Human Development, Diversity and Behavior in the Environment

Question 1

What are “basic” needs?

A) Items that a person needs so that he can attain a level of well-being that meets the standards of his community

B) Items Considered essential for maintaining a person’s well-being, such as adequate food, shelter, and clothing

C) Physical, psychological, economical, cultural and social requirements for survival, fulfillment and well-being

Answer 1

B) Items Considered essential for maintaining a person’s well-being, such as adequate food, shelter, and clothing

Question 2

According to the biopsychosocial perspective, which of the following interact with risks to determine a person’s tendency toward resilience?

A) Basic needs.
B) Genetics
C) Perceived Needs
D) Protective Factors

Answer 2

D) Protective Factors

Question 3

Research by Werner and Smith (1982) found that a high risk baby is LEAST likely to suffer long term negative consequences if:
A) she has a higher- than- average IQ
B) she is socially responsive
C) her mother doesn’t work outside the home
D) she has a large family

Answer 3

B) she is socially responsive

Question 4

The diathesis stress theory proposes that some mental disorders such as schizophrenia are the result of genetic predisposition combined with

A) Prenatal stress
B) The person’s interpretation of stressful events
C) Exposure to high stress during a “critical” period
D) Stressful situations in the environment

Answer 4

D) Stressful situations in the environment

Question 5

Ethologists found that an organism must be exposed to particular environmental stimuli during specific periods in order for behavior to develop. These periods are referred to as

A) Sensative periods
B) Critical periods
C) Learning Periods
D) Fixed Periods

Answer 5

B) Critical periods

Question 6

Which of the following is a true statement about a “closed” system

A) It is isolated from its environment and resistant to influence by outside forces
B) It continuously receives energy from and discharged energy to its environment
C) It tends to be more healthy than an open system

Answer 6

A) It is isolated from its environment and resistant to influence by outside forces

Question 7

From the perspective of systems theory, positive feedback:

A) upsets the existing balance and amplifies deviation from a steady state
B) Is used to restore balance and reduce variation from a steady state
C) Prevents and exchange of energy “information” between the system and its environment.

Answer 7

A) upsets the existing balance and amplifies deviation from a steady state

Question 8

Which of the following concepts is LEAST associated with the ecological approach?

A) Competition
B) Person- Environment transactions
C) Positive and negative balances
D) Specializations

Answer 8

C) Positive and negative balances

Question 9

More than one answer is correct. Choose each correct answer. According to Freud which of the following is true about the ego?

A) The ego is present at birth
B) The ego operates on the basis of the pleasure principle
C) The ego mediates the conflicting demands of the id and reality
D) the ego represents the internalization of society’s values and standards
E) The ego employs secondary process thinking

Answer 9

C) The ego mediates the conflicting demands of the id and reality
E) The ego employs secondary process thinking

Question 10

In sequence Freud’s five stages of psychosexual development are:

A) Oral, Anal, Genital, Latency, Phallic
B) Oral, Anal, Phallic, Latency, Genital
C) Oral, Anal, Phallic, Genital, Latency
D) Anal, Oral, Phallic, Latency, Genital

Answer 10

B) Oral, Anal, Phallic, Latency, Genital

Question 11

A mother is angry at her husband but yells at her son. What defense mechanism does this best illustrate?

A) Displacement
B) Projection
C) Undoing
D) Reaction Formation

Answer 11

A) Displacement

Question 12

In Mahler’s separation-individuation theory, “Individuation” refers to

A) the differentiation between the infant “self” and the mother
B) the integration of the conscious and unconscious parts of the psyche leading to the development of a unique identity
C) the development of the infant’s ego sense of identity an cognitive abilities

Answer 12

C) the development of the infant’s ego sense of identity an cognitive abilities

Question 13

For Erickson, a two year old is facing which psychosocial crisis?

A) Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt
B) Trust vs Mistrust
C) Industry vs Inferiority
D) Initiative vs Guilt

Answer 13

A) Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt

Question 14

For Erickson, a young adult is facing which psychosocial crisis?

A) Identity vs Role Confusion
B) Ego Integrity vs Despair
C) Initiative vs Guilt
D) Intimacy vs Isolation

Answer 14

D) Intimacy vs Isolation

Question 15

Pavlov called a stimulus that naturally elicits the target response the ________ stimulus and its response the _______ response.

A) conditioned - conditioned
B) unconditioned - unconditioned
C) unconditioned- conditioned
D) conditioned- unconditioned

Answer 15

B) unconditioned - unconditioned

Question 16

Fill in each blank with the correct choice: In positive reinforcement, performance of a behavior _______ (increases/ decreases) as the result of the ________ (application/removal) of a stimulus (reinforcer) following the behavior.

Answer 16

increases/ application

Question 17

Fill in each blank with the correct choice: In negative punishment, the _______ (application/removal) of a stimulus following a behavior _______ (increases/decreases) that behavior.

Answer 17

removal/ decreases

Question 18

Operant extinction refers to :

A) the ability to discriminate between similar stimuli and respond only to a conditioned stimulus with a conditioned response.
B) the termination of an unpleasant stimulus following performance of a desired behavior.
C) Withholding reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior in order to decrease or eliminate that behavior.

Answer 18

C) Withholding reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior in order to decrease or eliminate that behavior.

Question 19

More than one answer is correct: choose each correct answer. The effectiveness of observational learning is affected by characteristics of the model. Learners are more likely to imitate a model when:

A) the model has high status or has had past success.
B) the model is unfamiliar and perceived to be different.
C) the model’s behavior is relevant to the learner’s needs and goals
D) the model has been reinforced for engaging in the behavior

Answer 19

A) the model has high status or has had past success.
C) the model’s behavior is relevant to the learner’s needs and goals
D) the model has been reinforced for engaging in the behavior

Question 20

A person’s social-role problem stems from the fact that she occupies more roles than she can perform adequately. This cause of social role problems is referred to as:

A) Role conflict
B) role ambiguity
C) Role incapacity
D) Role overload

Answer 20

D) Role overload

Question 21

A person with an internal locus of control is likely to be

A ) highly anxious
B) highly dogmatic
C) highly dependent
D) highly achievement-oriented.

Answer 21

D) highly achievement-oriented.

Question 22

To decrease hostility between groups of junior high students, you would be best advised to :

A) increase opportunities for contact under pleasant conditions.
B) have a respected member of the community speak to the students about the benefits of cooperation.
C) assign the students goals that can be achieved only through interngroup cooperation
D) have each group select a representative to discuss ways to reduce hostility.

Answer 22

C) assign the students goals that can be achieved only through interngroup cooperation

Question 23

Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that when people have two incompatible cognitions (e.g. when they behave in a way that is counter to their attitudes), they experience dissonance, which they attempt to relieve by:

A) downplaying the importance of inconsistency
B) altering their attitudes
C) changing their behavior
D) any of the above

Answer 23

D) any of the above

Question 24

“Groupthink” is less likely to occur when:

A) dissent among group members is encouraged
B) the group is highly cohesive
C) the members are allowed to determine the group’s goals
D) the group has a strong leader

Answer 24

A) dissent among group members is encouraged

Question 25

People with ______ lack the enzyme needed to digest the amino acid phenylalanine, which, in its undigested form, remains as a toxic agent in the brain and causes severe mental retardation.

A) Down syndrom
B) Huntington’s chorea
C) Rh incompatibility
D) PKU

Answer 25

D) PKU

Question 26

The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome:

A) are largely short-term
B) are reversible with the appropriate diet after birth
C) often include hyperactivity and learning problems
D) are restricted primarily to minor physical abnormalities

Answer 26

C) often include hyperactivity and learning problems

Question 27

The ages at which early physical milestones are reached vary from child to child, and the experts often report somewhat different ages. Generally, however, babies take their first steps alone at about:

A) 12 months of age
B) 9 months of age
C) 18 months of age

Answer 27

A) 12 months of age

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a risk factor associated with failure to thrive?

A) The infant’s temperament
B) Poverty
C) High levels of stress in the household
D) Placing the infant on his stomach to sleep

Answer 28

D) Placing the infant on his stomach to sleep

Question 29

Your ______ prepares you for a “fight or flight” response.

A) somatic nervous system
B) sympathetic nervous system
C) parasympathetic nervous system
D) general adaptation system

Answer 29

B) sympathetic nervous system

Question 30

Elevated levels of serotonin contribute to:

A) depression and anxiety
B) schizophrenia and autism
C) Huntington’s disease and other neurodegenerative disorders

Answer 30

B) schizophrenia and autism

Question 31

As defined by Piaget, when a child adjusts his understanding of the world to incorporate new knowledge, the child is displaying:

A) assimilation
B) object permanence
C) decentration
D) accommodation

Answer 31

D) accommodation

Question 32

Conservation (the ability to understand that changing one dimension of an object does not change its other dimension) develops during which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A) concrete operational stage
B) formal operational stage
C) pre operational stage
D) informational processing stage

Answer 32

A) concrete operational stage

Question 33

Which of the following is MOST likely to be true about a 4 year old’s understanding of death?

A) She knows that death is universal
B) She understands that death can’t be reversed
C) She thinks people walk, talk and eat after they die

Answer 33

C) She thinks people walk, talk and eat after they die

Question 34

The parents tell a social worker that their 1-year-old child can understand some of what is said to him but has not started to talk. He has yet to say his first word. What should the social worker do FIRST?

A) Explain that this reflects normal development.
B) Consult with a speech pathologist.
C) Have the child tested for hearing loss
D) Explore whether the parents interact verbally with him.

Answer 34

A) Explain that this reflects normal development.

Question 35

Stuttering would be considered “normal childhood dysfluency” when:

A) it is not accompanied by other mental or behavioral problems
B) it includes broken words but not blocking
C) it occurs in a child age 3

Answer 35

C) it occurs in a child age 3

Question 36

Parents adopting an authoritative style are most likely to produce children who are

A) dependent, passive, and submissive
B) disobedient, agressive, and rebellious
C) independent, self-confidedent, and self-controlled
D) moody, creative, and idependent

Answer 36

C) independent, self-confidedent, and self-controlled

Question 37

According to Kohlberg’s cognitive development theory, the acquisition of gender-role identity involves a sequence of stages that parallels cognitive development. In sequence, these stages are:

A) gender identity, gender constancy, gender stability
B) gender identity, gender stability, gender constancy
C) identification with mother or father, gender-typing, gender stability

Answer 37

B) gender identity, gender stability, gender constancy

Question 38

A 7 month old exhibits severe distress when she is separated from her mother for a short period of time. This is probably a sign of which of the following?

A) Hospitalism.
B) Normal separation anxiety
C) Social referencing
D) Disorganized. disoriented attachment

Answer 38

B) Normal separation anxiety

Question 39

Stranger anxiety, a sign of the mother-child attachment, usually begins at what age?

A) 5 to 6 months of age
B) 8 to 10 months of age
C) 12 months of age
D) 18 to 24 months of age

Answer 39

B) 8 to 10 months of age

Question 40

Social smiles occur as a result of external stimuli (e.g., seeing a caregiver’s face). Social smiles:

A) occur within a few days of birth
B) can occur as early as 1 month of age
C) don’t emerge until about 6 months of age

Answer 40

B) can occur as early as 1 month of age

Question 41

Delinquency in adolescence in MOST associated with which of the following?

A) Low income families and low IQ score
B) A mother who works outside the home and an unemployed father
C) Weak parental supervision and inconsistent discipline
D) Physical abuse and unreasonable rules

Answer 41

C) Weak parental supervision and inconsistent discipline

Question 42

Regarding depression among elderly people, which of the following is a true statement?

A) Overall, elderly people have higher rates of depressive mood disorders than younger adults.
B) Among older people, those most likely to be depressed are males over age 70
C) In the absence of health problems, growing older does not increase the risk for depression

Answer 42

C) In the absence of health problems, growing older does not increase the risk for depression

Question 43

Kubler-Ross developed a theory of death and dying that describes the stages people go through as they move toward their own death. In sequence, these stages include which of the following?

A) Depression, anger, bargaining, denial, acceptance
B) Denial, ambivalence, bargaining, depression, acceptance.
C) Despair, anger, bereavement, denial acceptance.
D) Denial anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance.

Answer 43

D) Denial anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance.

Question 44

Two children are playing with toy trucks in a sandbox, but are not interacting with each other. This is an example of :

A) associative play
B) onlooker play
C) constructive play
D) parallel play

Answer 44

D) parallel play

Question 45

Factors that have been found to determine the level of sexual activity in late adulthood include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) physical health
B) the availability of a partner
C) hearing loss
D) sexual activity in mid-life and earlier

Answer 45

C) hearing loss

Question 46

Which of the following would be a sign that a family system is “healthy”?

A) Generational boundaries are diffuse
B) Family goals remain stable over time
C) Covert rules serve to maintain its structure and operations
D) The family is an open system

Answer 46

D) The family is an open system

Question 47

An adolescent is MOST likely to deveop a healthy sense of autonomy if his parents:

A) set and enforce clear, consistent limits on his behavior so that he learns appropriate self-control
B) let him make decisions on his own and stop in only when he makes poor decisions
C) retain some necessary control, but give him more decision-making authority that he had before
D) use a power0assertive disciplinary style

Answer 47

C) retain some necessary control, but give him more decision-making authority that he had before

Question 48

The disciplinary strategy known as “induction”

A) involves using explanation and rationality to influence a child’s behaviors.
B) involves withdrawing love when a child’s behavior is considered inappropriate.
C) emphasizes physical punishment, threat of punishment, and physical efforts to control a child’s behavior.

Answer 48

A) involves using explanation and rationality to influence a child’s behaviors.

Question 49

The term _________ generation is sometimes used to describe a generation of people who care for their aging parents while also supporting their own children

A) launching
B) empty nest
C) sandwich

Answer 49

C) Sandwich

Question 50

A child is MOST likely to exhibit behavioral and psychological problems following the divorce of his parents if:
A) he lives with his father rather than his mother
B) his parents have have joint custody
C) his parents frequently argue in front of him
D) his mother adopts and authoritative parenting style

Answer 50

C) his parents frequently argue in front of him

Question 51

To receive Title IV-B funding, states must provide certain protections to children in foster care. These protections include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) placement consistent with the child’s special needs
B) a plan for attaining permanence for the child.
C) regular visitation between the child and her biological parents
D) placement in close proximity to the child’s biological parents.

Answer 51

C) regular visitation between the child and her biological parents

Question 52

Which of the following is most associated with well-being following retirement?

A) having a marital partner.
B) participating in productive or fulfilling activities
C) Learning to live on a fixed income
D) Working part time in a field different from one’s previous employment.

Answer 52

B) participating in productive or fulfilling activities

Question 53

In crisis theory, the initial shock that disrupts a person’s equilibrium and initiates a series of reactions that may culminate in a crisis is called:

A) the precipitating factor
B) the hazardous event
C) a vulnerability
D) an immobilizing event.

Answer 53

B) the hazardous event

Question 54

The unexpected death of a loved one is considered to be an example of which of the following?

A) a situational crisis
B) a maturational crisis
C) eustress
D) a social crisis

Answer 54

A) a situational crisis

Question 55

Generally speaking, the first phase of grief following the death of a loved one involves which of the following?

A) Withdrawal from others and a sense of longing for the person who died
B) A sense of despair and disorganization
C) Anger, fatigue and depression
D) Numbness and physical symptoms

Answer 55

D) Numbness and physical symptoms

Question 56

A 7 year old has just experienced the death of his mother. HIs family should be told which of the following?

A) The child is too young to understand that his mother’s death is permanent
B) The child may blame himself for her death
C) The child is too young to attend the funeral.

Answer 56

B) The child may blame himself for her death

Question 57

Which of the following statements regarding child sexual abuse is true, according to research and other evidence?

A) Most child victims are abused by strangers.
B) Perpetrators often use physical violence to force the child to participate in the sexual activity
C) the majority of offenders were sexually abused during childhood
D) the majority of known child sexual abusers are men and the majority of known child victims are female.

Answer 57

D) the majority of known child sexual abusers are men and the majority of known child victims are female.

Question 58

Symptoms of shaken baby syndrome include:

A) bruising, seizures, drowsiness, vomiting, swollen eyes
B) lethargy, crying, vomiting, loss of appetite, seizures
C) crying, facial swelling, loss of appetite, seizures, apnea
D) lethargy, crying, seizures, bruising, bloodshot eyes

Answer 58

B) lethargy, crying, vomiting, loss of appetite, seizures

Question 59

All of the following are psychological or behavioral characteristics typically found in battering husbands/patterning partners, EXCEPT:

A) inflated self-esteem
B) poor impulse control
C) adherence to stereotypic masculine and feminine roles.
D) a tendency to blame others for his actions

Answer 59

A) inflated self-esteem

Question 60

In sequence, the stages of Lenore Walker’s “cycle of violence” are:

A) acute battering incident, tension release, loving contrition
B) usually loving behavior and formation of the relationship, tension building, acute battering incident
C) acute battering incident, tension release, loving contrition
D) tension building, acute battering incident, loving contrition

Answer 60

D) tension building, acute battering incident, loving contrition

Question 61

An elderly woman who has great difficulty getting around due to chronic joint and back pain appears very nervous when a social worker pays a visit to her home. Her adult son, who is unemployed and got divorced a year ago, lives with her. Based on this information, the social worker would MOST suspect which of the following

A) self-neglect
B) elder abuse
C) dementia
D) caregiver impairment

Answer 61

B) elder abuse

Question 62

Institutional racism is BEST defined as which of the following?

A) the acceptance by members to stigmatized races of negative messages about their own abilities and intrinsic worth.
B) Schemas about members of stigmatized races that contain oversimplified, rigid, and generalized impressions of members of those groups
C) Denial or restriction of material conditions (e.g. access to health care) and access to power of members of minority groups

Answer 62

C) Denial or restriction of material conditions (e.g. access to health care) and access to power of members of minority groups

Question 63

A national survey finds that while most people are in favor of integration in the workplace, the majority also oppose affirmative action. This finding is BEST explained by which of the following?

A) group polarization
B) symbolic racism theory.
C) the contact hypothesis
D) Sociocultural risk

Answer 63

B) symbolic racism theory.

Question 64

Which of the following is associated with the worldview known as collectivism?

A) A tendency to attribute events or behaviors to dispositional factors
B) An emphasis on family life over personal self-concept
C) a preference for goal-oriented, direct, low-context communication.

Answer 64

B) An emphasis on family life over personal self-concept

Question 65

Individuals from diverse cultures often rely on family.relationship patterns that differ from those typically found among middle-class white Americans. Patterns commonly found among African-Americans, American Indians, Asians, and Hispanics include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Interdependence and responsibility to the family are emphasized and encouraged.
B) Individuals rely on help from family members and use “outside” resources as a last resort.
C) emphasis is placed on respect for adults and elders.
D) Individual guild is used as a tool for controlling interpersonal interactions and other behavior.

Answer 65

D) Individual guild is used as a tool for controlling interpersonal interactions and other behavior.

Question 66

“Internalized homophobia” is BEST described by which of the following?

A) a gay person accepts heterosexual society’s negative evaluation of a gay people and incorporates these into his self-concept
B) Society’s negative regard for homosexuality creates a power and status different in which homosexuality is viewed as inferior to heterosexuality
C) Cultural ideologies promote and perpetrate antipathy, hostility, and violence against homosexuals

Answer 66

A) a gay person accepts heterosexual society’s negative evaluation of a gay people and incorporates these into his self-concept

Question 67

Compared to men, women are more likely to respond to stress by:

A) using alcohol to escape
B) using active problem-solving strategies
C) seeking social support
D) denying the problem

Answer 67

C) seeking social support

Question 68

Immediately following a truama that results in physical disability, an individual usually experiences a state of shock. Immediately following the initial shock, the person is MOST likely to experience which of the following?

A) Depression
B) Denial
C) Flashbacks
D) Anxiety

Answer 68

B) Denial

Question 69

The term “reasonable accommodation” is MOST associated with which of the following?

A) The Individuals With Disabilities Education Act
B) The Americans with Disabilities Act
C) The Rehabilitation Act
D) The McKinney Act

Answer 69

B) The Americans with Disabilities Act

Question 70

The policy known as _______________ has proven to be a contributing factor to homelessness among the mentally ill, in part, because many people with mental illness are released from hospitals without adequate provision for aftercare in their community.

A) early intervention
B) reasonable accommodation
C) deinstitutionalization
D) outreach

Answer 70

C) deinstitutionalization

Question 71

With regard to risk factors for developing a substance-use disorder, which of the following is true?

A) Anxiety or depression may play a role in the onset or maintenance of the disorder
B) There is clear evidence of an “addictive personality” that predisposes certain people to develop these disorders
C) Females, especially those living in economically disadvantaged communities are at highest risk.

Answer 71

A) Anxiety or depression may play a role in the onset or maintenance of the disorder

Question 72

_________ is a life-threatening alcohol-related disorder resulting in persistent memory loss and believed to be caused by malnutrition and thiamine deficiency .

A) Wernicke- Korsakoff syndrome
B) Alpha alcoholism
C) “Blacking out”
D) Cirrhosis

Answer 72

A) Wernicke- Korsakoff syndrome