HTMLE Flashcards
Father of pathology:
a. George Nicholas Papanicolaou
b. Rudolf Carl Virchow
C. Hippocrates
d. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
B.
Father of cytopathology:
a. George Nicholas Papanicolaou
b. Rudolf Carl Virchow
C. Hippocrates
d.cAnton van Leeuwenhoek
A.
Microscopically, the hallmark of this type
necrosis is the conversion of normal cells into
‘TOMBSTONES:
a. Caseous necrosis
b. Coagulation necrosis
C. Fat necrosis
d. Liquefaction necrosis
B.
Organ most commonly affected by FATTY
DEGENERATION:
a. Heart
b. Liver
C. Lungs
d. Kidney
B.
The first and most critical step in histotechnology?
a. Clearing
b. Embedding
c. Fixation
d. Infiltration
C.
Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions
contain:
a. 4% formaldehyde
b. 10% formaldehyde
C. 37% to 40% formaldehyde
d. 98% to 100% formaldehyde
C.
Microanatomical fixatives:
1. 10% formol saline
2. Heidenhain’s susa
3. Zenker’s solution
4. Flemming’s fluid
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 4
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C.
10-10 = 10% NBF, 10% Formol Saline
H-H = Heidenhains susa, Helly
B-B = Bouins, Brasils
F-Z = Formol sublimate, Zenker
The primary aim of fixation:
a. Preserve the morphologic and chemical
integrity of the cell
b. Harden and protect the tissue from
trauma of further handling
c. Act as mordant or accentuators
d. Inhibit bacterial decomposition
A.
This organ is usually suspended whole in 10%
buffered formalin for 2 to 3 weeks to ensure
fixation and some hardening prior to
sectioning,
a. Lungs
b. Liver
c. Brain
d. Amputated foot
C.
Nuclear fixatives are those that preserve
nuclear structure in particular. They have a
pH of:
a. pH 4,6 or less
b. pH 4.6 or greater
c. pH 6.4 or less
d. pH 6.4 or greater
A.
Cytoplasmic fixatives, EXCEPT:
a. Zenker’s fluid
b. Helly’s fluid
c. Orth’s fluid
d. Regaud’s fluid
A.
Fixative for the preservation of fats:
a. Helly’s fluid
b. Zenker’s fluid
c. Formalin
d. Newcomer’s fluid
C.
It is used to fix sputum, since it coagulated
mucus:
a. Genre’s fixative
b. Neutral buffered formalin
c. Helly’s solution
d. B5 fixative
A.
It is considered as the most common metallic
fixative:
a. Lead
b. Mercuric chloride
c. Osmium tetroxide
d. Chromate
B.
Mercuric chloride fixatives:
1. Zenker’s fluid
2. Heidenhain’s Susa solution
3. B-5 fixative
4. Orth’s fluid
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C.
CROPmate Fixatixes (Chromate fixatives)
Chromic acid
Regauds/ Mullers
Orths
Potassium dichromate
It is recommended mainly for tumor biopsies
especially of the skin; it is an excellent
cytologic fixative:
a. B-5 fixative
b. Zenker’s fluid
c. Helly’s fluid
d. Heidenhain’s Susa solution
D.
Components of Helly’s solution
1. Mercuric chloride
2. Potassium dichromate
3. Formaldehyde
4. Glacial acetic acid
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 2, 3 and 4
C.
Hellys solution is a mercuric chloride fixative
It is different from zenker fluid because it contains formaldehyde.
It is a cytoplasmic fixative thus it should not contain glacial acetic acid
All fixative contains picric acid, EXCEPT:
a. Bouin’s
b. Brasil’s
c. Carnoy’s
d. Gendre’s
C.
Brasil and Bouins are picric acid fixatives. Gendres fluid is under aldehyde fixatives but contains picric acid.
Carnoy is an alcoholic fixative.
Carnoy’s fluid fixative is considered to be as
the the most rapid fixative. It fixes and
dehydrates at the same time.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. 1st statement is true; 2nd statement is
false
d. 1s statement is false; 2nd statement is
true
A.
It is excellent for fixing dry and wet, blood
smears and bone marrow tissues:
a. Bouin’s solution
b. Carnoy’s solution
c. B-5
d. Methanol
D.
An unknown pigment in tissue section that
can be bleached with a saturated alcoholic
solution of picric acid is most likely:
a. Melanin pigment
b. Hemosiderin
c. Formalin pigment
d. Mercury pigment
C.
Formalin Pigment can be removed by SAKaL
SAturated picric acid
Alcoholic KOH
Kardasewitsch method
Lilies method
Acetic acid is normally used in conjunction
with other fixatives to form a compound
solution. It solidifies at hence the name glacial acetic acid.
a. 7C
b. 7F
c. 17C
d. 175
C.
Most useful primary fixatives for electron
microscopy:
1. Osmium tetroxide
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Paraformaldehyde
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
D.
Composition of von Ebner’s fluid:
a. Nitric acid, chromic acid, absolute ethyl
alcohol
b. Sodium chloride, hydrochloric acid,
water
C. Trichloroacetic acid, formol saline
d. Chromic acid, osmium tetroxide, acetic
acid
B.
It decalcifies and softens tissues at the same
time:
a. von Ebner’s fluid
b. Perenyi’s fluid
c. Flemming’s fluid
d. Trichloroacetic acid
B.
Which of the following is a dehydrating
agent?
a. Formalin
b. Xylene
c. Benzene
d. Alcohol
D.
Dioxane is a reagent that can be used:
a. For both fixing and dehydrating tissues
b. For both dehydrating and clearing
c. In very small volume rations
d. For long periods without changing
B.
It is the most rapid clearing agent, suitable
for urgent biopsies and clears within 15 to 30
minutes.
a. Xylene
b. Toluene
c. Benzene
d. Chloroform
A.
It is recommended clearing agent for tough
tissues (e.g. skin, fibroid and decalcified
tissues), for nervous tissues, lymph nodes
and embryos because it causes minimum
shrinkage and hardening of tissues.
a. Xylene
b. Toluene
c. Benzene
d. Chloroform
D.
The volume of the impregnating medium
should be at least the volume of the
tissue.
a. 5 times
b. 10 times
c. 20 times
d. 25 times
D.
Common paraffin waxes have melting points
of 45, 52, 56 and 58C. The wax is normally used for routine works.
a. 45C
b. 52C
c. 56C
d. 58C
C.
Paraffin oven- must be 2 to 5 celcius above the melting point
Paraffin wax used for embedding- 5 to 10 degree celcius above its melting point and cooled rapidly at -5 degree Celcius to solidify.
It is a product of paraffin, containing rubber,
with the same property as paraplast.
a. Embeddol
b. Bioloid
c. Tissue mat
d. Ester wax
C
A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding
the eyes
a. Embeddol
b. Bioloid
C. Tissue mat
d. Ester wax
B.
All processes are done in an automatic tissue
processor, EXCEPT:
a. Fixation
b. Dehydration
C. Impregnation
d. Embedding
D.
The AUTOTECHNICON is an automatic tissue
processor. The last container through which
the surgical tissue sections pass through
contains:
a. Formalin
b. Alcohol
c. Paraffin
d. Acetone
C.
Double embedding:
a. Infiltrated with paraffin and then embedded with celloidin
b. Infiltrated with celloidin and then embedded with paraffin
c. Infiltrated with gelatin and then embedded with plastic
d. Infiltrated with gelatin and then embedded with paraffin
B.
Theoretically, the perfect and OPTIMUM
CUTTING ANGLE is obtained when the sides
of the wedge knife are inclined at an angle of
about:
a. 5-degree angle
b. 10-degree angle
c. 15-degree angle
d. 27-degree angle
C.
Cambridge microtome:
a. Rocking
b. Rotary
C. Sliding
d. Freezing
A.
The most common type of microtome used
for both routine and research laboratories at
present, especially for sectioning paraffin-
embedded tissues:
a. Rocking
b. Rotary
c. sliding
d. Freezing
B.
It is the recommend knife for cutting paraffin
embedded sections on a rotary microtome:
a. Plane-concave
b. plane-wedge
c. Biconcave
d. None of these
C.
This type of hone usually gives the best
result, It is used for manual sharpening when
cutting edge has been rendered blunt or
nicked
a.Fine carborundum
b. Arkansas
c. Belgium yellow
d. None of these
C.
These types of knives can be used for
electron microscopy:
a. Magnetic knives
b. Biconcave knives
c. Diamond knives
d. Diamond and glass knives
D.
The action of the dye is intensified by adding
another agent or mordant:
a. Direct staining
b. indirect staining
c. Progressive staining
d. Prosiessive staining
B.
Color of the nuclei in H and E staining:
a. Pale pink
b. Orange-red
c. Blue to blue-black
d. Purplish-pink
C.
Stain for reticulin fibers:
a. Gomori’s silver impregnation
b. Masson’s trichrome stain | cllagen
c. van Gieson-llagen
d. Weigert’
A.
The phosphotungstic
acid hematoxylin (PTAH) is useful for demonstrating:
a. Edema fluid
b. Muscle striations
c. Ground substance
d. Reticulin
B.
It is probably the OLDEST of all stains,
originally used for microscopic study of
starch granules. It stains amyloid, cellulose,
starch, carotenes and glycogen.
a. lodine
b. Malachite green
c. Orcein
d. Neutral red
A.
It is used as 4% aqueous solution in Krajian’s
method of staining AMYLOID, elastic tissues
and myelin. It is best known as an indicator
but may be utilized as a stain for axis cylinders in embryos:
a. Eosin
b. Bismarck brown
c. Congo red
d. Carmine
C.
Sakaguchi’s test:
a. Arginine
b. Cystine
c. Histones
d. Protamine
A.
In the methyl green-pyronin stain, RNA is
stained:
a. Black
b. Purple
c. Rose-red
d. Green or blue-green
C.
Demonstration of neuron, axons and neurofibrils:
a. Bielchowsky’s technique
b. Luxol fast blue
c. Cajal’s gold sublimate
d. Modified Holzer’s method
A.
Astrocytes are demonstrated by which of the
following procedures?
a. Luxol fast blue
b. Cresyl violet
c. Weill’s
d. Cajal’s
D.
A stain that may be used to demonstrate
calcium is the:
a. Fontana silver nitrate
b. Congo red
c. von Kossa silver nitrate
d. Schmorl method
C.
Rhodamine is used to demonstrate:
a. Ferric iron
b. Copper
c. Calcium
d. Urate crystals
B.
Stain for Helicobacter:
a. Grocott methenamine silver stain
b. Toluidine blue stain
C. Wade-Fite
d. Warthin-Starry method
B.
Stain for leprosy bacilli and Nocardia:
a. Grocott methenamine silver stain
b. Toluidine blue stain
c. Wade-Fite
d. Warthin-Starry method
C.
Immunohistochemical techniques are now
routinely used for the identification of
specific or highly selective in frozen or paraffin-embeddded tissues.
a. Primary antibody
b. Secondary antibody
c. Antiglobulin reagent
d. Epitopes or antigens
D.
The most common chromogen for peroxidases, diaminobenzidine (DAB) produces end product when antigen is present in the tissue.
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Dark brown
d. Yellow
C.
Aminoethyl carbazole (AEC) produces
end product when antigen is present in the
tissue.
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Dark brown
d. Yellow
A.
In the MODIFIED Papanicolau stain, this dye
was omitted from the EA formula.
a. Eosin Y
b. Bismarck brown
c. Light green
d. Orange green
B.
Cytologic collection for female hormonal evaluation:
a. Endocervical brush
b. Vulvar scrape
c. Lateral vaginal scrape
d. Four quadrant scrape
C.
Polygonal squamous cells identified by the
presence of pale-staining cytoplasm
and dark, pyknotic nucleus:
a. Superficial cells
b. Intermediate cells
c. Parabasal cells
d. Basal cells
A.
An increase in size of tissues or organs due to
increase in size of the individual cells:
a. Anaplasia
b. Hypoplasia
c.Hyperplasia
d. Hypertrophy
D.
ACQUIRED decrease in size of a normally
developed or mature tissue or organ:
a. Atresia
b. Aplasia
c. Atrophy
d. Agenesia
C.
A reversible change involving the transformation of one type of cell to another:
a. Anaplasia
b. Dysplasia
c. Metaplasia
d. Neoplasia
C.
Programmed cell death:
a. Necrosis
b. Apoptosis
c. Cellular senescence
d. Terminal differentiation
B.
First demonstrable change observed characterized by cooling of the body:
a. Algor mortis
b. Rigor mortis
c. Livor mortis
d. Postmortem clotting
A.
This implies self-digestion of the cells:
a. Autolysis
b. Desiccation
c. Putrefaction
d. Post-mortem clotting
A.
It forms the linings of the urinary bladder,
the ureters and part of the urethra (organs
which are subject to considerable stretching):
a. Stratified squamous epithelium
b. Transitional epithelium
c. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
d. Stratified columnar epithelium
B.
Thyroid follicles are lined by this type of
epithelium:
a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Transitional epithelium
B.
Elastic cartilage EXCEPT:
a. Epiglottis
b. External ear
c. Intervertebral discs
d. Walls of the Eustachian tubes
C.
Long, cylindrical and multinucleate, they
have obvious striations, and can be controlled voluntarily:
a. Skeletal muscle
b. Visceral muscle
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Smooth Muscle
A.
Uninucleate branching cells that fight tightly
together at junctions called intercalated
disks:
a. Skeletal muscle
b. Visceral muscle
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Smooth muscleC
C.
The four essential functions of a manager
are:
a. Staffing, decision making, cost analysis, evaluating
b. Directing, leading, forecasting, implementing
c. Planning, organizing, directing, controlling
d.Innovating, designing, coordinating, problem-solving
C.
Services done only in a primary category
laboratory, except
a. Routine Hematology
b. Routine Urinalysis
c. Routine Chemistry
d. Qualitative Platelet Determination
C.
Which of the following published standards
for GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP)?
a. Department of Health
b. World Health Organization
c. National Reference Laboratories
d. Philippine Association of Medical Technologists
B.
Maslow’s theory of management is based
upon:
a. The premise that all workers are
unmotivated
b. A pyramid of goals for the satisfaction of
employee needs
c. Use of detractors and perks to keep
employees happy
d. The professional development of the employee
B.
A laboratory performing culture and sensitivity tests is a:
a. Primary laboratory
b. Secondary laboratory
c. Tertiary laboratory
d. Special laboratory
C.
Certificate of registration as Medical
Technologist shall not be required for which
of the following?
a. Duly registered physicians
b. MT from other countries called in for
consultation or as visiting or exchange
professors
c. Medical technologists in the service of
the US Armed Forces stationed in the
Philippines
d. All of these
D.
In cases where the screening drug-testing
laboratory is a division, section, or unit of a
Clinical Laboratory, it shall be headed ky:
1. Licensed physician
2. Medical technologist
3. Pharmacist
4. Chemist, chemical engineer
a. 1 only
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
D.
A young person under the age of 14 who is
pregnant wishes to undergo HIV testing.
What is the correct protocol for obtaining
consent for testing under Republic Act No.
11166?
a. Consent must be obtained from the
minor’s legal guardian or parent.
b. The minor can consent independently to
the testing and counseling process.
c. HIV testing is prohibited for any minor
under 15, regardless of circumstances,
d. HIV testing can only proceed if the
minor’s parents are unreachable after
multiple attempts.
B.
The LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) issued to the
CLINICAL LABORATORY is valid for:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Six months
A.
LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) Blood Service
Facilities is valid for a period of
years.
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Six years
C.
According to DOH A.O. 2006-0024 certificate of accreditation of laboratories for DRINKING WATER ANALYSIS is valid for year(s) and expires on the last day of December.
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Six years
B.
Which of the following examinations is not
administered by the PRC?
a. LEA
b. PNLE
c. BAR
d. LET
C.
The Professional Regulation Commission,
otherwise known as the PRC, is a _____ man
commission attached to office of the President for general direction and coordination.
a. One man
b. Two-man
c. Three-man
d. Four-man
C.
An act done to avoid harming the patients:
a. Beneficence
b. Non-maleficence
c. Autonomy
d. Justice
B.
First clinical laboratory in the Philippines:
a. San Lazaro Hospital
b. Manila Public Health Laboratory -
c. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
d. National Reference Laboratory
B.
Qualification of BOARD EXAMINERS (Board
of MT) EXCEPT:
a. Filipino citizen, good moral character
b. Qualified pathologist or duly RMTs
c. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT
for at least five years prior to his appointment years
d. Not a member of the faculty of any
medical technology school for at least
two years prior to appointment
C.
National Reference Laboratory for HIV/AIDS,
Hepatitis, Syphilis and other Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs):
a. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
b. San Lazaro Hospital
c. East Avenue Medical Center
d. National Kidney and Transplant Institute
B.
National Reference Laboratory for Biochemistry:
a. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
b. San Lazaro Hospital
c. East Avenue Medical Center
d. Lung Center of the Philippines
D.
Jamila intercepts a private conversation
between Marisel and Antonio without their
knowledge or consent and shares it publicly
through Instagram stories. What penalty is
applicable under the Cybercrime Prevention
Act of 2012 for the unauthorized sharing of
private communication?
a. Imprisonment of prision mayor and/or
a fine of at least PHP 200,000. b.
Imprisonment of prision mayor or a
fine of at least PHP 500,000.
c. Imprisonment of prision mayor or a
fine of at least Two hundred thousand
pesos (PhP200,000.00) but not
exceeding One million pesos (PhP
1,000,000.00) or both.
d. Penalty of reclusion perpetua and a
fine of not less than Two million pesos
(Php2,000,000.00) but not more than
Five million pesos (Php5,000,000.00)
A.
A newly licensed professional who recently
PASSED and TOPPED the Medical Technology
licensure exam in March 2021. According
PRC Resolution No. 1146 s. 2019, in the first
renewal cycle, would you be required to earn
CPD units?
a. Yes, you are required to earn 15 CPD
units before your first renewal.
b No, newly licensed professionals are
exempted.
c. Yes, but you will only need 5 CPD units
for the first renewal cycle.
d. No, topnotchers are exempted.
B.
What does CPD stand for in the context of
Republic Act No. 10912?
a. Continuous Professional Development
b Continuing Professional Development
c. Comprehensive Professional Development
d. Certified Professional Development
B.
You are tasked to identify the Chairman of
the Council of Medical Technology Education
in 1969. Based on R.A. 5527, who holds this
position?
a. The Director of the Bureau of Research
and Laboratories
b. The Dean of the Institute of Hygiene of
the University of the Philippines
c. The Commissioner of the Professional
Regulation Commission
d. The Secretary of Education or Director
of Private Education
chairman
D.
Certificate of registration as medical technologist will be issued to successful applicants who attained the age of:
a. 18 years old
b. 19 years old
c. 20 years old
d. 21 years old
D.
Relative weight of Histopathology and MT
Laws in the MT Board Examination:
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 35%
d. 65%
A.
“Continuing Professional Development Act
of 2016”
a. RA 5527
b. RA 8504
c. RA 10640
d. RA 10912
D.
All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse black granules and these mercury deposits must be removed before staining. Removal of mercuric chloride deposits is accomplished by
a. Saturated solution of picric acid
b. Saturated solution of iodine
c. Sodium thiosulfate
d. distille H2O
B
To prevent uneven sections, or alternate thin and thick sections, the knife should be inclined with ______ clearance angle from the cutting plane so that the cutting facet will not compress the block during the process of cutting.
a. 0-5 degree angle
b. 5-10 degree angle
c. 5-15 degree angle
d. 10-15 degree angle
B
