Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CV Block > HTN Pharmacology > Flashcards

HTN Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Explain guidelines to accurate blood pressure measurement technique.
A
  1. use a bare arm
  2. cuff should be long enough to cover ⅔ length of upper arm with a 2.5 space from the 2.5cm from the antecubital fossa
  3. arm should be supported with cuff at heart level
    patients back should be supported, legs uncrossed and no talking (either person)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What is significant about getting different blood pressure measurements in different arms?
A

BP should always be taken in the arm with the higher pressure, a difference of >15mmHg is concerning for subclavian stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What are important concerns to keep in mind concerning patient home blood pressure monitoring?
A

digital, automatic monitor with a cuff for the upper arm should be used; remember: home blood pressure of >135/85 is considered hypertensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. When are 24 hour blood pressure monitor’s used?
A

in the diagnosis of HTN they can be used (taking an average) which is useful in ruling out :

white coat hypertension
masked hypertension
nocturnal hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What are the 3 primary goals during the initial assessment of a patient with a new HTN dx. (and how are these assessed)?
A
  1. ID possible secondary causes of HTN
  2. ID other CV risk factors
  3. assess for target organ damage (TOD)

this is accomplished with physical exam and lab tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What are important parts of the physical exam when assessing for HTN? (8)
A 
BP in both arms
orthostatic pressures
palpation and auscultation of heart
pulses, auscultate for bruits
aortic mass or pulsation
lower extremity edema
thyroid abnormalities
examine optic fund
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Name lab tests and their function that are done as part of HTN assessment.
A 
urinalysis- protein in urine
blood glucose- screen for diabetes
hematocrit- screen for anemia or elevated RBC
serum K+ - looking for secondary causes
serum Ca++- screen for parathyroidism
ECG- screen for cardiac hypertrophy
THS- check thyroid function 
lipid- assess other risk factors for CVD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Why are >⅔ of patients on 2 or more antihypertensives?
A

combining a low dose of two drugs with different mechanisms of action to obtain a greater therapeutic effect; combining drugs can also limit the multiple compensatory mechanisms that may increase BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Cite the 2014 HTN treatment goals.
A

general population < 140/ 90; if >80yo, <150/90 (systolic pressure being the major focus); specific guidelines for diabetics and those with renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Name the 4 primary classes of drugs used in treating HTN along with 6 additional classes used less frequently.
A

ACE inhibitor
angiotensin receptor blocker
calcium channel blockers
diuretics

also: a and B blockers, direct vasodilators, aldosteron antagonists, direct renin inhibitors and central a2 agonists (anything that reduces SVR or CO- volume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What is the black box warning for RAAS inhibitors
A

because Angiotensin II is required for normal fetal development (esp fetal kidney), do not use ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, or renin inhibitors in pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. How would you expect renin and aldosterone levels to change with use of ACE inhibitor?
A

renin levels increase- due to feedback mechanisms

aldosterone levels decrease- due to decreased angiotensin II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3.. What is the mechanism by which ACE-inhibitors induce coughing?

A

increased bradykinnin, due to decreased ACE metabolism can sensitize bronchial epithelium to irritants

dry cough can begin anytime after an ACE-I is started (5-20%) and its effects are dose dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. ACE inhibitors can reduce GFR which has which side effects (2)?
A

hyperkalemia and increase in creatinine (greater in CKD, renal artery stenosis, CHF and DM) which should stabilize after 1 week of treatment and may not be an indication to discontinue treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. ACE inhibitors can cause 2 hypersensitivity type reactions to treatment including….
A

sulfhydryl-related effect when using captopril
angio-edema due o the potentiation of bradykinin (usually in 1st month causing swelling of tongue and laryngeal muscle (risk greater in AA) also “hives that don’t itch– 90% can safely take an angiotensin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. What is the advantage of using AT1 blockers instead of ACE?
A

ARB also block pathways to angiotensin synthesis that are independent of RAS system, these selectively block AT1 receptors, ARB also have no effect on bradykinnin, reducing cough side effects

17
Q
  1. Direct Renin inhibitor blocks the _______ of the RAAS cascade.
A

“rate limiting step” ; also comes with black box warning regarding pregnancy

18
Q
  1. What is important to remember regarding the safety of prescribing direct renin inhibitors?
A

concomitant use of aliskiren (DRI) with ARBs or ACEIs in patient with diabetes (or GFR <60mL/min) is contraindicated because of the risk for renal impairment, hypotension and hyperkalemia

19
Q
  1. What is the action of diuretics?
A

increase urinary excretion of sodium, ventilation (decreases intravascular volume, lowering blood pressure

important to check electrolytes after starting, effects take a few weeks to reach treatment goals

20
Q
  1. Discuss side effects of diuretics.
A

volume depletion and orthostatic hypotension
electrolyte changes
ototoxicity
metabolic side effects (hyper -glycemia, -cholesteremia and -uricemia)
erectile dysfunction
sulfa-allergy

21
Q
  1. Name two aldosterone antagonists.
A

spironolactone (nonselective) ED and gynecomastia
eplerenone (selective)

beneficial against HTN when combined with other diuretics, increase the risk of hyperkalemia

22
Q
  1. Name the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers and the two types of drug in this category.
A

bind to receptors and inhibit calcium channels inhibiting Ca++ influx and smooth muscle contraction

dihydropyridine and non-dihydropyridine types (non-dihydropyridines affect the Ca++ in the heart)

can be accompanied by gingival hyperplasia and increased GERD due to inhibition of LE sphincter

23
Q
  1. How do B-adrenocetpor blockers reduce HTN?
A

decrease cardiac output, inhibit renin secretion and inhibit NE release

B1 selective have effects on the myocardium with less effect on airways
B2 are non-selective and effect both myocardium, vascular and bronchial cells

lipid soluble B-blockers are metabolized in liver and have shorter half-lives

24
Q
  1. What is intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?
A

partial agonism of B adrenergic receptors; they are less effective at slowing down resting heart rate but block the effects of catecholamine activation during stress or exercise

(B-blockers are also antagonists to a-adrenergic receptors, increasing NO release, although they are not the first line treatment for HTN)

25
Q
  1. WHat are the side effects of B-adrenergic blockers
A

bradycardia, dizziness
bronchospasm, cold extremities (B2)
fatigue, depression, mental slowness, vivid dreams, dry mouth
ED, hyper glycemia, lipid abnormalities

26
Q
  1. What are direct vasodilator’s role when used in combination to treat HTN
A

given with diuretic and B blocker to prevent pseudo tolerance (tachycardia and volume retention) as it works directly to relax smooth muscles by opening K+ channels (i.e. minoxidil)

note genetic variations in metabolism

27
Q
  1. How can a antagonists be used to treat HTN?
A

selective a1-antagonists block sites for NE and decrease the arteriolar resistance (can cause postural hypotension, reflex tachycardia, nasal congestion)

a2 agonists reduce the sympathetic outflow to the chart and blood vessels (can cause ED, sedation and dry mouth)

28
Q
  1. Name the drugs in the typical medication trio of HTN treatment.
A

calcium channel blockers
diuretic
RAS blockers

29
Q
  1. What are the first and second choice of drug for pt. with post MI, DM, CKD or recurrent stroke?
A
  1. ACE1
  2. CCB or diuretic

**heart failure: ARB (or ACEI) and B-blocker, and diuretic and spironolactone

30
Q
  1. Contrast hypertensive urgency and hypertensive emergency.
A

emergency includes acute target organ damage (hospitalization) while urgency requires immediate treatment with PO therapy

31
Q
  1. Define resistant hypertension.
A

BP > 140/90 while on 3 different BP medication classes (including diuretic) or on any 4 antihypertensive drugs regardless of blood pressure (effects 12-30% of patients on HTN meds)

32
Q
  1. Describe the steps in diagnosis resistant hypertension.
A
  1. exclude pseudo-resistance
  2. ID and reverse contributing factors
  3. discontinue/min interfering substances
  4. screen for secondary causes
33
Q
  1. Give factors affecting patient adherence. (6)
A

misunderstanding of treatment or condition
absence of symptoms
adverse effects of meds
cost and complexity of med regimen
cost of follow up visits
perceived lack of involvement in care plan

CV Block (42 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions