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Higher Human Biology > Human Cells > Flashcards

Human Cells Flashcards

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1
Q

What name is given to the body cells which are not involved in reproduction?

A

Somatic cells

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2
Q

By what process do somatic cells divide to produce more somatic cells?

A

Mitosis

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3
Q

What name is given to the human cells involved in producing cells for reproduction?

A

Germline cells

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4
Q

How many chromosomes are found in germline cells?

A

46

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5
Q

By what process do germline cells produce more germline cells?

A

Mitosis

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6
Q

In which part of the body are germline cells found?

A

Ovaries and testes

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7
Q

By what process do germline cells produce the gametes?

A

Meiosis

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8
Q

How many eggs/sperm are produced when a germline cell divides by meiosis?

A

4

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9
Q

Name the two types of stem cell

A

Embryonic stem cells and tissue stem cells

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10
Q

What word is used to describe the ability of embryonic stem cells to divide into almost any cell type

A

Pluripotent

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11
Q

What word is used to describe the ability of tissue stem cells to divide into a limited range of cell types?

A

Multipotent

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12
Q

Name 5 uses of stem cells

A
  • Model cells to investigate how diseases develop
  • Model cells to investigate how drugs work
  • Corneal repairs
  • Skin grafts
  • Bone marrow transplants (in the treatment of leukaemia)
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13
Q

What name is given to the abnormal mass of cells formed by uncontrolled cell division of cells?

A

Tumor

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14
Q

To which carbon attachment point do bases and phosphates attach in a DNA nucleotide

A

Carbon 1 and carbon 5

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15
Q

What name is given to the backbone of a DNA strand from deoxyribose sugar and phosphate?

A

Sugar-phosphate backbone

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16
Q

What type of bonds form between bases on two complimentary strands?

A

Hydrogen bonds

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17
Q

What term is used to describe the fact that the two strands of DNA run in opposite directions?

A

Antiparallel

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18
Q

Name the two ends of one DNA strand

A

3’ and 5’

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19
Q

Name given to the short sequence of nucleotides that attach to the 3’ end of the parental strand about to be replicated

A

Primer

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20
Q

What name is given to the enzyme needed to replicate the strands during DNA replication?

A

DNA polymerase

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21
Q

How is the replication of a leading strand described because it is replicated without any interruptions?

A

Continuous

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22
Q

Name the enzyme needed to join the fragments together in the lagging strand?

A

Ligase

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23
Q

Name 5 requirements of DNA replication

A

DNA template strand, ATP, DNA nucleotides, Primers and enzymes (DNA polymerase and Ligase)

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24
Q

What word is used to describe the fact that you are making multiple copies of a piece of DNA in PCR

A

Amplification

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25
Q

Describe the first stage of PCR

A

Heat the DNA strand to approx 95°C to denature the DNA and break the hydrogen bonds to separate the strand

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26
Q

After heating the DNA strand it must be cooled down to 50-65°C - Why?

A

So that primers can attach to the DNA

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27
Q

Lastly the DNA is heated to 70-80 degrees to allow an enzyme to replicate the strand. Name the enzyme involved

A

Heat-tolerant DNA polymerase

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28
Q

Name three uses of amplified DNA produced through PCR

A

Forensic (crime scene investigation) medical (genetic disorder diagnosis) and paternity disputes

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29
Q

Describe 3 differences between DNA and RNA

A

•Number of strands
•Deoxyribose + ribose sugar
DNA contains thymine RNA contains Uracil

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30
Q

In which region of the cell does transcription take place

A

In the nucleus

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31
Q

Where does transcription begin on the DNA strand?

A

Promoter region

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32
Q

Name the region kn the DNA where transcription ends

A

Terminator

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33
Q

What process follows the formation of the primary transcript of mRNA

A

Splicing

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34
Q

Where does the process of splicing occur

A

Nucleus

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35
Q

What process follows the formation of a primary transcript?

A

Splicing

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36
Q

The same piece of DAN can be used to make several proteins due to the fact different regions can act as axons and introns. What is this known as?

A

Alternative RNA splicing

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37
Q

Where does translation occur

A

In the ribosome

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38
Q

Where are tRNA molecules found

A

In the cytoplasm

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39
Q

What name is given to every 3 bases on an RNA

A

A codon

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40
Q

An anticodon acts as a code word to attach someone on the other end of a tRNA molecule - what attaches to this?

A

An amino acid

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41
Q

What bonds form between codons and anticodons?

A

Hydrogen bonds

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42
Q

What bonds form between adjacent amino acids when tRNA anticodons attach to mRNA codons?

A

Mainly peptide bonds

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43
Q

What happens to the tRNA and mRNA at the end of translation?

A

It detaches from a ribosome and is released back into the cytoplasm for reuse

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44
Q

Name some functions of proteins created during protein synthesis?

A

Enzymes, hormones, antibodies, structural proteins

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45
Q

Name 3 single point mutations

A

Insertions, deletions and substitutions

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46
Q

Name two point mutations which cause the frame shift effect

A

Insertion and deletion

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47
Q

Substitution usually usually results in only one amino acid being changed. When could substitution have a major effect on the individual?

A

If a codon is replaced by a stop codon

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48
Q

What name is given to proteins which are still able to function but have had only slight changes made to their structure?

A

Missense mutations

49
Q

Name the term used to describle proteins which have undergone mutations and cannot function at all

A

Nonsense

50
Q

What name is given to a mutation where introns are retained in error during splicing

A

Splice-site mutations

51
Q

Name 4 examples of chromosome mutations

A

Deletion, duplication, inversion and translocation

52
Q

What name is given to the mutation where some of the Gene’s from one chromosome break off and join with the genes on a completely different chromosome?

A

Translocation

53
Q

What name is given to a mutation when some of the genes rotate 180° on a chromosome?

A

Inversion

54
Q

What name is given to fusion to the fusion of molecular biology, statistical analysis and computer technology in the study of the human genome

A

Bioinformatics

55
Q

What name is given to the complete sequencing of a person’s DNA bases

A

Personalised genomic sequencing

56
Q

What name is given to the use of genomic information in choosing pharmaceutical drugs

A

Pharmacogenetics

57
Q

What are the advantages of pharmacogenetics?

A

It allows for more effective treatment by selecting a suitable drug and the correct dosage

58
Q

What type of sequences make up the genome

A

Coding sequences and non-coding sequences

59
Q

What name is given to the thousands of biochemical reactions that occur in living cells

A

Metabolism

60
Q

The quantity of energy consumed by an organism per unit time is a measure of what rate?

A

Metabolic rate

61
Q

Name two types of metabolic pathway

A

Anabolic (build up) and catabolic (breakdown)

62
Q

Metabolic reactions sometimes have places where steps can be bypassed, what are these pathways known as?

A

Alternative routes

63
Q

Give three properties of a catalyst

A
  • Lowers activation energy
  • Increases the reaction rate
  • Remains unchanged at the end of the reaction
64
Q

What state is reached when two reactants have bonds broken and they are in a position that is unstable and ready to form a product?

A

Transition state

65
Q

What substance are enzymes made of?

A

Protein

66
Q

What name is given to the area on an enzyme that meets with a substrate?

A

Active site

67
Q

What determines the shape of an active site?

A

The sequence of amino acids in a poly peptide chain that makes up an enzyme molecule

68
Q

Give the term used to describe the fact that the active site has a strong attraction for the substrate?

A

High affinity

69
Q

In order for the enzymes active site to fit the substrate more closely, the shape of the active site and enzyme change slightly- what is this called?

A

Induced fit

70
Q

Fill in the missing phrase: “the shape of the active site determines the ___________ of reactants.”

A

Orientation

71
Q

In an enzyme controlled reaction, the reaction rate will increase as the substrate concentration increases up until a certain point. After that the rate of reaction does not increase, why is this?

A

All the active sites have been occupied, therefore enzymes become a limiting factor

72
Q

What can be done to increase the rate of an enzyme controlled reaction once all of the active sites on the enzyme are occupied and substrate has already been increased?

A

Add more of the enzyme to the reaction

73
Q

In a metabolic pathway, metabolite W binds with enzyme 1 to form X, which then binds with enzyme 2 to form Y, which finally binds to enzyme 3 to form metabolite Z at the end of the pathway. If there is a fault in a gene for enzyme 2 which metabolite would build up?

A

Metabolite X

74
Q

What name is given to a substance that decreases the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction?

A

An inhibitor

75
Q

Name three types of inhibitors/inhibition

A
  • Non-competitive and competitive inhibitors

* Negative feedback inhibition

76
Q

What happens to the rate of reaction in an enzyme-controlled reaction that is affected by a competitive inhibitor?

A

Decreases the rate of reaction but doesn’t stop it altogether because occasionally the substrate will still bind due to competition

77
Q

Where does a non-competitive inhibitor bind to?

A

An allosteric site (a site away from the active site)

78
Q

What does a non-competitive inhibitor do to the shape of an enzymes active site?

A

Changes the shape of the active site

79
Q

Why does a reaction affected by a non-competitive inhibitor stop the reaction altogether?

A

Because the shape of the active site has changed permanently and it no longer recognises the substrate

80
Q

What name is given to the series of metabolic pathways that brings about the release of energy through foodstuff and the regeneration of ATP?

A

Cellular respiration

81
Q

Name 3 processes in the body that require ATP

A

Muscle contraction, nerve impulses and protein synthesis

82
Q

Name the three stages of respiration

A

Glycolysis, Citric acid cycle and Electron transport chain

83
Q

Name the two phases of glycolysis

A

Energy investment and energy payoff stage

84
Q

Where in the cell does glycolysis take place?

A

In the cytoplasm

85
Q

How many ATPs are need to be invested in the energy investment phase of glycolysis?

A

2ATPs (per glucose molecule)

86
Q

How many ATPs are made during the energy payoff phase to give a net gain of 2ATPs?

A

4ATPs

87
Q

What enzymes remove hydrogen ions and electrons from glucose?

A

Dehydrogenase enzymes

88
Q

Name the coenzyme molecule that acts as a carrier of the hydrogen ions and electrons

A

NAD

89
Q

Where are all the hydrogen ions and electrons taken to by the NADH (after it picks up H+)

A

The electron transport chain

90
Q

What is the final product of glycolysis which passes to the citric acid cycle?

A

Pyruvate

91
Q

Where does private diffuse into to take part in the citric acid cycle?

A

The matrix of the mitochondria

92
Q

What does pyruvate combine with to form citrate in the citric acid cycle

A

Oxaloacetate

93
Q

What has is released during the citric acid cycle

A

Carbon dioxide

94
Q

What does citrate break down into during the citric acid cycle?

A

Oxaloacetate

95
Q

What do dehydrogenase enzymes do during the citric acid cycle?

A

Remove hydrogen ions and electrons

96
Q

Name the carrier that transports the hydrogen ions and electrons to the third stage of respiration

A

NAD

97
Q

How many ATPs are made during the citric acid cycle

A

1 ATP

98
Q

What does the electron transport chain consist of

A

A series of electron receptors

99
Q

What is used to pump hydrogen ions across the inner membrane of the mitochondria?

A

Electrons

100
Q

What enzyme is used to join ADP and Pi together during the electron transport chain

A

ATP synthase

101
Q

What is the name of the final electron receptor

A

Oxygen

102
Q

Whenever hydrogen ions combine with oxygen during the electron transport chain what is formed?

A

Water

103
Q

Is oxygen needed for the electron transport chain

A

Yes, because it acts as the final electron acceptor

104
Q

Why is it that at any given time, the body has a fairly constant amount of around 50g. Yet it is constantly being made?

A

It is broken down just as fast as it is being made

105
Q

During strenuous exercise, what type of respiration does the body carry out?

A

Lactate metabolism

106
Q

Which of the two stages DO NOT occur because of a lack of oxygen

A

Critic acid cycle and electron transport chain

107
Q

During lactate metabolism how many ATPs are made

A

2 ATPs

108
Q

What is pyruvate converted to after glycolysis

A

Lactate

109
Q

What debt is said to have built up during lactate metabolism

A

Oxygen debt

110
Q

What substance is reformed following the oxygen debt being repaid?

A

Pyruvate

111
Q

Which type of muscle fibre is used during endurance events like a long distance run or cycling?

A

Slow twitch muscle fibres

112
Q

What type of fibre is used during power events such as a sprint or weight lifting

A

Fast twitch muscle fibres

113
Q

Name the oxygen storing protein present in muscle cells

A

Myoglobin

114
Q

Which oxygen storing protein has a higher affinity for oxygen between haemoglobin or myoglobin?

A

Myoglobin

115
Q

Which type of muscle fibre contains many mitochondria, tire slowly, contract over a long period of time and have many blood capillaries & myoglobin?

A

Slow twitch muscle fibres

116
Q

Which type of muscle fibre contains low numbers of mitochondria, tire easily, contract quickly and have low levels of blood capillaries and myoglobin?

A

Fast twitch muscle fibres

117
Q

What is the major storage fuel used by fast twitch muscle fibres?

A

Glycogen

118
Q

What is the major storage fuel used by slow twitch muscle fibres?

A

Fats?

Higher Human Biology (1 decks)

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