmes
Zero Defect aims to remove human error entirely through training, a flawed concept.
ECR aims to predict when errors might occur through discussing scenarios and finding mitigation.

160
Q

Receptor

A

Specialised cell capable of detecting changes in the environment (external or internal).

161
Q

Adaptation in receptors

A

The reduction in sensitivity of a receptor as a result of continuous or repetitive exposure to a stimulus.

162
Q

Echoic Memory

A

Longest form of sensory memory, of sound. Lasts 2-8 seconds.

163
Q

Iconic memory

A

Sensory memory of sight, lasts 0.5 to 1 second.

164
Q

Agnosia

A

A brain disorder that interferes with interpretations of sensation and would prevent a pilots license

165
Q

Different types of memory (3)

A
  • Sensory
  • Short term/Working
  • Long term
166
Q

3 types of long term memory

A

Semantic: Meaning memory, knowledge in words and understanding such as language or numbers.
Episodic: Event memory
Procedural: Motor programmes

167
Q

3 methods for improving short term memory

A

Chunking
Association
Mnemonics

168
Q

Over-learning

A

Repeating something to reinforce long term memory (e.g. practicing touch and go’s)

169
Q

4 issues affecting long term memory

A

Expectation: Memory bends to fit what we think should have happened
Suggestion: The way we are questioned affects how we recall events
Repetition: Memory changes on retelling
Amnesia: Can lose episodic memories
[ESRA]

170
Q

4 types of learning

A

Classic conditioning (Pavlov)
Operant conditioning (with feedback to encourage/discourage good/bad behaviour)
Learning by insight (making logical connections)
Learning by imitation (aka modelling)

171
Q

2 types of judgement

A

Perceptual: Relating to skills that have been learnt (e.g. landing an aeroplane)
Cognitive/thinking: Relating to knowledge based behaviour. Uses brain power and analysis.

172
Q

Anderson skill learning model

A

1) Cognitive (learn the rules)
2) Associative (put into practice)
3) Automatic (consolidation of the skill)

173
Q

Jens Rasmussen behaviour model

A

SRK
Skill based behaviour
Rule based behaviour
Knowledge based behaviour

174
Q

Skill based behaviour
- type of people who can use it
- error type

A

Using learned skills. Only experienced people can do this therefore only experienced people can make skill based errors.
Unskilled need different approach.
Errors here are described as ROUTINE errors.

175
Q

Rule-based behaviour

A

Following a routine or procedure
e.g. checklists - Immediate actions (in case of emergency) should be memorised, subsequent actions in checklist

176
Q

2 rule based behaviour errors

A

Error of commission: Wrong set of rules (e.g. checklist) being followed for the situation
Departure from the rules

177
Q

Knowledge based behaviour

A

Using experience and memories to deal with non-routine situations for which no rules exist

178
Q

Where to put most important items in a checklist

A

At the top

179
Q

2 types of human need (motivation model)

A

Physiological (food, warmth etc.)
Psychological (social etc.)

180
Q

2 methods of increasing job satisfaction

A

Job enrichment: Involve staff in policy such as designing aircraft layout
Job enlargement: horizontal (increase employees control of their tasks) or vertical (delegation of tasks from senior staff)

181
Q

Herzberg’s 2 factor theory

A

Motivation factors: Job satisfaction, achievement.
Hygiene factors: Job dissatisfaction, salary, staff relations

182
Q

Heuristics

A

A method of judgement relating to rules based behaviour. Using knowledge that “if I do X then Y will happen”

183
Q

Risky shift

A

The tendency for groups of people to make more risky decisions that they each would individually

184
Q

Definition of situational awareness

A

i) Perception of relevant events
ii) Comprehension of the implications
iii) Projection of their status in the future

185
Q

Situational Awareness levels

A

Notice - Understand - Think ahead

186
Q

TDODAR process

A

Analytical approach to decision making
Time
Diagnose
Options
Decide
Assign
Review

187
Q

What defines a “good” decision?

A

If it can be implemented within the time available

188
Q

TEM

A

Threat and Error Management

189
Q

TEM steps

A

Avoid (Anticipation)
Trap (Recognition)
Mitigate (Recovering)

190
Q

Threat

A

An external event of error outside the control of the pilots requiring immediate attention and management if flight safety is to be maintained.

191
Q

2 types of threat

A

Environmental (weather, air control, terrain etc.)
Organisational (flight deck, operational pressure)

192
Q

Error

A

An action or inaction which results in deviation from pilot intention or expectations and increases likelihood of safety margins being eroded.
[ONLY errors by crew]

193
Q

TEM: 3 types of error

A

Communications
Aircraft Handling
Procedural
[E-CAP]

194
Q

TEM errors: Classifying

A
  • Communications relates to external comms or confusion between pilots.
  • Callouts/checklists relate to PROCEDURAL, not comms, as do SOP issues, briefings, documentation
  • Anything to do with the aircraft situation (speed, altitude, position, configuration) is aircraft handling
195
Q

Internal vs External factors contributing to errors

A

Internal means internal to the person making the mistake (e.g. fatigue, mistaken perception).
External include stressors, ergonomics, economics and social environment (internal to the cockpit, but EXTERNAL to the person).

196
Q

UAS

A

Undesired Aircraft State

197
Q

3 undesired aircraft states

A
  • Aircraft handling
  • Aircraft configuration
  • Ground navigation
198
Q

TEM Countermeasures - Hard (Systemic) & Soft

A

Hard resources (aka Systemic) are imbedded in the aviation system, e.g. legislation, aircraft systems, SOPs, crew training.
Soft resources relate to human input, divided into planning, execution and review countermeasures.

199
Q

3 types of countermeasure

A

Planning
Execution
Review

200
Q

Swiss cheese model

A

Layers of protection against errors viewed as slices of swiss cheese, with errors only occurring when holes in all slices line up

201
Q

4 layers in swiss cheese model

A

Organisation
Unsafe supervision
Preconditions for unsafe acts
The unsafe act

202
Q

Airmanship

A

The consistent use of good judgement and well-developed knowledge, skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.

203
Q

CRM

A

Crew Resource Management

204
Q

Relationship between SA, TEM and CRM

A

SA enables better TEM which combined with CRM provides the best possible outcome.

205
Q

Closed loop system

A

System in which after taking action, feedback can be observed and corrections made (e.g. pilot flying an aeroplane)

206
Q

Standardisation of:
- Yoke/sidestick
- Throttle
- Fuel tank controls

A

Yoke/sidestick - forward to pitch down, left to bank left (etc.) are standard
Throttle - push forward to open throttle is standard
Fuel tank controls - NOT standardised

207
Q

Parallax error

A

Misreading an indicator due to seeing it form an angle, based on distance between the needle and image behind it.

208
Q

Basic T layout

A

AI is top middle.
ASI, Altimeter, HI are left right and bottom
Turn coordinator & VSI in the bottom corners

209
Q

Flight director

A

An indicator which shows you a “target” for the correct attitude to fly the aircraft.
Consists of a triangle for the plane and a dock or crossed lines where it must be lined up.

210
Q

Effect of REM and non-REM sleep

A

REM sleep recharges the brain
Non-REM sleep recharges the body

211
Q

Times of peak and low in body temperature and impact on energy levels

A

Low body temp at 0500, peak at 1700.
Hardest to stay awake at low body temperature.

212
Q

Critical factor in duration of sleep

A

The timing of sleep, not the amount of hours awake. Body temp will help you sleep at certain times.

213
Q

Stages of sleep over 8 hours

A

Initially drop down through stages 1 to 4 and most stage 3/4 (deep) sleep is in first 2-3 hours.
Most time spent in stage 2 which is also when periods of REM occur.
Several moves through stages.

214
Q

Number of REM phases during sleep

A

4-5

215
Q

Orthodox vs paradoxical sleep

A

Paradoxical - REM, mental recovery
Orthodox - Physical recovery only

216
Q

Circadian Dysrhythmia

A

Jet lag, aka transmeridian desynchronisation

217
Q

Sleep - Rebound effect

A

If insufficient REM or non-REM sleep is had, next sleep will include more of that

218
Q

Rate of adjustment to new time zone

A

90 minutes per day

219
Q

When should you try to adjust to a new time zone?

A

If the stopover is less than 24 hours don’t, if it is more, do try to adapt.

220
Q

Radial vs angular acceleration

A

Angular is turning around axis in your own body, radial is where axis is external (i.e. centripetal force).
In a turn, angular force is first experienced, then radial once it is established.

221
Q

2 key rules for planning sleep on stopovers

A

Need 1 hours sleep for every 2 hours awake
Need to sleep immediately before wake up for duty

222
Q

Somnambulism

A

Sleep-walking - occurs during non-REM sleep

223
Q

Maximum G force tolerance (short term) in vertical and fore/aft axis

A

Vertical: + 25g
Fore/aft: + 45g

224
Q

Vigilance, hypovigilance

A

Vigilance isn’t the same as attention, it is related to AROUSAL and defined as the degree of activation of the CNS.
Hypovigilance is when sleep patterns begin to show on an EEG (similar to microsleep).

225
Q

Factors decreasing vigilance

A

Things causing drowsiness like low lighting, sleep debit, constant noise.
NOT challenging things like high workload, distracting tasks or low temperature

226
Q

Selective vs Divided attention
- Impact of over-arousal

A

Divided attention means focusing on multiple things at a time.
Selective attention is focusing on a single item and moving between items.
Over-arousal limits ability of divided attention (narrows our focus).
[Note: Central decision maker can only make one decision at a time, but we can still use divided attention to take input form multiple sources]

227
Q

Maximum G force tolerance (more than 1 second)

A

Relaxed: + 3.5g
Anti-g techniques: + 7 to + 8g
Negative: -3g

228
Q

G force tolerance techniques

A

Body position - legs up to chest
Shouting/straining/tensing legs
Anti-g straining manoeuvre (combination of tensing muscles & valsalva every 3-4 seconds)
Anti-g suits

229
Q

Risk of mercury contamination on plane.
How to resolve.

A

Mercury is poisonous and corrosive, especially to aluminium. Will escape via cracks to lowest point in aircraft.
Use vacuum to collect, not blowing with compressed air which would scatter it.

230
Q

Ozone

A

This poisonous gas mostly exists above 40,000 ft (i.e. stratosphere), lower at some times. However it is usually broken down by cabin filtration system (catalytic converter if not using engine bleed air).
[AKA ozone filters/removers]

231
Q

X-rays experienced in flight
- how much exposure
- protection

A

4 hours of flight over 35000ft equivalent to a chest x-ray. Protection from earth’s magnetic field stronger at equator than poles.

232
Q

Radiation levels recorded for flights above what altitude

A

49000ft

233
Q

BMI formula

A

Weight (kg) / Height (m) squared

234
Q

Healthy BMI range

A

20-25 males, 19-24 females

235
Q

Hypoglycaemia

A

Low blood sugar (below about 50mg per 100ml of blood)

236
Q

2 types of radiation

A

Galactic - Worst at altitude and poles (steady & predictable)
Solar - From solar flares (unsteady and unpredictable)

237
Q

Ideal pilot personality type

A

Extrovert - stable

238
Q

Best way to assess personality

A

Quesionnaires

239
Q

Two personality factors

A

Extraversion vs introversion
Anxious vs Stable
[Anxiety = Neuroticism in Hans Eysenck model]

240
Q

“Big 5” personality factors

A
  • Openness to experience
  • Conscientiousness
  • Extroversion
  • Agreeableness
  • Neuroticism
    [OCEAN]
241
Q

Influences of personality

A

Heredity
Upbringing
CHILDHOOD
EXPERIENCE

242
Q

Self-concept

A

How you see yourself

243
Q

Impact of decision making in groups

A

Group decision will be better than average decision made by members of the group.
But will not improve on the problem solving of the ablest member of the group.

244
Q

Is non-verbal or verbal communication biggest component of normal communication?

A

Non-verbal accounts for 55 to 75% of normal communication (including paralanguage - ‘um’, ‘arr’)

245
Q

Implicit question

A

Open Question
Require single or multiple deductions in order to provide an answer (e.g. in view of the weather, what is the best course of action?)

246
Q

Explicit question

A

Closed Question
The required response is very clear.
Less likelihood of conclusion and quicker resolution

247
Q

What is a communication bit?

A

Quantity of information that reduces uncertainty in receiver by half

248
Q

Qualities for briefings

A

Short - Fewer than 10 ideas
Individualised - for each flight
Understood - by all crew members

249
Q

Redundant action

A

Full duplication of actions to achieve a total result. For example both pilots using a flight control to avoid an obstacle.
Communication required to coordinate.

250
Q

Coaction

A

Working in parallel towards a common goal, actions are independent. Communication not as imperative as redundant action, more to maintain team cohesion.

251
Q

General cooperation

A

Two pilots actions are different, communication required to synchronize future actions.

252
Q

Instrumental communication

A

Communication with the objective of obtaining something or achieving a specific purpose (e.g. asking for something)

253
Q

Two types of synchronisation

A

Cognitive - Getting a common image of the situation
Temporal - Ensure actions are timed appropriately

254
Q

Synergy: 1 + 1 ?

A

1 + 1 > 2

255
Q

Most important feature of flight deck design

A

Eye point being marked

256
Q

Analogue or digital best for quantitative and qualitative information

A

Quantitative information best as digital (e.g. fuel levels).
Qualitative or comparison information best as analogue

257
Q

Requirement for cockpit warnings

A

Alerting function should be carried out by audio warning - mandatory if pilot required to take control.

258
Q

Active vs latent errors

A

Active errors are made at the human-system interface, i.e. in flight, and have an immediate effect.
Latent errors are made by designers or management and have consequences which lay dormant for some time.

259
Q

Vulnerable vs protected system

A

A vulnerable system is one where a single error can affect the whole system.

260
Q

Error tolerance

A

Aviation systems should be designed so that errors do not have serious implications for the overall safety of the flight (e.g. ensuring aircraft isn’t moved outside of flight envelope)

261
Q

Zoonose

A

A disease passed from animals to humans (such as rabies, ebola, bird flu)

262
Q

How are these spread?
Polio
Typhoid
Cholera
Tetanus

A

Polio - person to person
Typhoid - bacterial disease from contaminated food or water
Cholera - Contaminated water
Tetanus - Bacteria in a wound
ALL are infectious

263
Q

Hepatitis A, B, C
- Which can be vaccinated
- How are they spread?

A

Vaccines for A and B
A is from food/water contaminated with human faeces
B and C are STDs (C only from blood)

264
Q

Diabetes - type 1 vs type 2

A

Type 1 more serious, require regular injections of insulin.
Type 2 may be manageable via diet.

265
Q

Fume event

A

Fumes entering the cabin via air source (bleed air from the engine)

266
Q

Items that give off toxic fumes in case of fire

A
  • Furnishing and trimming materials
  • Hydraulic fluid

NOT anti-icing fluid

267
Q

Bottom up vs top down processing

A

Bottom up is based on what you actually see in the real world.
Top down is based on the mental model you can construct from past experience and knowledge.

268
Q

Constancy

A

Visual constancy (e.g. size, colour, brightness constancy) is the brains ability to see the same object/person as having the same appearance, despite appearing different (e.g. closer or further away from us, in shadow, turned at an angle)

269
Q

Most significant source of sensory information and percentage share

A

Visual - 70%

270
Q

Sterile flight deck

A

Rules preventing non-essential activity in the cockpit during essential phases of flight (e.g. below 10,000ft)

271
Q

3 types of authority gradient cockpit

A
  • Autocratic
  • Laisser-faire
  • Synergistic
272
Q

Type of culture established in an organisation using Fatigue Risk Management System (FRMS)

A

Learning culture

273
Q

Acute vs chronic fatigue

A

Acute: Usually lack of sleep
Chronic: Often psychological factors, no sleep for a long time

274
Q

Hazardous attitudes (5)

A

Resignation
Anti-authority
Invulnerable
Macho
Impulsive
[RAIMI]

275
Q

Description of resignation

A

Avoiding making decisions or accepting responsibility

276
Q

Where is insecticide sprayed?
When can it be sprayed?

A

Often on outside, but can also be sprayed on inside of aircraft.
Either residual type before passengers board, OR while passengers are on board!

277
Q

Does good followership mean following orders or speaking up if you disagree?

A

Speaking up if you disagree

278
Q

Opposite of mode awareness

A

Mode confusion

279
Q

2 main errors in decision making

A
  • Situation assessment
  • Choosing a course of action
280
Q

Illusion when moving between flat terrain and mountainous

A

Feel too low when going from flat to mountainous.
Feel too high when going to flat ground.

281
Q

Does exercise help resistance to hypoxia?

A

Yes, increased number of red blood cells.

282
Q

What to link underconfidence to in exams (e.g. after promotion to captain)?

A

Aggression!

283
Q

Pilot flying or pilot monitoring responsible for error related to ATC clearance

A

Can be BOTH! If both tuned to the frequency both should be listening to it, allowing a cross check for what is heard.

284
Q

Interpersonal vs intrapersonal conflict

A

Intrapersonal means the underlying issue is internal to one person (e.g. being too timid to speak up even if no indication it would be a problem).
If one persons behaviour or attitude impacts the other it could be interpersonal (e.g. not speaking up to a captain known to be aggressive, the issue rests partly with the captain).

285
Q

Major risk factor for stroke

A

Hypertension

286
Q

Symptoms of long term (chronic) fatigue

A

Not tiredness or microsleeps.
Includes reduction in performance, psychological & mental health problems, maybe insomnia.

287
Q

Categories of stressors

A
  • PODEP
    Psychological
    Occupational
    Domestic
    Environmental
    Physiological

ATPL - Module 1 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions