HTN Flashcards

1
Q
A

Verapamil

aralkylamine CCB

contains basic tertiary amine required for activity and salt formation

marketed as racemate. S - enantiomer is more potent

MOA: acts on slow Ca channel (L channel) which slow AV conduction and sinus rate and increases PR interval

Effects: afterload (artery), contractilitly, BF. It reduces ventricular resistance and BP.

Has negative chronotropic and inotropic effects

Use: angina, atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, PSVT, and essential HTN (oral med)

Metabolism: CYP 3A4 —> active metabolite (OND)

It is an inhibitor of CYP 3A4 and p-glycoprotein

preg category C

ADR: HA, dizzy, edema, constipation

DDI: drugs that can also inhibit 3A4, p-gp, Ca channels, and shorten QT interval

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2
Q
A

Diltiazem

Benzothiazepine CCB

cis entantiomer is active (has 4 stereoisomers)

higher affinity for vascular Ca channels than for myocardial or nodal channels

dilates peripheral arteries and arterioles

use: angina, artrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, PSVT, migraine, pulmonary HTN, and HTN

Following IV admin, there is a reflex response to inc HR and CO

Undergoes CYP 3A4 —> inactive metabolites (OOD, OND)

undergoes hydrolysis —> 50% active

it is an inhibitor of CYP 3A4 and p-gp

ADR: edema, HA, less gingival hyperplasia

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3
Q
A

Nifedipine

DHP CCB

does not have a basic N

1,4 ring is essential for activity

unsubstituted non basic N on ring is also important

has been most highly associated with gingival hyperplasia.

As a result of their selectivity for vascular versus myocardial or node calcium channels, the DHPs are indicated primarily for the hypertension and/or angina.

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4
Q
A

Amlodipine

DHP CCB

has basic nitrogran off of alkyl chain

has long half life due to Cl- substituent. Felodipine also has long half life due to two Cl- substituents

retards the first pass effect

has decreased reflex

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5
Q
A

Clevidpine

DHP CCB

IV only as lipid mixture in soy oil (allergies are a concern)

Use: quickly need to control HTN

It is easily hydrolyzed

half life = 15 minutes

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6
Q
A

Nicardipine

DHP CCB

some selectivity for coronary arteries which may decrease side effects such as dizziness while still providing antianginal effects.

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7
Q
A

Felodipine

DHP CCB

longer half life

more selective for vascular tissue vs cardiac tissue than most of the others(Nisoldipine is most selective). Reflex still occurs

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8
Q
A

Isradipine

DHP CCB

produces vasodilation like the others but also has some effect on the SA node which blunts the reflex response. Little action on the mycocardium so little negative inotropic effects are seen and there is little effect on the AV node so it may be used in patients where AV block is a problem or more easily combined with a Beta blocker.

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9
Q
A

Nisoldipine

DHP CCB

1000X more selective for vascular tissue

short t 1/2

can decrease reflex

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10
Q
A

Nimodipine

DHP CCB

lipid soluble compound (cross BBB)

Use: cerebrel vasospasm

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11
Q
A

Hydralazine

vasodilator

Use: pre-eclampsia (it is preg category C), CHF, pulmonary HTN, HTN

half life = 3 - 5 hr

MOA: involve opening of K+ channels in vascular smooth muscle resulting in hyperpolarization and decreased Ca+2 entry leading to decreased contraction.

acts as nitric oxide donor

causes a potent reduction in perfusion pressure that activates a reflex response leading to increased sympathetic outflow. For this reason it may exacerbate angina or precipitate an MI.

inhibition of dopa decarboxylase may occur leading to decreased neurotransmitter biosynthesis and peripheral numbness

results in retention of Na+ and water which is commonly seen with the vasodilators and results from sympathetic stimulation and decreased renal perfusion pressure resulting in increased proximal reabsorption of Na+ and water.

metabolism: acetylation (fast and slow)

ADR: risk of falls, Dizziness, drowsiness, headache, constipation, loss of appetite, fatigue, and nasal congestion

Allergy: rash, itching, swelling, dizziness, and trouble breathing

DDI: isoniazid, procainamide, quinidine, phenytoin and penicillamine —> inc risk of SLE (more likely to be seen with slow acetylators and more associated with parent drug)

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12
Q
A

Minoxidil

Vasodilator

Acts as prodrug

MOA: opens K+ channels, decreasing the positive potential in vascular tissue and hyperpolarizing the cell. BF increased to skin, muscle, GI, heart (mainly arteries).

There is reflex response including increased renin release

Use: HTN, effectiveness increase when used with beta blocker

Well absorbed

metabolized by liver to glucuronide (inactive, major) and sulphate conjugates (active, minor)

half life = 3 -4 hours, duration = 24 hours (persists in vasculature)

ADR: reflex sympathetic response (inc CO, Na/H2O retention), ST segment depression, T wave inversion (seen 2 weeks after initial therapy), hypertrichosis (hair growth thru effects on K+ channel)

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13
Q
A

Sodium nitroprusside

acts on both arterials and venules

IV

Use: HTN emergency, lower BP during anesthesia, dec CO in CHF (acute decompensation heart failure), dec myocardial O2 demand after acute MI, dec preload/afterload

onset: 30 seconds

Duration: 3 minutes

toxicity develops after one hour of use

look at breakdown of compound on page 61

ADR: vasodil leading to hypotension, cyanosis if high dose or fast infusion,

May want to add thiosulfate to therapy to prevent cyanide toxicity

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14
Q
A

diazoxide

use: HTN emergencies

similar structure to thiazide, but does not cause diuresis

MOA: activates K+ channel resulting in hyperpolarization of arterial smooth muscle

solely acts on arterioles and reflex activation occurs. Na/H2O retention occurs. Stimulates renin release. Hyperglycemia is seen due to agents ability to inhibit insulin secretion (opening of K+ channel)

admin: IV

half life: 20 - 60 hours

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15
Q
A

ethacrynic acid

Loop diuretic

preg cat B

metab: conjugation with SH

Duration: 4- 8 hour

urinary excretion

DDI: aminoglycosides (inc ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity), agents that affect K+ levels

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16
Q
A

Furosemide

loop

preg cat C

Metab: gluc

duration: 6 -8 hr

urinary excretion

DDI: aminoglycosides (inc ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity), agents that affect K+ levels

17
Q
A

Bumetanide

loop

preg cat C

metab: gluc
duration: 4 -6 hr

urinary excretion

DDI: aminoglycosides (inc ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity), agents that affect K+ levels

18
Q
A

torsemide

loop

preg cat B

metab: benzylic oxidation to acid
duration: 6- 8 hr

urinary excretion

DDI: aminoglycosides (inc ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity), agents that affect K+ levels

19
Q
A

hydrochlorothiazide

thiazide

category B pregnancy

medium PPB

95% renal elimination

dose: once a day

onset after dosing: 24 hr

more useful in pt with low renin, high sodium, HTN, blacks, elderly, obese

20
Q

Chlorothalidone

A

thiazide

bind to carbonic anhydrase in erthyrocyte

high PPB

acts like depot drug

21
Q

Metolazone

A

thiazide

useful in pt with low GFR

22
Q
A

spironolactone

potassium sparing site IV diuretic

Use: hyperaldosteronism, edema, HTN, CHF, hirusitism + androgenic alopecia + dermatitis in women, post MI treatment, male pattern bladness

DOES NOT INVOLVE CYP

parent drug is active and also forms several active metabolites such as canrenone

duration: 2 -3 days

high PPB, bioavailability

preg cat C

ADR: drowsiness, headache and rash (Stevens-Johnson possible), nausea, diarrhea and gastritis, hyperkalemia, gynecomastia, impotence, menstrual disorders

DDI: K+ sparing diuretics, K+ supplements

23
Q
A

Eplerenone

site IV, K+ sparing diuretic

Use: post MI, HTN, left ventricular failure (due to aldosterone or heart remodeling)

more specific inhibitor of mineralcorticoid receptor

devoid of androgenic effects

metab: CYP 3A4

ADR: hyperkalemia, dizzy, GI

preg cat B

24
Q
A

amiloride

site IV diuretic

preg cat B

duration: 24 hrs

NOT metabolized

utilize OCT

basic guanidine

pka 8.7

has the ability to block Lithium entry through the channel and has been used in treating Li induced diabetes insipidus

25
Q
A

Triamterene

site IV diuretic

preg cat C

duration: 7 - 9 hr
metab: hydroxy - triamterene

excreted in urine

can delocalize charge

less basic than amiloride

pka 6.2

26
Q
A

Captopril

ACEI

ionizes easily

high oral bioavail (75%)

food dec its effect

fast onset (0.5 hr)

short duration (2-6 hr)

low PPB

has sulfhydrl group

no hepatic activation

renal elimination

27
Q
A

linsinopril

ACEI

has acid

low oral bioavail

food has no effect

onset 2 -4hr

duration >36 hr

no sulfhydryl group

no hepatic activation

renal elim

28
Q
A

Benazepril

ACEI

S2’ functionality

food has no effect

onset 1 hr

duration 24 hr

high PPB

no sulfhydryl group

hepatic acitvation

eliminated in bile and renal

29
Q
A

Fosinopril

ACEI

food has no effect

onset 1 hr

duration 24 hr

high PPB

no sulfhydryl group

hepatic activation

balanced elimination

30
Q
A

moexipril

ACEI

low oral bioavail

food dec its effect

onset 1 hr

duration 24 hr

no sulfhydryl

hepatic activation

mostly elim in feces

31
Q
A

Trandolapril

ACEI

food slows its effect

no sulfhydryl group

hepatic activation

mostly elim in feces

32
Q
A

Angiotensin II

33
Q
A

losartan

ARB

CYP 3A4 metabolized to acid with increased activity

high PPB

non competitive for Ang I receptor

food dec its effect

34
Q
A

Valsartan

ARB

tetrazole is acidic in nature

high PPB

food dec its effect

mostly fecal elim

non competitive inhibitor of Ang I receptor

35
Q
A

azilsartan

ARB

no tetrazole

does contain acid

competitve inhibitor for Ang I receptor

high PPB

urine and feces

food has no effect

36
Q

eprosartan

A

ARB

competitive inhibitor of Ang I receptor

high PPB

food has no effect

mostly fecal elim

37
Q
A

Aliskiren

renin inhibitor

oral drug

prevents conversion of angiotensinogen to Ang I

transition state inhibitor

ACEI or ARB use may inc renin release

no impact of bradykinin

24 hr plasma half life

potent

CYP 3A4 metabolism