HTN Flashcards

1
Q

What is the cause of primary, or essential, HTN

A
Cause is unknown, but risk factors are usually present (like obesity, smoking, excessive salt intake, etc)

2
Q
What is the cause of secondary HTN

A
Renal disease

3
Q
What is normal BP considered

A
SBP < 120 mmHg and DBP < 80 mmHg

4
Q
What is stage 1 HTN considered

A
SBP 130-139 mmHg or DBP 80-89

5
Q
What is stage 2 HTN considered

A
SBP >/= 140 mmHg or DBP >/= 90 mmHg

6
Q
Lifestyle management of HTN includes reducing Na intake to < _____ mg daily

A
1500

7
Q
Key drugs that can increase BP

A
o Amphetamines and ADHD drugs
o Cocaine
o Decongestants (e.g. pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine)
o Erythropoietin-stimulating agents
o Immunosuppressants (e.g. cyclosporine)
o NSAIDs
o Systemic steroids
8
Q
What are natural products that can be used for HTN

A
Fish oil, Coenzyme Q10, L-arginine, garlic

9
Q
What are the 4 preferred drug classes for initial treatment or titration of treatment

A
ACEi, ARB, CCBs, or thiazide diuretics

10
Q
When to start treatment in Stage 2 HTN

A
When SBP is >/= 140 mmHg or DBP >/= 90 mmHg

11
Q
When to start treatment in Stage 1 HTN

A
SBP 130-139 mmHg or DBP 80-89 and

Clinical CVD (stroke, HF, or CAD)
10-yr ASCVD risk >/= 10%
12
Q
BP goal for all pts

A
< 130/80 mmHg

13
Q
Initial drug selection for Non-black pts

A
thiazide, CCB, ACEi, or ARB

14
Q
Initial drug selection for black pts

A
thiazide or CCB

15
Q
Initial drug selection for pts with CKD (all races)

A
ACEi or ARB

16
Q
Initial drug selection for pts with diabetes with albuminuria (all races)

A
ACEi or ARB

17
Q
How many drugs should a pt be started on in stage 2 HTN when Average SBP and DBP >20/10 mmHg above goal (e.g., 150/90 mmHg)

A
2

18
Q
Which antihypertensives have a boxed warning for fetal toxicity

A
ACEi, ARBs and aliskiren

19
Q
Pregnant patients with chronic HTN should receive drug treatment if SBP is >/= ___ or DBP is >/= ___

A
SBP >/= 160

DBP >/= 105

20
Q
First line treatments for HTN in pregnant pts

A
labetalol and nifedipine ER (methyldopa can be recommended but is less effective)

21
Q
Lisinopril/HCTZ brand name

A
Zestoretic

22
Q
Losartan/HCTZ brand name

A
Hyzaar

23
Q
Olmesartan/HCTZ brand name

A
Benicar HCT

24
Q
Valsartan/HCTZ brand name

A
Diovan HCT

25
Q
Benazepril/amlodipine brand name

A
Lotrel

26
Q
Valsartan/amlodipine brand name

A
Exforge

27
Q
Atenolol/chlorthalidone brand name

A
Tenoretic

28
Q
Bisoprolol/HXTZ brand name

A
Ziac

29
Q
Triamterene/HCTZ brand name

A
Maxzide, Dyazide

30
Q
Thiazide diuretics MOA

A
inhibit Na reabsorption in the DCTs, causing increased excretion of Na, Cl, water and K

31
Q
Chlorthalidone doses

A
12.5-25 mg daily

32
Q
HCTZ doses

A
12.5-50 mg daily

33
Q
Thiazide diuretic CI

A
Hypersensitivity to sulfonamide-derived drugs

34
Q
Thiazide diuretic SE

A
↓ electrolytes: K, Mg, Na
↑ electrolytes/labs: Ca, UA, LDL, TG, BG
Photosensitivity
35
Q
Thiazides are not effective when CrCl < ___

A
30 mL/min

36
Q
Which thiazide diuretic is the only one available IV

A
chlorthalidone

37
Q
Which drug class should be avoided with thiazide diuretics

A
NSAIDs (can cause Na & water retention)

38
Q
Thiazide diuretics can decrease ___ renal clearance and increase risk of toxicity

A
Lithium

39
Q
DHP CCBs are used in what conditions

A
HTN, chronic stable angina and Prinzmetal’s angina

40
Q
DHP CCB MOA

A
Inhibit Ca ions from entering vascular smooth muscle and myocardial cells; this causes peripheral arterial vasodilation

41
Q
Amlodipine brand name

A
Norvasc

42
Q
Nicardipine IV brand name

A
Cardene IV

43
Q
Nifedipine ER brand name

A
Adalat CC, Procardia XL

44
Q
Which CCB should not be used for chronic hypertension or acute BP reduction in non-pregnant adults (profound hypotension, MI, and/or death has occurred)

A
Nifedipine IR

45
Q
CCB SE

A
Can cause peripheral edema/HA/flushing/palpitations/reflex tachycardia/fatigue (worse with Nifedipine IR, can occur with others), gingival hyperplasia

46
Q
____ & ____ are considered the safest if a CCB must be used to lower BP in HFrEF

A
Amlodipine and felodipine

47
Q
____ are used to prevent peripheral vasoconstriction in Raynaud’s

A
DHP CCBs (e.g. nifedipine ER)

48
Q
Clevidipine (Cleviprex) CI

A
Allergy to soybeans, soy products or eggs

49
Q
Clevidipine (Cleviprex) warnings

A
Hypotension, reflex tachycardia, infections

50
Q
Clevidipine (Cleviprex) SE

A
Hypertriglyceridemia

51
Q
A lipid emulsion of Clevidipine (provides __ kcal/mL): it is ____ in color

A
2

milky-white

52
Q
Clevidipine max time of use after vial puncture is ___ hours

A
12

53
Q
___ are primarily used to control HR in certain arrhythmias (e.g. atrial fibrillation), and sometimes used for HTN and angina

A
Non-DHP CCBs

54
Q
Which class of CCBs are more selective for the myocardium

A
non-DHP CCBs

55
Q
The decrease in BP produced by non-DHP CCBs is d/t ____ (↓ force of ventricular contraction) and ____ (↓ HR) effects

A
negative inotropic

negative chronotropic

56
Q
Diltiazem brand name

A
Cardizem, Tiazac

57
Q
Verapamil brand name

A
Calan SR

58
Q
non-DHP CCB warnings

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A
HF (may worsen symptoms), bradycardia

59
Q
non-DHP CCB SE

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A
Edema, constipation (more with verapamil), gingival hyperplasia

60
Q
Use caution with CCBs & ____

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A
other drugs that ↓ HR, including BB, digoxin, clonidine, & amiodarone

61
Q
All CCBs are major substrates of CYP450 ___. Check for drug interactions and do not use with ____

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A
3A4

grapefruit juice

62
Q
Diltiazem and verapamil are substrates and inhibitors of ___ and moderate inhibitors of ___

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A
Pgp

CYP3A4

63
Q
Patients on diltiazem or verapamil and a statin should use lower doses of which 2 statins

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A
simvastatin and lovastatin

64
Q
Which 2 classes of HTN meds have been shown to slow the progression of kidney disease in patients with albuminuria

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A
ACEi and ARB

65
Q
How are ACEi and ARBs beneficial in HF

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A
protect the myocardium from the remodeling effects of Ang II

66
Q
ACEi MOA

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A
block the conversion of angiotensin I to Ang II, resulting in ↓ vasoconstriction and ↓ aldosterone secretion

67
Q
ACEi block the degradation of

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A
bradykinin, which is thought to contribute to vasodilatory effects (& SE of dry and hacking cough)

68
Q
Benazepril brand name

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A
Lotensin

69
Q
Enalapril brand name

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A
Vasotec

70
Q
Enalaprilat brand name

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A
Vasotec IV

71
Q
Lisinopril brand name

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A
Prinivil, Zestril

72
Q
Quinapril brand name

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A
Accupril

73
Q
Ramipril brand name

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A
Altace

74
Q
ACEi BW

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A
Can cause injury and death to developing fetus when used in 2nd and 3rd trimesters; d/c as soon as pregnancy is detected

75
Q
ACEi should not be used within __ hrs of sacubitril/valsartan (Entresto)

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A
36

76
Q
ACEi warnings

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A
Angioedema, hyperkalemia, hypotension, renal impairment, bilateral renal artery stenosis (avoid use)

77
Q
ACEi SE

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A
cough, hyperkalemia, ↑ SCr, hypotension

78
Q
Irbesartan brand name

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A
Avapro

79
Q
Losartan brand name

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A
Cozaar

80
Q
Olmesartan brand name

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A
Benicar

81
Q
Valsartan brand name

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A
Diovan

82
Q
ARB MOA

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A
Block Ang II from binding to the angiotensin II type-1 (AT1) receptor on vascular smooth muscle, preventing vasoconstriction

83
Q
Which class of HTN meds does not require a washout period

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A
ARBs

84
Q
Which class of HTN meds has less cough and angioedema

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A
ARBs

85
Q
Olmesartan warning

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A
sprue-like enteropathy

86
Q
Aliskiren CI

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A
Do not use with ACEi or ARBs in patients with diabetes

87
Q
All RAAS inhibitors ↑ risk for ____

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A
hyperkalemia

88
Q
ACEi and ARBs can ↓ ____ renal clearance and ↑ the risk of toxicity

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A
lithium

89
Q
____ is a non-selective aldosterone receptor antagonists that also blocks ___

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A
Spironolactone

androgen

90
Q
____ is a selective aldosterone antagonist that does NOT exhibit endocrine side effects

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A
Eplerenone

91
Q
Spironolactone brand name

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A
Aldactone

92
Q
Amiloride and triamterene BW

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A
hyperkalemia (K > 5.5 mEq/L) – more likely in patients with diabetes, renal impairment, or elderly patients

93
Q
K-sparing diuretics CI

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A
Do not use if hyperkalemia, severe renal impairment, Addison’s disease (spironolactone)

94
Q
K-sparing diuretics SE (all meds)

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A
Hyperkalemia, ↑ SCr, dizziness

95
Q
Spironolactone SE

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A
gynecomastia, breast tenderness, impotence

96
Q
Which BB should be used if treating chronic HF

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A
Bisoprolol, carvedilol, or metoprolol succinate

97
Q
BB with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA) like ____ do not ↓ HR to the same degree as BB without ISA and are not recommended in post-MI pts

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A
acebutolol

98
Q
Atenolol brand name

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A
Tenormin

99
Q
Esmolol brand name

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A
Brevibloc

100
Q
Esmolol formulation

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A
injection

101
Q
Metoprolol tartrate brand name

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A
Lopressor

102
Q
Metoprolol succinate ER brand name

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A
Toprol XL

103
Q
Beta-blockers BW

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A
Do not d/c abruptly; gradually taper dose over 1-2 weeks to avoid acute tachycardia, HTN, and/or ischemia

104
Q
BB warnings

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A
Use caution in pts with diabetes: can worsen hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia and mask hypoglycemic symptoms
Caution with bronchospastic diseases (e.g. asthma, COPD), Beta-1 selective preferred
Caution in Raynaud’s/other peripheral vascular diseases, and HF
105
Q
Beta-blockers side effects

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A
Bradycardia, fatigue, hypotension, dizziness, depression, impotence, cold extremities (can exacerbate Raynaud’s)

106
Q
Which 2 BB should be taken with or immediately following food, while the others can be taken without regard to food

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A
Lopressor (metoprolol tartrate)
Toprol XL (metoprolol succinate)
107
Q
IV:PO ratio for metoprolol tartrate

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A
1:2.5

108
Q
What are the beta-1 selective drugs

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A
Remember: AMEBBA

Atenolol
Metoprolol
Esmolol
Bisprolol
Betaxolol
Acebutolol
109
Q
Nebivolol brand name

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A
Bystolic

110
Q
Which BB is a B1 selective blocker with Nitric oxide-dependent vasodilation

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A
Nebivolol

111
Q
Which BB are B1 and B2 non-selective

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A
Propranolol and Nadolol

112
Q
Non-selective BB are used in

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A
portal HTN

113
Q
Propranolol brand name

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A
Inderal LA, Inderal XL

114
Q
Nadolol brand name

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A
Corgard

115
Q
Propranolol has high __ solubility & therefore causes more ____ SE, but this makes it more useful in conditions like ____

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A
lipid
CNS
migraine ppx

116
Q
Which BB are non-selective BB and Alpha-1 blockers

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A
Carvedilol, labetalol

117
Q
Carvedilol brand name

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A
Coreg, Coreg CR

118
Q
How should all forms of carvedilol be taken

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A
with food

119
Q
T/F: carvedilol dosing conversions are 1:1 (IR:ER)

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A
false

120
Q
Labetalol SE

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A
dizziness

121
Q
BB can decrease ___ secretion

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A
insulin

122
Q
____ is commonly used for resistant HTN and in pts who cannot swallow since it’s available as a patch

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A
Clonidine

123
Q
Clonidine brand name for HTN

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A
Catapres, Catapres-TTS patch

124
Q
Clonidine brand name for ADHD

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A
Kapvay

125
Q
Guanfacine ER brand name for ADHD

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A
Intuniv

126
Q
Methyldopa (Centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist) CI

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A
concurrent use with MAOi

127
Q
Methyldopa warning

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A
risk for hemolytic anemia

128
Q
Centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonists warning

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A
Do not d/c abruptly (can cause rebound HTN); must taper over 2-4 days

129
Q
Centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonists SE

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A
Dry mouth, somnolence, fatigue, dizziness, constipation, ↓ HR, hypotension
130
Q
Methyldopa SE

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A
hypersensitivity rxn [e.g. drug-induced lupus erythematosus (DILE)]

131
Q
Clonidine patch is applied how many times per week

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A
once

132
Q
Hydralazine warning

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A
DILE

133
Q
Hydralazine SE

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A
Peripheral edema/HA/flushing/palpitations/reflex tachycardia

134
Q
Minoxidil SE

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A
Fluid retention, tachycardia, hair growth

135
Q
Hypertensive crises is BP >/=

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A
180/120 mmHg

136
Q
patient has acute target organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, stroke, acute kidney injury, acute coronary syndrome, aortic dissection, acute pulmonary edema)

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A
Hypertensive emergency

137
Q
How is hypertensive emergency treated

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A
IV meds (chlorothizaide, clevidipine, diltiazem, enalaprilat, esmolol, hydralazine, labetalol, metoprolol tartrate, nicardipine, nitroglycerin, nitroprusside, propranolol, verapamil)

138
Q
In hypertensie crisis, Decrease BP by no more than __% (within first __), then if stable, decrease to ~160/100 mmHg in the next 2-6 hrs

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A
25

hour

139
Q
How is hypertensive urgency treated

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A
any oral med that has a short onset of action

140
Q
Hypertensive urgency- decrease BP gradually over ___-___ hrs

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A
24-48

e.g. MCAT, pharma, bar exam, Spanish, Series 7
DECKS IN NAPLEX 2023 CLASS (88):
Calculation Conversion Factors
Math Stuff
Autonomic Nervous System
Drug Formulations And Patient Counseling
Therapeutic Drug Levels
“Color” Drug References
Drug Interactions
Iv Medication Principles
Controlled Substance
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Practice Exam Naplex #1 (Access Pharmacy)
Naplex Quick Review
Chapter 2: Basic Science Concepts
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Chapter 28: Hypertension
Chapter 29: Ischemic Heart Disease
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Chapter 31: Chronic Heart Failure
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